Monday, 3 September 2018

Insurance exams MCQs main

Which among the following is a secondary burden of risk?
(A) Business interruption cost
(B) Goods damaged cost
(C) Setting aside reserves as a provision for meeting potential losses in the future
(D) Hospitalisation costs as a result of heart attack
Which among the following is a method of risk transfer?
(A) Bank FD
(B) Insurance
(C) Equity shares
(D) Real estate
Which among the following scenarios warrants insurance?
(A) The sole bread winner of a family might die untimely
(B) A person may lose his wallet
(C) Stock prices may fall drastically
(D) A house may lose value due to natural wear and tear
Which of the below insurance scheme is run by an insurer and not sponsored by the Government?
(A) Employees State Insurance Corporation
(B) Crop Insurance Scheme
(C) Jan Arogya
(D) All of the above
What is meant by customer lifetime value?
(A) Sum of costs incurred while servicing the customer over his lifetime
(B) Rank given to customer based on business generated
(C) Sum of economic benefits that can be achieved by building a long term relationship with the customer
(D) Maximum insurance that can be attributed to the customer
Identify the scenario where a debate on the need for insurance is not required.
(A) Property insurance
(B) Business liability insurance
(C) Motor insurance for third party liability
(D) Fire insurance
As per the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, who cannot be classified as a consumer?
(A) Hires goods / services for personal use
(B) A person who buys goods for resale purpose
(C) Buys goods and services for a consideration and uses them
(D) Uses the services of another for a consideration
What does not go on to make a healthy relationship?
(A) Attraction
(B) Trust
(C) Communication
(D) Scepticism
Which among the following is not an element of active listening?
(A) Paying good attention
(B) Being extremely judgemental
(C) Empathetic listening
(D) Responding appropriately
Which among the following is not a characteristic of ethical behaviour?
(A) Making adequate disclosures to enable the clients to make an informed decision
(B) Maintaining confidentiality of client‟s business and personal information
(C) Placing self-interest ahead of client‟s interests
(D) Placing client‟s interest ahead of self interest
_____________ is not a tangible good.
(A) House
(B) Insurance
(C) Mobile Phone
(D) A pair of jeans
_______________ is not an indicator of service quality.
(A) Cleverness
(B) Reliability
(C) Empathy
(D) Responsiveness
In India _______________ insurance is mandatory.
(A) Motor third party liability
(B) Fire insurance for houses
(C) Travel insurance for domestic travel
(D) Personal accident
One of the methods of reducing insurance cost of an insured is __________
(A) Reinsurance
(B) Deductible
(C) Co-insurance
(D) Rebate
A customer having complaint regarding his insurance policy can approach IRDA through
(A) IGMS
(B) District Consumer Forum
(C) Ombudsman
(D) IGMS or District Consumer Forum or Ombudsman
Consumer Protection Act deals with:
(A) Complaint against insurance companies
(B) Complaint against shopkeepers
(C) Complaint against brand
(D) Complaint against insurance companies, brand and shopkeepers
___________ has jurisdiction to entertain matters where value of goods or services and the compensation claim is
up to 20 lakhs.
(A) High Court
(B) District Forum
(C) State Commission
(D) National Commission
In customer relationship the first impression is created:
(A) By being confident
(B) By being on time
(C) By showing interest
(D) By being on time, showing interest and being confident
Select the correct statement:
(A) Ethical behaviour is impossible while selling insurance
(B) Ethical behaviour is not necessary for insurance agents
(C) Ethical behaviour helps in developing trust between the agent and the insurer
(D) Ethical behaviour is expected from the top management only
Active Listening involves:
(A) Paying attention to the speaker
(B) Giving an occasional nod and smile
(C) Providing feedback
(D) Paying attention to the speaker, giving an occasional nod and smile and providing feedback
The ______________ has jurisdiction to entertain complaints, where value of the goods or services and the
compensation claimed is up to Rs.20 lakhs.
(A) District Forum
(B) State Commission
(C) Zilla Parishad
(D) National Commission
Expand the term IGMS.
(A) Insurance General Management System
(B) Indian General Management System
(C) Integrated Grievance Management System
(D) Intelligent Grievance Management System
Which of the below consumer grievance redressal agencies would handle consumer disputes amounting between
Rs. 20 lakhs and Rs. 100 lakhs?
(A) District Forum
(B) State Commission
(C) National Commission
(D) Zilla Parishad
Which among the following cannot form the basis for a valid consumer complaint?
(A) Shopkeeper charging a price above the MRP for a product
(B) Shopkeeper not advising the customer on the best product in a category
(C) Allergy warning not provided on a drug bottle
(D) Faulty products
Which of the below will be the most appropriate option for a customer to lodge an insurance policy related
complaint?
(A) Police
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Insurance Ombudsman
(D) District Court
Which of the below statement is correct with regards to the territorial jurisdiction of the Insurance Ombudsman?
(A) Insurance Ombudsman has National jurisdiction
(B) Insurance Ombudsman has State jurisdiction
(C) Insurance Ombudsman has District jurisdiction
(D) Insurance Ombudsman operates only within the specified territorial limits
How is the complaint to be launched with an insurance ombudsman?
(A) The complaint is to be made in writing
(B) The complaint is to be made orally over the phone
(C) The complaint is to be made orally in a face to face manner
(D) The complaint is to be made through newspaper advertisement
What is the time limit for approaching an Insurance Ombudsman?
(A) Within two years of rejection of the complaint by the insurer
(B) Within three years of rejection of the complaint by the insurer
(C) Within one year of rejection of the complaint by the insurer
(D) Within one month of rejection of the complaint by the insurer
Which among the following is not a pre-requisite for launching a complaint with the Ombudsman?
(A) The complaint must be by an individual on a „Personal Lines‟ insurance
(B) The complaint must be lodged within 1 year of the insurer rejecting thecomplaint
(C) Complainant has to approach a consumer forum prior to the Ombudsman
(D) The total relief sought must be within an amount of Rs.20 lakhs.
Are there any fee / charges that need to be paid for lodging the complaint with the Ombudsman?
(A) A fee of Rs 100 needs to be paid
(B) No fee or charges need to be paid
(C) 20% of the relief sought must be paid as fee
(D) 10% of the relief sought must be paid as fee
Can a complaint be launched against a private insurer?
(A) Complaints can be launched against public insurers only
(B) Yes, complaint can be launched against private insurers
(C) Complaint can be launched against private insurers only in the Life Sector
(D) Complaint can be launched against private insurers only in the Non-Life Sector
Which among the following is an example of coercion?
(A) Ramesh signs a contract without having knowledge of the fine print
(B) Ramesh threatens to kill Mahesh if he does not sign the contract
(C) Ramesh uses his professional standing to get Mahesh to sign a contract
(D) Ramesh provides false information to get Mahesh to sign a contract
Which among the following options cannot be insured by Ramesh?
(A) Ramesh‟s house
(B) Ramesh‟s spouse
(C) Ramesh‟s friend
(D) Ramesh‟s parents
Which element of a valid contract deals with premium?
(A) Offer and acceptance
(B) Consideration
(C) Free consent
(D) Capacity of parties to contract
_____________ relates to inaccurate statements, which are made without anyfraudulent intention.
(A) Misrepresentation
(B) Contribution
(C) Offer
(D) Representation
________________ involves pressure applied through criminal means.
(A) Fraud
(B) Undue influence
(C) Coercion
(D) Mistake
Which among the following is true regarding life insurance contracts?
(A) They are verbal contracts not legally enforceable
(B) They are verbal which are legally enforceable
(C) They are contracts between two parties (insurer and insured) as per requirements of Indian Contract Act, 1872
(D) They are similar to wager contracts
Which of the below is not a valid consideration for a contract?
(A) Money
(B) Property
(C) Bribe
(D) Jewellery
Which of the below party is not eligible to enter into a life insurance contract?
(A) Business owner
(B) Minor
(C) House wife
(D) Government employee
Which of the below action showcases the principle of “Uberrima Fides”?
(A) Lying about known medical conditions on an insurance proposal form
(B) Not revealing known material facts on an insurance proposal form
(C) Disclosing known material facts on an insurance proposal form
(D) Paying premium on time
Which of the below is not correct with regards to insurable interest?
(A) Father taking out insurance policy on his son
(B) Spouses taking out insurance on one another
(C) Friends taking out insurance on one another
(D) Employer taking out insurance on employees
When is it essential for insurable interest to be present in case of life insurance?
(A) At the time of taking out insurance
(B) At the time of claim
(C) Insurable interest is not required in case of life insurance
(D) Either at time of policy purchase or at the time of claim
Find out the proximate cause for death in the following scenario?
Ajay falls off a horse and breaks his back. He lies there in a pool of water and contracts pneumonia. He is admitted to the
hospital and dies because ofpneumonia.
(A) Pneumonia
(B) Broken back
(C) Falling off a horse
(D) Surgery
As per guidelines, an insurance company has to process an insurance proposal within __________.
(A) 7 days
(B) 15 days
(C) 30 days
(D) 45 days
In case the premium payment is made by cheque, then which of the below statement will hold true?
(A) The risk may be assumed on the date on which the cheque is posted
(B) The risk may be assumed on the date on which the cheque is deposited by the insurance company
(C) The risk may be assumed on the date on which the cheque is received by the insurance company
(D) The risk may be assumed on the date on which the cheque is issued by the proposer
Which of the below statement is correct with regards to a warranty?
(A) A warranty is a condition which is implied without being stated in the policy
(B) A warranty is a condition expressly stated in the policy
(C) A warranty is a condition expressly stated in the policy and communicated to the insured separately and not as part of
the policy document
(D) If a warranty is breached, the claim can still be paid if it is not material to the risk
If certain terms and conditions of the policy need to be modified at the time of issuance, it is done by setting out the
amendments through __________.
(A) Warranty
(B) Endorsement
(C) Alteration
(D) Modifications are not possible
Which of the below statement is correct with regards to renewal notice?
(A) As per regulations there is a legal obligation on insurers to send a renewalnotice to insured, 30 days before the expiry
of the policy
(B) As per regulations there is a legal obligation on insurers to send a renewal notice to insured, 15 days before the expiry
of the policy
(C) As per regulations there is a legal obligation on insurers to send a renewal notice to insured, 7 days before the expiry
of the policy
(D) As per regulations there is no legal obligation on insurers to send a renewal notice to insured before the expiry of the
policy
Though the duration of cover for pre-hospitalization expenses would vary from insurer to insurer and is defined in
the policy, the most common cover is for________ pre-hospitalization.
(A) Fifteen days
(B) Thirty days
(C) Forty Five days
(D) Sixty days
As per IRDA guidelines, a ________ grace period is allowed for renewal of individual health policies.
(A) Fifteen days
(B) Thirty days
(C) Forty Five days
(D) Sixty days
Which of the below statement is correct with regards to a hospitalization expenses policy?
(A) Only hospitalization expenses are covered
(B) Hospitalization as well as pre and post hospitalization expenses are covered
(C) Hospitalization as well as pre and post hospitalization expenses are covered and a lumpsum amount is paid to the
family members in the event of insured‟s death
(D) Hospitalization expenses are covered from the first year and pre and post hospitalization expenses are covered from
the second year if the first year is claim free.
Identify which of the below statement is correct?
(A) Health insurance deals with morbidity
(B) Health insurance deals with mortality
(C) Health insurance deals with morbidity as well as mortality
(D) Health insurance neither deals with morbidity or mortality
Which of the below statement is correct with regards to cashless service provided in health insurance?
(A) It is an environment friendly go-green initiative started by insurance companies to promote electronic payments so
that circulation of physical cash notes can be reduced and trees can be saved.
(B) Service is provided free of cost to the insured and no cash is to be paid as the payment is made by the Government to
the insurance company under a special scheme
(C) All payments made by insured have to be made only through internet banking or cards as cash is not accepted by the
insurance company
(D) The insured does not pay and the insurance company settles the bill directly with the hospital
Identify the correct full form of PPN with regards to hospitals in health insurance.
(A) Public Preferred Network
(B) Preferred Provider Network
(C) Public Private Network
(D) Provider Preferential Network
Identify which of the below statement is incorrect?
(A) An employer can take a group policy for his employees
(B) A bank can take a group policy for its customers
(C) A shopkeeper can take a group policy for its customers
(D) A group policy taken by the employer for his employees can be extended to include the family members of the
employees
Underwriting is the process of ___________.
(A) Marketing insurance products
(B) Collecting premiums from customers
(C) Risk selection and risk pricing
(D) Selling various insurance products
The principle of utmost good faith in underwriting is required to be followed by ___________.
(A) The insurer
(B) The insured
(C) Both the insurer and the insured
(D) The medical examiners
Insurable interest refers to ____________.
(A) Financial interest of the person in the asset to be insured
(B) The asset which is already insured
(C) Each insurer‟s share of loss when more than one company covers the same loss
(D) The amount of the loss that can be recovered from the insurer
Which of the following statements about medical underwriting is incorrect?
(A) It involves high cost in collecting and assessing medical reports.
(B) Current health status and age are the key factors in medical underwriting for health insurance.
(C) Proposers have to undergo medical and pathological investigations to assess their health risk profile.
(D) Percentage assessment is made on each component of the risk.
In a group health insurance, when all members of a group are covered under a group health insurance policy, the
individuals constituting the group cannot anti-select against the insurer.
In addition to employee-employer groups, insurers have provided group health insurance coverage to varied type of
groups such as: labour unions, trusts and societies, professional associations, clubs and other fraternal organisations.
Which of the following factor does not affect the morbidity of an individual?
(A) Gender
(B) Spouse job
(C) Habits
(D) Residence location
According to the principle of indemnity, the insured is paid for __________.
(A) The actual losses to the extent of the sum insured
(B) The sum insured irrespective of the amount actually spent
(C) A fixed amount agreed between both the parties
(D) The actual losses irrespective of the sum assured
The first and the primary source of information about an applicant, for the underwriter is his ________________.
(A) Age proof documents
(B) Financial documents
(C) Previous medical records
(D) Proposal form
The underwriting process is completed when ___________________.
(A) All the critical information related to the health and personal details of the proposer are collected through the proposal
form
(B) All the medical examinations and tests of the proposer are completed
(C) The received information is carefully assessed and classified into appropriate risk categories
(D) The policy is issued to the proposer after risk selection and pricing.
Which of the following statements about the numerical rating method is incorrect?
(A) Numerical rating method provides greater speed in the handling of a largebusiness with the help of trained personnel.
(B) Analysis of difficult or doubtful cases is not possible on the basis of numerical points without medical referees or
experts.
(C) This method can be used by persons without any specific knowledge of medical science.
(D) It ensures consistency between the decisions of different underwriters.
Who among the following is NOT a stakeholder in insurance claim process?
(A) Insurance company shareholders
(B) Human Resource Department
(C) Regulator
(D) TPA
Which of the following document is maintained at the hospital detailing all treatment done to an in-patient?
(A) Investigation report
(B) Settlement sheet
(C) Case paper
(D) Hospital registration certificate
The amount of provision made for all claims in the books of the insurer based on the status of the claims is known
as ________.
(A) Pooling
(B) Provisioning
(C) Reserving
(D) Investing
Which of the following documents are NOT REQUIRED to be submitted for Permanent Total Disability claim?
(A) Duly completed Personal Accident claim form signed by the claimant.
(B) Attested copy of First Information Report if applicable.
(C) Permanent disability certificate from a civil surgeon or any equivalent competent doctors certifying the disability of
the insured.
(D) Fitness certificate from the treating doctor certifying that the insured is fit to perform his normal duties.
________________ are paid upfront by Assistance Company and later claimed from insurance company.
(A) Bail bond cases
(B) Personal accident claims
(C) Overseas travel insurance claims
(D) Untenable claims
Who among the following is considered as primary stakeholder in insurance claim process?
(A) Customers
(B) Owners
(C) Underwriters
(D) Insurance agents/brokers
Girish Saxena‟s insurance claim was denied by insurance company. In case of a denial, what is the option available
to Girish Saxena, apart from the representation to the insurer?
(A) To approach Government
(B) To approach legal authorities
(C) To approach insurance agent
(D) Nothing could be done in case of case denial
During investigation, of a health insurance claim presented by Rajiv Mehto, insurance company finds that instead
of Rajiv Mehto, his brother Rajesh Mehto had been admitted to hospital for treatment. The policy of Rajiv Mehto
is not a family floater plan. This is an example of ___________fraud.
(A) Impersonation
(B) Fabrication of documents
(C) Exaggeration of expenses
(D) Outpatient treatment converted to in-patient / hospitalization
Under which of the following condition, is domiciliary hospitalization is covered in a health insurance policy?
(A) The condition of the patient is such that he/she can be removed to the Hospital/Nursing Home , but prefer not to
(B) The patient cannot be removed to Hospital/Nursing Home for lack of accommodation therein
(C) The treatment can be carried out only in hospital/Nursing home
(D) Duration of hospitalization is exceeding 24 hours
Which of the following codes capture the procedures performed to treat the illness?
(A) ICD
(B) DCI
(C) CPT (Current Procedure Terminology)
(D) PCT
Which one of the following does not represent an insurable risk?
(A) Fire
(B) Stolen goods
(C) Burglary
(D) Loss of goods due to ship capsizing
Which among the following cannot be an element in a valid insurance contract?
(A) Offer and acceptance
(B) Coercion
(C) Consideration
(D) Legality
Mr. Pinto contracted pneumonia as a result of lying on wet ground after a horse riding accident. The pneumonia
resulted in death of Mr. Pinto. What is the proximate cause of the death?
(A) Pneumonia
(B) Horse
(C) Horse riding accident
(D) Bad luck
Moral hazard means:
(A) Dishonesty or character defects in an individual
(B) Honesty and values in an individual
(C) Risk of religious beliefs
(D) Hazard of the property to be insured
Risk indicates:
(A) Fear of unknown
(B) Chance of loss
(C) Disturbances at public place
(D) Hazard
______________ means spreading one‟s investment in different kinds of assets.
(A) Pooling
(B) Diversification
(C) Gambling
(D) Dynamic risk
_____________ is not an example of an asset.
(A) House
(B) Sunlight
(C) Plant and machinery
(D) Motor car
______________ is not an example of risk.
(A) Damage to car due to accident
(B) Damage of cargo due to rain water
(C) Damage to car tyre due to wear and tear
(D) Damage to property due to fire
Earthquake is an example of:
(A) Catastrophic risk
(B) Dynamic risk
(C) Marginal risk
(D) Speculative risk
Select the most appropriate logical equivalence for the statement.
Statement: Insurance cannot protect an asset from loss or damage.
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partially true
(D) Not necessarily true
__________________ means transfer of all rights and remedies, with respect to the subject matter of insurance,
from insured to insurer.
(A) Contribution
(B) Subrogation
(C) Legal hazard
(D) Risk pooling
An example of a fact which need not be disclosed unless asked for is ______________ by the insurer.
(A) Age of the insured
(B) Presence of fire extinguisher
(C) Heart ailment
(D) Other insurance details
________________ is a wrong statement made during negotiation of a contract.
(A) Misrepresentation
(B) Contribution
(C) Offer
(D) Representation
What is the significance of the principle of contribution?
(A) It ensures that the insured also contributes a certain portion of the claim along with the insurer
(B) It ensures that all the insured who are a part of the pool, contribute to the claim made by a participant of the pool, in
the proportion of the premium paid by them
(C) It ensures that multiple insurers covering the same subject matter; come together and contribute the claim amount in
proportion to their exposure to the subject matter
(D) It ensures that the premium is contributed by the insured in equal installments over the year.
Which of the below statement is true with regards to cover notes?
(A) Cover notes are predominantly used in life insurance
(B) Cover notes are predominantly used in all classes of general insurance
(C) Cover notes are predominantly used in health insurance
(D) Cover notes are predominantly used in marine and motor classes of general insurance
__________ is the maximum limit of liability of insurer under the policy
(A) Sum insured
(B) Premium
(C) Surrender value
(D) Amount of loss
_______________ is the consideration or price paid by insured under a contract
(A) Claim amount
(B) Surrender value
(C) Maturity amount
(D) Premium
A document which provides an evidence of contract of insurance is called________
(A) Policy
(B) Cover note
(C) Endorsement
(D) Certificate of insurance
The duty of disclosure arises
(A) Prior to inception of the policy
(B) After inception of the policy
(C) Prior to inception and continues during the policy
(D) There is no such duty
Material fact
(A) Is the value of all material covered in a policy
(B) Not important for assessing the risk
(C) Is important as it influences the decision of the underwriter
(D) Is not important as it has no bearing on the decision of the underwriter
Fire proposal seeks to know
(A) Process of manufacture
(B) Details of material stored
(C) Construction of building
(D) All the above
Premium cannot be received
(A) In cash
(B) By cheque
(C) By promissory note
(D) By credit card
The certificate of Motor Insurance
(A) Is not mandatory
(B) Has to be kept with self always
(C) Has to be kept in the car always
(D) Has to be kept in the bank locker
A warranty
(A) Is a condition expressly stated in the policy &
(B) Has to be complied with
(C) Both a and b
(D) None of the above
Renewal Notice for Motor insurance is issued by
(A) The Insured before expiry of the policy
(B) The Insurer before expiry of the policy
(C) The Insured after expiry of the policy
(D) The Insurer after expiry of the policy
Identify the two factors that affect insurance ratemaking.
(A) Probability and severity of risk
(B) Source and nature of risk
(C) Source and timing of risk
(D) Nature and impact of risk
What is expected of an agent when she detects a moral hazard?
(A) Continue with the insurance as before
(B) Report the same to the insurer
(C) Ask for a share in the claims
(D) Turn a blind eye
Suggest an insurance scheme for a doctor to protect him from any claims of
negligence against him.
(A) Personal accident insurance
(B) Liability insurance
(C) Marine hull insurance
(D) Health insurance
_____________ decides whether to accept or not to accept the risk.
(A) Assured
(B) Underwriter
(C) Agent
(D) Surveyor
_______________ is the price of a given unit of insurance.
(A) Rate
(B) Premium
(C) Sum Assured
(D) Bonus
___________ is the maximum amount that an insurance company will indemnify to someone who files a claim.
(A) Sum insured
(B) Premium
(C) Rider
(D) Benefits
______________ is not a source of information for underwriter.
(A) Annual accounts of a proposer
(B) Pre-acceptance risk survey of the asset
(C) Proposal form
(D) Registration certificate of insurer
Hazards are:
(A) Factors that increase the impact of losses
(B) Factors that increases the frequency of loss
(C) Factors that increase the impact and severity of losses
(D) Factors that decrease the impact and severity of losses
Which of the following is true?
Physical Hazards:
(A) Are not important for rate making
(B) Cannot be ascertained
(C) Can be calculated from the balance sheet
(D) Can be ascertained from information given in a proposal form
In motor insurance one of the warranties is:
(A) The vehicle should be washed daily
(B) The vehicle should not be used for speed testing
(C) The vehicle should not be used for carrying luggage for personal use
(D) The vehicle should not be run more than 200 km per day.
The purpose of deductible clause is to:
(A) To avoid claim payment
(B) To eliminate payment of small claims
(C) To harass the policyholder
(D) To increase the premium
Installation of sprinkler system in the premises:
(A) Increases risk
(B) Decreases the risk
(C) Neither increases nor decreases risk
(D) Increases risk of hooding
Insured‟s declared value in motor insurance includes:
(A) Registration
(B) Manufacturer‟s cost price
(C) Manufacturer‟s selling price
(D) Arbitrary price component
Which of the below statement is correct with regards to a householder‟s insurance policy?
(A) A named peril policy may be purchased as a less expensive alternative to a comprehensive coverage policy that tends
to offer coverage to most perils.
(B) A comprehensive policy that tends to offer coverage to most perils; may be purchased as a less expensive alternative
to a named peril policy.
(C) A named peril policy or comprehensive policy comes at the same price.
(D) With regards to a householder‟s policy, only a named peril policy can be bought and comprehensive policies are not
available.
Under the shopkeeper policy, the insured may opt for an additional „Fixed plate glass and sanitary fittings‟ cover.
This will cover accidental loss of damage to which of the following?
(A) Fixed plate glass
(B) Sanitary fittings
(C) Neon signs
(D) All of the above
Motor insurance should be taken in whose name?
(A) In the name of the vehicle owner whose name is registered with Regional Transport Authority
(B) If the person who will be driving the vehicle is different from the owner, then in the name of the person who will be
driving the vehicle, subject to approval from Regional Transport Authority
(C) In the name of any family member of the vehicle owner, including the vehicle owner, subject to approval from the
Regional Transport Authority
(D) If the person who will be driving the vehicle is different from the owner, then primary policy should be in the name of
the vehicle owner and add-on cover in the name of the person who will be driving the vehicle.
In householder‟s insurance
(A) Gold and silver ornaments are covered
(B) Content‟s of one‟s shop is covered
(C) Cars owned by the family are covered
(D) Parcels sent by post are covered during transit.
Householder‟s insurance covers
(A) Only the structure of the home
(B) Only the Contents of the home
(C) Both the structure and contents
(D) Both Structure and contents only when insured is not at home
In shop keeper‟s insurance, which of the following are not covered?
(A) Machinery breakdown
(B) Malicious damage
(C) Business interruption
(D) Willful destruction by insured
In shop keeper‟s insurance which of the following are usually not covered
(A) Money in till/counter at business premises
(B) Money in transit from bank to business premises
(C) Money in safe at business premises
(D) Money carried by customer to business premises.
Shop insurance covers
(A) Dishonest acts of employees
(B) Dishonest acts of insured
(C) Dishonest acts of customers
(D) Dishonest acts of money lenders
A fire policy for commercial risks covers the perils of ________
(A) Explosion
(B) Implosion
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
A business interruption insurance policy can be taken only in conjunction with ____________.
(A) Standard fire and special perils policy
(B) Standard fire and marine policy
(C) Standard and special perils policy
(D) Standard Engineering and marine policy
The premium for burglary policy depends on ______________.
(A) Nature of insured policy
(B) Moral hazard of the insured himself
(C) Construction and location of the premises
(D) All of the above
Which of the below is covered under a money insurance policy?
(A) Shortage due to error or omission
(B) Loss of cash from one‟s premises due to burglary
(C) Loss of money that has been entrusted to other than authorized person
(D) Riot strike and terrorism
Fidelity guarantee insurance indemnifies ________________.
(A) Employers against the financial loss suffered by them due to fraud or dishonesty of their employees
(B) employees against the financial loss suffered by them due to fraud or dishonesty of their employer
(C) Employees and employers against the financial loss suffered by them due tofraud or dishonesty of third party
(D) Shareholders against the financial loss suffered by them due to fraud or dishonesty of the company management
Which of the below can be covered under a bankers indemnity insurance policy?
(A) Money securities lost or damaged whilst within the premises due to fire
(B) Forgery or alteration of cheques
(C) Dishonesty of employees with reference to money
(D) All of the above
In case of a Jeweler‟s Block Policy, damage to property insured when it is in transit by registered parcel will be
covered under ____________.
(A) Section I
(B) Section II
(C) Section III
(D) Section IV
Delay in start-up policy is also known as ______________.
(A) Machinery Loss of Profits cover (MLOP)
(B) Advance Loss of Profits cover (ALOP)
(C) Contractors All Risk cover (C.A.R.)
(D) Contractors Plant & Machinery cover (CPM)
Which of the following is NOT covered under Industrial All Risks insurance?
(A) Fire and special perils as per fire insurance practice
(B) Larceny
(C) Machinery breakdown
(D) Electronic equipment
Which branch of insurance offers cover against war perils?
(A) Marine policies
(B) Aviation policies
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Under the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991, how much is the compensation payable for actual medical
expenses?
(A) Rs. 6,250
(B) Rs, 12,500
(C) Rs. 25,000
(D) Rs. 50,000
In Engineering insurance CAR stands for
(A) Motor Car
(B) Contractors All Risks
(C) Company‟s All Risks
(D) Companies All Requirements
An employer insures himself from dishonest act of his employees by _________
(A) Employees compensation policy
(B) Public Liability Insurance policy
(C) Fidelity Guarantee Insurance policy
(D) Declaration policy.
_________ refers to the body of the ship.
(A) Hull
(B) Cargo
(C) Piracy
(D) Jettison
Policy which covers loss or damage to aircraft is ______________.
(A) Statutory liability
(B) Property insurance
(C) Aviation insurance
(D) Money insurance
Fire Insurance Policy DOES NOT COVER damage to property even as add-on cover due to___________.
(A) Floods
(B) Earthquake
(C) Fire
(D) Bombing due to war
Consequential Loss (Fire Policy) covers:
(A) Loss of profit due to damage to factory
(B) Loss of Goodwill
(C) Material wear & tear in machinery
(D) Losses due to foreign exchange fluctuations
Premium in Burglary depends on:
(A) Security measures
(B) Location of Premises
(C) Nature of property
(D) All of the above
Contractor‟s All Risk Policy is a variation of:
(A) Fire Insurance
(B) Life Insurance
(C) Engineering Insurance
(D) Marine Insurance
Employee‟s Compensation Policy is a type of
(A) Liability Insurance
(B) Fire Insurance
(C) Marine Cargo Insurance
(D) Engineering Insurance
Money Insurance Policy covers:
(A) Cash in hand
(B) Money invested in Mutual Fund
(C) Money lying in Saving Bank
(D) Money deposited with post office.
Which of the following activities would not be categorised under professional settlement of claims?
(A) Seeking information relating to the cause of the loss
(B) Approaching the claim with a prejudice
(C) Ascertaining whether the loss was a result of an insured peril
(D) Quantifying the amount payable under the claim
Raj is involved in a car accident. His car is insured under a motor insurance policy. Which among the following is
the most appropriate thing for Raj to do?
(A) Notify the insurer of the loss as soon as reasonably possible
(B) Notify the insurer at the time of insurance renewal
(C) Damage the car further so as to receive a bigger compensation
(D) Ignore the damage
Compare claims investigation and claims assessment.
(A) Both claims investigation and assessment are the same thing
(B) Investigation tries to determine the validity of the claim whereas assessment is more concerned with the cause and
extent of the loss
(C) Investigation is done before the claim is paid and assessment is done after the claim is paid
Who is the licensing authority for surveyors?
(A) Surveyor Association of India
(B) Surveyor Regulatory and Development Authority
(C) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
(D) Government of India
Which among the following documents is most likely to be requested while examining a cyclone damage claim?
(A) Coroner‟s report
(B) Report from Fire Brigade
(C) Police report
(D) Report from Meteorological Department
Under which principle can the insurer assume the rights of the insured in order to recover from a third party the
loss paid under a policy?
(A) Contribution
(B) Discharge
(C) Subrogation
(D) Indemnity
If the insurer decides that a certain loss is not payable because it is not covered under the policy then who decides
on such matters?
(A) Insurer‟s decision is final
(B) Umpire
(C) Arbitrator
(D) Court of Law
Intimation of loss is to be made:
(A) at the exact time of the loss
(B) after 15 days
(C) as soon as reasonably possible
(D) any time after the loss
Investigation of loss is done by:
(A) unlicensed surveyor
(B) licensed and qualified surveyor
(C) insured‟s representative
(D) any person with a degree in engineering
For personal accident claims, report of________ is necessary.
(A) Surveyor
(B) Doctor
(C) Police
(D) Coroner
Independent surveyors are required for claims equal to or above_______ as per the Insurance Act.
(A) Rs. 40,000
(B) Rs. 15,000
(C) Rs. 20,000
(D) Rs. 25,000
Claims assessed outside the country in case of travel insurance polices are assessed by:
(A) Indian surveyors
(B) Local surveyors in the country of loss
(C) Insurer‟s own employees
(D) Claims settling agents named in the policy
In case of a fire claim, a report from the fire brigade:
(A) is not required
(B) is optional for the insured
(C) is necessary
(D) is part of the police report
On payment of loss, salvage belongs to:
(A) Surveyors
(B) Insured
(C) Insurer
(D) Local authorities
Arbitration is a claim settlement process done ______________.
(A) in the court of law
(B) by a group of surveyors
(C) by arbitrator(s) chosen by the parties involved
(D) arbitrarily by the insurance company‟s employees
Question 10
Insurers under right of subrogation are allowed to recover the loss paid from:
(A) Shipping companies only
(B) Railways and road carriers only
(C) Airlines and Port Trusts only
(D) Shipping companies and railway and road carriers and airlines and port trusts

Insuarance exam MCQs 1

Insuarance exam MCQs

1. What is the primary purpose of insurance regulations?
To generate fee income
Protect the interests of policyholders
To settle customer disputes
To control the market share of private insurers
CORRECT ANSWER : B
2. Which among the following activities is prohibited as per the provisions of
Insurance Act, 1938?
Keeping aside reserves to meet solvency requirements
Using rebates as a tool to sell insurance policies
Prospecting customers
Limiting management expenses
CORRECT ANSWER : B
3. Insurance agents who hold licence to act as an agent for both a life insurer
and a general insurer are called _______________.
Common insurance agents
Composite insurance agents
Multiple insurance agents
General insurance agents
CORRECT ANSWER : B
4. Which of the below intermediary is not involved in procurement of
business?
Insurance brokers
Individual agents
Surveyors
Corporate agents
CORRECT ANSWER : C
5. What does the term “Caveat Emptor” mean?
Buyer beware
Seller beware
Insurance buyer beware of miselling
Insurance agent beware of customer requirement
CORRECT ANSWER : A
6. Moral hazard means:
Dishonesty or character defects in an individual
Honesty and values in an individual
Risk of religious beliefs
Hazard of the property to be insured
CORRECT ANSWER : A
7. Insurance agent represents the ______________.
Insurance company
Sub-agent
Co-agent
Broker
CORRECT ANSWER : A
8. Licence to work as an insurance agent is issued by __________.
General Insurance Corporation (GIC)
Insurance Regulatory & Development Authority (IRDA)
By the respective life insurance company
Finance Ministry
CORRECT ANSWER : B
9. Agent`s license is to be renewed __________.
Every year
After 5 years
After 3 years
After 15 years
CORRECT ANSWER : C
10. Identify the statement which is not correct. Insurance agent should
__________.
Indicate the scale of commission if asked by the customer
Share the commission by way of rebate
Disclose his licence on demand
Indicate the premium to be charged
CORRECT ANSWER : B
11. Rs.______________ is the fees payable to the Authority for issue /

renewal of license to Act as an Insurance Agent or Composite Insurance
Agent.
250
150
520
100
CORRECT ANSWER : A
12. The Authority may issue duplicate licence in case it is ____________.
Lost
Revoked
Suspended
Withdrawn
CORRECT ANSWER : A
13. If an agent is found guilty of criminal misappropriation, the designated
person will _______________.
Cancel the licence
Issue a duplicate licence
Renew the existing licence
Take some fees from the agent
CORRECT ANSWER : A
14. Minimum qualification required for an insurance agent is _______ pass.
Graduate
10th
Post-Graduate
7th
CORRECT ANSWER : B

15. ________________ may deal with more than one Life Insurance
Company or general insurance company or both.
Agent
Broker
Corporate agent
Retail agent
CORRECT ANSWER : B

Very important - SARFAESI Act - 2002

SECURITISATION & RECONSTRUCTION OF FINANCIAL ASSETS AND ENFORCEMENT OF
SECURED ASSETS ORDINANCE 2002 - SARFAESI Act - 2002
1. Is it necessary to classify the account as NPA for initiating action under the Act? YES
2. The above Act is applicable in respect of debts due to Nationalised Banks only
3. The Provisions of the Act are applicable in respect of All NPA a/cs with liability above Rs. 1 lac
4. Enforcement is not possible under this Act in respect of Time barred debts, where the present
liability is less than 20% of principal + int. &where the secured asset is an Agricultural Land
5. Whether limitation is suspended or saved while proceeding under the act? No
6. Movables seized under this Act have to be got valued by Valuer in the panel approved by the
Board of the Bank

CYBER CRIME TERMINOLOGY

CYBER CRIME  TERMINOLOGY

 Adware – Adware is software designed to force pre-chosen ads to display on your system. Some adware is designed to be malicious and will pop up ads with such speed and frequency that they seem to be taking over everything, slowing down your system and tying up all of your system resources. When adware is coupled with spyware, it can be a frustrating ride, to say the least.

Back Door – A back door is a point of entry that circumvents normal security and can be used by a cracker to access a network or computer system. Usually back doors are created by system developers as shortcuts to speed access through security during the development stage and then are overlooked and never properly removed during final implementation. Sometimes crackers will create their own back door to a system by using a virus or a Trojan to set it up, thereby allowing them future access at their leisure.

Black Hat – Just like in the old westerns, these are the bad guys. A black hat is a cracker. To add insult to injury, black hats may also share information about the “break in” with other black hat crackers so they can exploit the same vulnerabilities before the victim becomes aware and takes appropriate measures.

Bot – A bot is a software “robot” that performs an extensive set of automated tasks on its own. Search engines like Google use bots, also known as spiders, to crawl through websites in order to scan through all of your pages. In these cases bots are not meant to interfere with a user, but are employed in an effort to index sites for the purpose of ranking them accordingly for appropriate returns on search queries. But when black hats use a bot, they can perform an extensive set of destructive tasks, as well as introduce many forms of malware to your system or network. They can also be used by black hats to coordinate attacks by controlling botnets.

Sunday, 2 September 2018

Current Affairs on September 2018

Today's Headlines from www:

*Economic Times*

📝 SBI hikes MCLR by 0.2 percent

📝 Tax dept rejects exemption plea in Flipkart-Walmart deal

📝 India gold demand steadies before festivals, China interest ticks up

📝 RP-Sanjiv Goenka Group wants a bigger bite off India's snacks business

📝 CNG, piped cooking gas prices hiked in Delhi

📝 Vistara eyes re-negotiating contracts, tech to optimise costs

📝 Ramky infra sells NAM Expressway to Cube Highways for Rs 1,669 Crore

📝 Health Ministry comes out with draft rules on sale of drugs by e-pharmacy

*Business Standard*

📝 SBI to form separate unit for Mumbai Metropolitan business region

📝 Reliance Jio juggernaut continues to dent profits of incumbent operators

📝 Chennai-based online Pharmacy firm Netmeds.com raises $35 million

📝 R Madhavan takes charge as new CMD of Hindustan Aeronautics Limited​

📝 Life Insurance Corp aims Rs 75 bn first premium income from eastern region

📝 Amazon, Google, Alibaba are making a beeline to tap Indian retail space

📝 Aluminium exports rise 16% in April-June on global supply constraints

📝 Saudi Arabia hints at plan to turn Qatar into an island by digging a canal

*Financial Express*

📝 Indian OTT players look at foreign shores for expansion

📝 Hotel Leelaventure gets shareholders nod to sell land in Pune for Rs 130 crore

📝 Sify powers India Post Payments Bank as network integrator

📝 Bilateral trade between India and Asean should grow from $80bn to $200bn: FICCI President Rashesh Shah

📝 71% surge in Income Tax Returns filed till August 31

📝 Researchers make GPS in smartphones even smarter

*Mint*

📝 GST collections drop to Rs 93,960 crore in August

📝 UPI transactions cross 300 million in August

📝 AirAsia offers international tickets from Rs 1,399 in new sale

📝 India Post Payments Bank to give a fillip to rural banking

📝 Carmakers report strong sales growth in August, Maruti lags

📝 Turkey hikes gas, power prices by 14% as lira crisis deepens.

Very important BANKING TERMINOLOGIES

BANKING TERMINOLOGIES
 LIQUIDITY ADJUSTMENT FACILITY (LAF):
 As part of the financial sector reforms in 1998 the Committee on Banking Sector Reforms (Narasimham Committee II), LAF was
introduced under which the Reserve Bank would conduct auctions periodically, if not necessarily daily. LAF is used to aid banks
in adjusting the day to day mismatches in liquidity. LAF helps banks to quickly borrow money in case of any emergency or for
adjusting in their SLR/CRR requirements.
 LAF consists of Repo and Reverse repo operations. The Reserve Bank could reset its Repo and Reverse Repo rates which would
in a sense provide a reasonable corridor for the call money market. At present, daily LAF operations are being conducted on
overnight basis, in addition to term repo auctions.
 REPURCHASE AGREEMENT (REPO):
 Repo is a money market instrument combining elements of two different types of transactions viz., lending-borrowing and salepurchase.
Repo or repurchase option is a collaterised lending i.e. banks borrow money from RBI to meet short term needs by
selling securities to RBI with an agreement to repurchase the same at predetermined rate and date. The rate charged by RBI for
this transaction is called the repo rate. The collateral used for repo and reverse repo operations are Government of India
securities. Under Repo, the RBI injects funds to organisations (SCBs and Primary Dealers) which have both current account and
SGL account with the RBI.
 The Repo transaction has two legs. In the first leg, the Seller sells securities and receives cash while the purchaser buys
securities and parts with cash. In the second leg, the securities are repurchased by the original holder by paying to the counter
party the amount originally received by him plus the return on the money for the number of days for which the money was used
by him which is mutually agreed.
 REVERSE REPO:
 Reverse repo rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India borrows money from commercial banks within the country. This
is exactly the opposite of the Repo transaction and is used for absorption of liquidity.
 The Reverse Repo Rate at present is at 25 basis points below the repo rate. Reverse Repo facility is available to Primary Dealers
also.
 The Reverse Repo is a monetary policy instrument which can be used to control the money supply in the country. An increase in
the reverse repo rate will decrease the money supply and vice-versa, other things remaining constant. An increase in reverse
repo rate means that commercial banks will get more incentives to park their funds with the RBI, thereby decreasing the supply
of money in the market.
 MARGINAL STANDING FACILITY (MSF):
 The Reserve Bank, in 2011, introduced MSF for banks and primary dealers to reduce the volatility in the inter-bank call money
market. The interest rate w.e.f. 6th April, 2017 is 25 bps above the repo rate, which is the rate at which banks borrow from the
RBI for the short term against the collateral of government securities. The rate may vary relative to the repo rate as warranted
by economic conditions.
 Banks can borrow funds through MSF when there is a considerable shortfall of liquidity. This measure has been introduced by
RBI to regulate short-term asset liability mismatches more effectively.
 The MSF Scheme is operational on the lines of the existing Liquidity Adjustment Facility – Repo Scheme (LAF – Repo) i.e.
commercial banks can borrow money from RBI. The basic difference between Repo and MSF scheme is that in MSF banks can
use the securities under SLR to get loans from RBI and hence MSF rate is 25 bps more than repo rate. All Scheduled Commercial
Banks having Current Account and SGL Account with RBI will be eligible to participate in the MSF Scheme.
 Under the facility, the eligible entities can avail overnight, facility up to one per cent of their respective Net Demand and Time

Liabilities (NDTL) outstanding at the end of the second preceding fortnight. Requests will be received for a minimum amount of
Rs. One crore and in multiples of Rs. one crore thereafter.
 TERM REPOS:
Term repo is a new window for providing liquidity to the banking system. Through Term repo auctions of 7-day and 14-day tenors
for a combined notified amount equivalent to 0.75 per cent of net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) of the banking system are
conducted by the Reserve Bank through variable rate auctions on every Friday.

BFM - Case studies

BFM- Case studies


1. Probability of occurrence=4
Potential financial impact=4
Impact of internal control=0%
What is the estimated level of operational risk?
A.3
B.2
C.0
D.4
=(4*4*(1-0))square.5=4, So ans is d (look for page295 BFM)
Estimated level of operational risk=Estd probability of
occurrence(4)*Estd potential financial impact(4) *estimated impact of
internal controls
2 If there is an asset of Rs 120 in the doubt ful-I cat and the
realization value of security is rs 90 only , what will be the provision
requirement.
A Rs 48
B Rs 57
C Rs 39
D Rs 75
Ans : 48 since it a doubtful-I cat so provisioning will be 20% of
realization value Rs 90 i.e Rs 18 and 100% of short Fall that is 120-
90= 30. So ans will be 30+1-8= 48
3(a). If there is an asset of Rs 120 only in the doubt ful-II cat and
the realization value of security is Rs 90 if above mentioned asset in
doubtful-ii category what will be the provision requirement.
A 39
B 57
C 66
D 75
Ans : b since it a doubtful-II cat so 30% realization value of Rs
90 i.e Rs 27 and 100% of short Fall that is 120-90= 30 so ans will
be 30+27= 57
3(b). If there is an assets of Rs 120 only in the doubt ful-III cat and
the realization value of security is Rs 90 if above mentioned asset in
doubt-III than what will be the provision requirement.
A 120
B 48
C 57
D 108
Ans : a since it a doubtful-III cat so 100% of realization value Rs 90
i.e Rs 90 and 100% of short Fall that is 120-90= 30 so ans will be
90+30=120
4. A preshipment account above 3 years as on mar 31 2004 has debit
balance of Rs 4 lakh. Principle security value is 1.50 lakh and ECGC
cover is available at 50 %. What provision will be made on the a/c as
on 31.05.2025 .
A Rs 2.15 lac
B 2.0 lac
C 1.92 lac
D 2.25 lac
Ans : a do not know pl.. solved any body I m unable to
5. A/C of ABC has become doubtful with balance of Rs. 6 lac . The
collateral security value is Rs 3 lac and that of principle security is 2
lac. Guarantors worth is Rs 10 lac . A/c is in more than 1 Yr and up
to 3 yr doubtful category . What will be amount of provision as on
mar 2013.
A Rs 1.50 lac
B 2.50 lac
C 1.80 lac
D 3.0 lac
Ans : B since it is in more than two yr in doubtful category it
should be treated as doubtful-II cat and allow 30% of realisation
value that is 3+2=5 , 30% of 5 will be Rs 1.50 lac and 100% of
short fall that is 6-5=1 lac so 1.50+1.0=2.50 lac ans
6. Provisions to be made for a standard asset....teaser housing loan
A)0.25%
B)0.40%
C)1%
D) 2%
Ans: 2%
7. A 5-year 6% semi-annual bond @ market yield of 8%, having a price of
Rs. 92, falls to Rs. 91.80 at a yield of 8.10%, what is Basis Point Value
(BPV)?
1) Rs. 0.20 2) Rs. 0.10 3) Rs. 0.02 4) Rs. 0.05
BPV=92-91.80/8.10%-8%=.2/.10*100=.2/10=.02
8. Received order of USD 50000(CIF) to Australia on 1.1.11 when USD/INR
Bill Buying Rate is 43.50. How much preshipment finance will be released
considering profit margin of 10% and Insurance and freight cost@ 12%.
ans
FOB Value = CIF – Insurance and Freight – Profit (Calculation at Bill Buying
Rate on 1.1.11) i.e
= 50000X43.5 = 2175000 – 216000(12%) – 191400(10% of 1914000) =
1722600
Pre-shipment Finance = FOB value -25%(Margin) = 1722600-
430650=1291950.
9. Spot Rate ((Forward Rates)) is 35.6000/6500 Forward 1M=3500/3000
2M=5500/3000, 3M=8500/8000, Transit Period ----20 days, Exchange
Margin = 0.15%.
Find Bill Buying Rate & 2 M Forward Buying Rate
a)31.6979
b)34.6979
c)27.6979
d)25.6979
ans: Bill Buying Rate (Ready) : Bill Date +20 days
Spot Rate = 35.6000 Less Forward Discount 1M (0.3500) Less Exchange
Margin 0.15% (0.529)
i.e. 35.6000-.3500-.0529(0.15% of 35.2500) = 35.1971
3 Month Forward Buying Rate will be applied. 20 days + 2M
Spot Rate = 35.6000 Less Forward Discount of 3M (.8500) Less Exchange
Margin (.0521)
i.e. 35.6000-.8500-.0521(0.15% of 34.7500) = 34.6979 Ans.
10.Issue of DD on New York for USD 25000. The spot Rate is IUSD =
34.3575/3825 1M forward rate is 34.7825/8250
Exchange margin: 0.15%
a ) 32.4341
b ) 34.4341
c ) 36.4341
d ) 38.4341
Ans: Issue of DD on New York for USD 25000. The spot Rate is IUSD =
34.3575/3825 IM forward rate is 34.7825/8250
Exchange margin: 0.15%
Solution:
TT Selling Rate will Apply
Spot Rate = 34.3825 Add Exchange margin (.15%) i.e. 0.516
TT Selling Rate = Spot Rate + Exchange Margin = 34.4341 Ans.
11 Exporter received Advance remittance by way of TT French Franc
100000.
The spot rates are in India IUSD = 35.85/35.92 1M forward =.50/.60
The spot rates in Singapore are 1USD = 6.0220/6.0340 1M forward
=.0040/.0045
Exchange margin = 0.8%
a ) INR 4.9366
b ) INR 5.9366
c ) INR 6.9366
d ) INR 7.9366
Solution
Cross Rate will apply
USD will be bought in the local market at TT Buying rate and sold at Spot
Selling Rates in Singapore for French
Francs:
TT Buying Rates USD/INR = Spot rate – Exchange margin = 35.8500-.0287
= 35.8213
Spot Selling Rate for USD/Francs = 6.0340
Inference:
6.0340 Franc = 1USD
= INR 35.8213
1 franc = 35.8213/6.0340 = INR 5.9366 Ans.
12. On 12th Feb, received Import Bill of USD-10000. The bill has to be
retired to debit the account of the customer. Interbank spot rate
=34.6500/7200. The spot rate for March is 5000/4500. The exchange
margin for TT selling is .15% and Exchange margin for Bill selling is .20%.
Quote rate to be applied.
a ) 31.8415
b ) 34.8415
c ) 35.8415
d ) 39.8415
Solution
Bill Selling Rate will be applied.
Spot Rate + Exchange margin for TT Selling + Exchange margin for Bill
selling = 34.7200+.0520+.0695 = 34.8415
13 On 15th July, Customer presented a sight bill for USD 100000 for
Purchase under LC. How much amount will be credited to the account of the
Exporter. Transit period is 20 days and Exchange margin is 0.15%. The spot
rate is 34.75/85. Forward differentials:
Aug: .60/.57 Sep:1.00/.97 Oct: 1.40/1.37
a ) 28.0988
b ) 34.0988
c ) 40.0988
d ) 44.0988
Solution
Bill Buying rate will be applied.
Spot Rate----34.75 Less discount .60 = 34.15
Less Exchange Margin O.15% i.e. .0512 =34.0988 Ans.
14. Bank received MT of USD 5000 on 15th Sep. The Nostro account was
already credited. What amount will be paid to the customer: Spot Rate
34.25/30. Oct Forward Differential is 22/24. Exchange margin is .80%
a ) 38.2226
b ) 34.2226
c ) 30.2226
d ) 32.2226
Solution
TT buying Rate will be applied
34.25 - .0274 = 34.2226 Ans.
15. Spot Rate ((Forward Rates)) is 35.6000/6500 Forward 1M=3500/3000
2M=5500/3000 3M=8500/8000
Transit Period ----20 days, Exchange Margin = 0.15%.
Find Bill Buying Rate & 2 M Forward Buying Rate
a ) 31.6979
b ) 34.6979
c ) 27.6979
d ) 25.6979
Solution
Bill Buying Rate (Ready) : Bill Date +20 days
Spot Rate = 35.6000 Less Forward Discount 1M (0.3500) Less Exchange
Margin 0.15% (0.529)
i.e. 35.6000-.3500-.0529(0.15% of 35.2500) = 35.1971
3 Month Forward Buying Rate will be applied. 20 days + 2M
Spot Rate = 35.6000 Less Forward Discount of 3M (.8500) Less Exchange
Margin (.0521)
i.e. 35.6000-.8500-.0521(0.15% of 34.7500) = 34.6979 Ans.
16 Issue of DD on New York for USD 25000. The spot Rate is IUSD =
34.3575/3825. 1M forward rate is 34.7825/8250, Exchange margin:
0.15%. Calculate TT Selling rate
a ) 32.4341
b ) 34.4341
c ) 36.4341
d ) 38.4341
Issue of DD on New York for USD 25000. The spot Rate is IUSD =
34.3575/3825, 1M forward rate is 34.7825/8250
Exchange margin: 0.15%
Solution:
TT Selling Rate will Apply
Spot Rate = 34.3825 Add Exchange margin (.15%) i.e. 0.516
TT Selling Rate = Spot Rate + Exchange Margin = 34.4341 Ans.
17. Exporter received Advance remittance by way of TT French Franc
100000.
The spot rates are in India IUSD = 35.85/35.92 1M forward =.50/.60
The spot rates in Singapore are 1USD = 6.0220/6.0340 1M forward
=.0040/.0045, Exchange margin = 0.8%
a ) INR 4.9366
b ) INR 5.9366
c ) INR 6.9366
d ) INR 7.9366
Ans: 6.0220*.008=.0481, -0040= 5.97
Cross Rate will apply
USD will be bought in the local market at TT Buying rate and sold at Spot
Selling Rates in Singapore for French Francs:
TT Buying Rates USD/INR = Spot rate – Exchange margin = 35.8500-.0287
= 35.8213
Spot Selling Rate for USD/Francs = 6.0340
Inference:
6.0340 Franc = 1USD
= INR 35.8213
1 franc = 35.8213/6.0340 = INR 5.9366 Ans.
18.A 91 days T Bill, after 41 days is trading at 99, calculate the yield on T
bill..
1) 7.35
2) 7.37
3) 6.89
4) 8.01
ANS: 100-99*365*100/99*50=36500/4950=7.37 ans
19. One of your exporter customers has received an export order for USD
100,000/- (Present conversion rate USD 1= RS 47/-). The contract is for CIF
value. Freight is estimated at 10% and insurance premium will be
approximately 5%. Your branch has prescribed a margin of 10%. What will
be the eligible packing credit loan amount?
1. 32,13,000
2. 37,80,000
3. 42,00,000
4. 35,95,000*
Ans FOB value= 100000*47=4700000-(15% freight)705000=3995000
Pre shipment= FOB- Margin=3995000-399500=3595000ans
20. You are required to negotiate an export bill for USD 150000.00 at 60
days after sight drawn under a LC. Assuming the following rates in the inter
bank market calculate the exchange rate to be quoted bearing in mind that
the required exchange margin is 0.150% , NTP is 20 days and interest is to
be collected at 11% p.a. at the time of negotiation and recoverable from the
customer.
SPOT USD1= Rs.48.2000/48.2500 and premia are
one month-0.0800/0100, 2 month 0.1500/0.1650 and 3 month
0.2300/0.2400
ANS: Since the NTP is 20 days and usance of the bill is 60 days the forward
rate should be that as applicable to 80 days. Since this is a buying
transaction the premium for 2 months is only considered because of the
principle “give less”. The working of the rate is as under:
Inter bank rate + premium= 48.200+ 0.1500 = 48.3500
Exchange margin @ 0.150% is reduced from the above = 48.3500- 0.0545
= 48.2955 and when rounded off it is 48.2950
Amount payable to the customer = 150000* 48.3500 =Rs.7252500
Interest recoverable = {7252500* 80*11}/ 36500= Rs174854.79
20 A bond with Rs 100 par value has a coupon rate of 14 %. The required
rate of return on the bond is 13 % and it matures in 5 years. Find the value
of bond. ?
FORMULA :
COUPON RATE / (1*ROR) N
SO : 14/1.13+ 14/(1.13)2 +14/(1.13)3 +14/(1.13)4 + 114/(1.13)5
:- 12.38 + 10.96 + 9.70 + 8.86 + 61.87 = 103.77
21.COST / UNIT
RAW MATERIAL 50
DIRECT LABOUR 20
OVERHEADS 40
TOTAL COST 110
NO OF UNITS 10,000
NO OF UNITS SOLD ON CREDIT 8000
AVERATE RAW MATERIAL IN STOCK : 1 MONTH
AVERAGE WORK IN PROGRESS : 0.5 MONTH
AVERAGE FINISHED GOODS IN STOCK : 0.5 MONTH
CREDIT BY SUPPLIER : 1 MONTH
CREDIT TO DEBTOR : 2 MONTHS
TAKE 1 YEAR = 12 MONTHS
INVESTMENT IN WORKING CAPITAL FOR FINISHED GOODS IS
NO OF UNIT * COST OF PRODUCTION PRICE * FINISHED GOODS DAY / 365
10000 * 110 * .05/12 = 45833
GROSS PROFIT : 8
NET PROFIT : 5
DEPRECTIATION : 3
SALES : 80
PURCHASE : 60
CAPITAL : 50
CC BANK : 20
TERM LOAN : 10
TERM LOAN ( INSTALL FALL ) 2
CREDITORS : 12
OTHER O/S EXP : 6
FIXED ASSETS : 65
INVESTMENT : 10
DEBTOR : 8
CLOSING STOCK: 7
CASH AND BANK : 5
LOAN AND ADVANCE : 5
INT. ON TERM LOAN : 1.5
1) GROSS PROFIT RATIO
G.P / SALES * 100 : 8/80*100 = 10
2) NET PROFIT RATIO
N.P. / SALES * 100 : 5 / 80 * 100 = 6.25
3) CURRENT RATIO
C.A. / C.L. ( INCL T/L) ( 8 + 7 + 5 + 5 ) / ( 2 + 12 + 6 +20) = 6.25
4) DEBT EQUIRY RATION
DEBT / EQRY : ( 20 + 10 + 2 12 + 6 ) / ( 50)
5) CREDITOR PAYMENT PERIOD
CREDITORS / PURCHASE * 365 : 12/60 *365 = 60.83
6) STOCK HOLDING PERIOD
STOCK / PURCHASE * 365 7 / 80 *365 = 31.93
DSCR : ( PAT + DEPRE+INT ON T/L ) / INT IN T/L AND INSTL OF T/L)
( 5 + 3 1.5 ) / ( 2 + 1.5)
QTN. RS.1000 TREASURE BOND WITH COUPON RATE OF 6 % . TODAY
PRICE AT RS 1010.77 AND SELL IT NEXT YEAR AT THE PRICE OF RS 1020.
SO WHAT IS RATE OR RETURN ON BOND ?
FORMULA : % + DIFFERENCE / INVESTMENT
SO : 60 + 9.23 / 1010.77 = 6.86
33.A bank is holding bond portfolio having BPV of Rs 51000 per Cr. The
book value of the holding is Rs 9780 Cr having present market value of Rs
10543 Cr. Total face value of the holding is Rs 10124 Crs. What would
be the gain/loss on the holding if the portfolio yield increases by 12 basis
points ?
a) Loss of Rs 1265.16
b) loss of Rs 1214.68
c) loss of Rs 612000
d) Insufficient data
Ans : c Yield is inversely proportionate to market price..
So increase in yield..
Will decrease the market price. ..
Means loss in holding the portfolio. ..
BPV is Change in price by 1 basis point ( 0.01%) change in yield..
So by change in the yield by 12 basis points or 12 BPV..
Change in price will be..
= 12 × 51000
= 612000
Loss of rs 6,12,000 per Cr
34. A 20 YR 11% Semi-annual bond @ market yield of 9.80% has 15
Yr remaining for maturity> Mc Cauley’S duration of the bond is 9.2 Yr.
What is the approximate change in price if the market yield goes down by
1% ?
a) Price increases by 8.70%
b) Price increases by 8.77%
c) Price decreases by 8.87%
d) Price decreases by 9.20%
ans : b Modified duration is McCauley's duration discounted by one period
yield to maturity
Modified duration =
McCauley's duration / ( 1 + yield )
= 9.2 / ( 1 + 9.8%)
= 9.2 / ( 1 +0.098)
= 9.2 / ( 1.098)
= 8.37 = modified duration
% change in price = - modified duration × yield change
= - 8.37× (-1%)
= (+)8.37 %
+ means increase in price
So 8.37 % increase in price. .
My magnitude of answer Is different from answer b
35. Say Mr. X purchase 2000 shares of stock ‘A’ at Rs 125 per share
and 1000 shares of stock ‘B’ at Rs 90 per share. The price is expected
to fluctuate 2% daily for stock ‘A’ and 1.25% daily stock ‘ B’ (daily
volatility figure estimated from past data) . He estimates daily potential
loss to be Rs 6350 approximately. The market factor sensitivity of the
portfolio is……..
a) Rs 6350
b) Rs 3000
c) Rs 6.35
d) None of these
ans:d should be ....d
Because market factor sensitivity of portfolio is...
1% of total position. .
Here total position in portfolio is..
125×2000 + 90× 1000
= 250000 + 90000
= 340000
1 % of total position
= 3400 rs
36. A bond portfolio having a bond A (market Value Rs 300 Crs and
MD of 3.5 Yr) and bond B (market value Rs 500 Crs and MD of 05 Yrs)
What is the BPV of the portfolio ?
a) Rs 44375 per crore
b) Rs 4437.50 per crore
c) Rs 44375 per million
d) Rs 4437.50 per million
Explanation. .
BPV of bond A ...
Change in price =
Modified duration × yield change
= 3.5 × 0.01 (basis point change)
=0.035
BPV of bond B
Samilarily
Change in price =
Modified duration × yield change
= 5.0 × 0.01 (basis point change)
= 0.050
BPV of portfolio is equal to. .
Weighted average of BPV
= (0.035×300 + 0.050× 500)/800
= (10.5 + 25)/ 800
= 35.5 / 800
= 0.044375
That is on 100 face value
For per crore we should multiply by 100000
So we get 4437.50 per crore..
Answer b
37. Say Mr. X purchase 2000 shares of stock ‘A’ at Rs 125 per share
and 1000 shares of stock ‘B’ at Rs 90 per share. The price is expected
to fluctuate 2% daily for stock ‘A’ and 1.25% daily stock ‘ B’ (daily
volatility figure estimated from past data) . He estimates daily potential
loss to be Rs 6350 approximately. What is the VaR of 99% confidance
interval(corresponding to 2.33 standard deviation) (Assume that the
stocks have zero correlation)
a) Rs 14795.50
b) Rs 6350
c) Rs 19050
d) None of these
ans: a refer page 251 and 252
How they arrive at option a..
Daily estimated loss is 6350
Daily percentage loss is..
= (daily loss / total position)× 100
Daily loss = 6350
Total position
= 2000 × 125 + 1000 × 90
= 250000 + 90000
= 340000
Daily percentage loss
= (6350/340000)× 100
= 0.018676 × 100
= 1.8676 %
So for getting loss at 99 % confidence level...
Defeasance factor
= Daily percentage loss × standard deviation
= 1.8676 × 2.33
= 4.3516 %
So VaR of portfolio is.
= tatal position × Defeasance factor
= 340000 × 4.3516
= 14795.4999
= 14795.50
That is option a
38. Two stocks A and B have negative correlation of 80% between them
the portfolio consists of 100 units of stock a ( market price Rs 100 ) and
200 units of stock b ( market price Rs 200) if price of stock A moves up
by 10 % what would be gain/loss on the portfolio ?
a) gain Rs 4200
b) loss Rs 2200
c) Loss rs 600
d) non of these
ans : b Explanation. .
Co relation is 80% = 0.80
Which is negative. .
Means. .
two stock price is inversely related. ..
If price of stock a goes up
Then price of stock b goes down. ..
Factor is by 0.80..
Here stock price of a goes up by 10 %..
Current price of stock a is 110 rs...
Also price of stock b is goes down by 10%×0.80 = 8%
Current price of stock b..
Will be 200× (1-.08%)
= 184 rs. .
Gain in stock a
= 110×100 - 100×100
= 11000 - 10000
= 1000
Loss in sock b
= 184×200 - 200×200
= 36800 - 40000
= -3200
In totally. .
= 1000+(-3200)
= -2200
= loss of 2200
39 What would be issue price of a CP carrying an interest rate of 8 %
and maturity of 06 manths expressed as% of notional value ?
a) 100 %
b) 92.59%
c) 96.15%
d) none of these
ans:c
= (100/104)× 100
= 96.15384
= 96.15
Interest rate = 8 % annual
For six months it should be 4 %
CPs are issued at discount prices. .
So if face value is 100..
Then 8 % annual.
4% for semi annual. .
Issue price × (1+ 4%) = 100
Issue price × 1.04 = 100
Issue price = 100/1.04
= 96.15384
= 96.15
41. On a 5 point scale (very high,high,average,modete &
Low),probability of occurrence of an activity has been estimated at
an average level. Potential financial impact is estimated at an high
level, given that the impect of internal control is 40% what is the
estimated level of operational level ?
1) Very high to high
2) High to average
3) Average to moderate
4) Moderate to Low
Ans: c
Estimated level of operational risk =
Estimated probability of occurrence × estimated potential financial impact ×
Estimated impact of internal controls
Firstly we assume 5 level risk in numbers. ..
Scale of risk. .
Very high - 4
High - 3
Average - 2
Moderate - 1
Low - 0
So probability of occurrence
= average = 2
Potential financial impact
= high = 3
Impact of internal control
= 40 %
For calculation. .
Estimated level of operational risk =
Square root of (2 × 3 × ( 1-40%))
= square root of (6 × 0.60)
= square root of 3.6
= more than 1 and less than 2
= more than moderate and less than average
Answer ..c..
Average to moderate
Reference page no 294, 295
BFM McMillan book
42. For estimating level of operational risk, abank estimates probability of
occurrence on historical frequency and maps it on a 5 point scale where
1. implies negligible risk
2. Implies low risk
3. implies medium risk
4. implies high risk
5. implies very high risk
For estimating potential financial impact it relies on past observations and
severly of impact I s also mapped on a scale of 5 as mentioned above
In one of the OR category the bank finds that probability of occuerence
stands mapped at 2 and potential financial impact is mapped at 5
Estimateed impact of internal control is 50% . What is the level of
operational risk for the given OR category?
a) Low risk
b) Medium risk
c) High risk
d) Very high risk
Ans : b
Explanation. ...
.
Estimated level of operational risk =
Estimated probability of occurrence × estimated potential financial
impact × Estimated impact of internal controls
Firstly we assume 5 level risk in numbers. ..
Scale of risk. .
Very high - 5
High - 4
Medium - 3
Low - 2
Negligible - 1
So probability of occurrence
= average = 2
Potential financial impact
= high = 5
Impact of internal control
= 50 %
For calculation. .
Estimated level of operational risk =
Square root of (2 × 5 × ( 1-50%))
= square root of (10 × 0.50)
= square root of 5
= 2.23
= medium risk
Answer ..b
43. A 91day T bill remaining maturity of 73 days is priced at 99%
a) 5%
b) 5.05%
c) 4.95%
d) 5.20%
ans : b y= (100-p)/p *365/d *100 (100-99/99)*365/73*100=5.05
43.A bank,s G sec portfolio has 100 day VaR at 95% confidance level
of 4% based on yield.What is the worst case scenario over 25 days ?
a) increase in yield by 0.4%
b) Decrease in yield by 0.4%
c) Increase in yield by 2%
d) Decrease in yield by 2%
ans: 100 day VaR is 4 %
So one day Var is..
4 = one day VaR × square root of 100
4 = one day VaR × 10
One day VaR = 0.4 %
25 day VaR = 0.4 × suare root of 25
= 0.4 × 5
= 2 %
In worst case scenario yield will always increase. .
Because this will decrease the market price or value. .
Answer is increase in yield by 2 %
44. A bank,s G sec portfolio has 100 day VaR at 95%
confidance level of 4% based on yield.What is the worst case
scenario over 25 days
in case the portfolio size of the bank,s (mentioned above ) G
sec portfolio is rs 10000 croeres with average modified duration of
3, then worst case loss that the bank may suffer overnight is
a) RS 120 crores in terms of market value
b) loss of Rs 40 crores by way of interest income
c) Gain of Rs 40 crores by way of interest income
d) none of these
ans: 3*.4*10000/100=120 cr
45. 100 day VaR of a given security is 5% with 90 % confidence
interval. In a year (250 working days) , How many days VaR may
be observed at more than 5% ?
a) 12.5 days
b) 10 days
c) 25 days
d) None of these
46. VaR for US/INR rate at 95 % confidence interval is 50 BPs
over night. If the day closes at Rs 44.30 spot for USD, What is the
worst possible rate for imports the day after ?
a) Rs 44.80
b) Rs 43.80
c) 45
d) 45.01
ans: questions for worst situation for import if bP will be added in
export BP will be deducted. So ans will be 44.30+.50=44.80 ans will
be a
Because In worst situation for import price for USD will always increase. ...
47. a 10 Yr bond with semi annual coupon rate@ 8% is being
traded in the market at rS 95/- Th YTM of the bond is
a) 8.42%
b) It can,t be determinded based on data given
c) it may be determined and is expected to be above 8%
d)it may be determined and is expected to be below 8%
ans : c
Ytm different from current yield...
Simple rule is that regarding YTM is.
When market price is below face value..
Then YTM will be greater than the interest or coupon rate...
And when market price greater than the face value ...
Then it will be definitely YTM is lower than the interest or coupon rate
48. A bond having a duration of 6 Yr is yielding 8% at present .
if yield increase by .50% . what would be the impact on price of the
bond ?
a) Bond price would go up by 2.7%
b) Bond price would fall by 2.7%
c) Bond price would go up by 2.8%
d) Bond price would fall by 2.8%
ans : d Modified duration is McCauley's duration discounted by one period
yield to maturity
Here we are talking McCauley's duration is 6 years. .as if no McCauley's
duration is given
Modified duration =McCauley's duration / ( 1 + yield )
= 6 / ( 1 + 8%)
= 6/ ( 1 +0.08)
= 6/ ( 1.08)
= 5.556 = modified duration
% change in price =- modified duration × yield change
= - 5.556× (+0.50%)
= (-)2.7778 %
= (-) 2.8
( - )means decrease in price
2.8 % decrease in price. .
49. Currency X having 6% risk free rate for 6 months has a
spot rate of 30Y . where Y is another currency and has 4% risk
free rate for 06 months period. The 6 months forward rate of X in
terms of Y would be
a) 29.70 B
b) 29.71 B
c) 30.30 B
d) 30.29 B
ans : b
According to interest rate parity..
(Fyx/ Syx) = (1+Interest of y)/(1+Interest of x)
F = Forward rate
S = Spot rate
yx means..expression of exchange rate...
Here exchange rate is given in
Terms of..
1 x = 30 y..
Thatswhy x is in the denominator. .yx
Fyx / 30Y = (1+2%)/(1+3%)
Fyx = ( 1.02/1.03) × 30Y
Fyx = 0.99029 × 30Y
Fyx = 29.7087 Y
Fyx = 29.71 Y
50 An individual purchases a call option for 500 shares of A with
strike price at Rs 120 (Present price Rs 100) and remaining maturity of
03 months at a premium of Rs 40 . On maturity shares of A was
priced at Rs 140. Taking interest cost @ 12% p.a . what is the profit
earned by the individual on the transaction ?
a) No loss no profit
b) Rs 600 loss
c) Rs 10600 loss
d) None of these
Ans : c Explanation. .
Call option ..
He will pushase 500 shares of A..at a price of 120
Tatal value of shares is..
60000
Then he will sell the total shares in the market at a price of 140..
500 × 140
= 70000
So profit of 10000 in the transaction. .
But he has to pay the premium for call options. .
Which is 40 × 500
= 20000
And for getting this much fund interest cost is..
= 20000 × 3 % for 3 months (12% p.a for 03 months 12/4=3)
= 600
Total premium + premium cost
= 20000 + 600
= 20600
In totality. ..
= 10000 - 20600
= - 10600
51. A financial institution buys a specified no of futures at NSE on
a stock Rs 90 each when spot price of the stocks Rs 95 . At the
maturity of the contract the FI takes delivery of the shares. During
the period of Rs 3. The acquisition cost to the FI per share is (
ignore any commission charged by exchange)
a) Rs 95
b) Rs 90
c) Rs 97
d) None of these
ans : b
52. A fixed for floating swap on a notional amount of Rs 10 crores
exchanges 9% fixed against 2% over MIBOR. Settlement is up
front based on closing MIBOR of the immediately preceding quarter. If
the MIBOR is 4% on the last day of the quarter, what is amount of
settlement and who pays it ? Given risk free rate is 5%
a) Rs 12,50,000 floating rate payer
b) Rs 12,34,567 fixed rate payer
c) Rs 7,40,740 fixed rate payer
d) Rs 7,50,000 fixed arte payer
ans: Here question is for..
Exchange of interest rate payment. .
Only difference amount of interest will be paid...
By one party to another party. ..
two parties
1... fixed interest rate payer who will pay 9 % fixed interest rate
2 ...floating interest rate payer...
Who will pay 2 + MIBOR interest rate
MIBOR is at the end of last quarter is 4 %
So total floating rate us 6 %..
And difference of interest rate is..
= 9 - 6= 3 %
Means fixed interest rate payer will pay the difference of interest to floating
interest rate party..
Notional value..
10 crore. .
Difference interest rate for the one quarter is..
= 3 / 4= 0.75%
So 0.75 % of 10 crore
= 750000
That is Answer... d
53. A bank borrows US $ for 03 months @ 2.5% and swaps the
same in to INR for 03 months for deployment in CPs @ 5.5%.
The 3 months premium on US $ 0.75%. the margin generated by
the bank in the transaction is
a) 3%
b) 2.25%
c) 5.5%
d) non of these
ans:b
Bank borrow US $ for 3 months @ 2.5%
Same will invest in CP foe 3 months @ 5.5 %..
Then here gaining 3% by interest rate margin...
But when bank repay his borrowing in $..
So bank has pay 0.75 extra because US $ will become costly by 0.75%..
US $ is at premium. .
So it will reduce bank gain by 0.75 %..
3.0% - 0.75 %
= 2.25
54. A bank makes provision in account with out standing balance
of Rs 100 Crs (Risk Weight 150%) of Rs 30 Crs. The amount
that will qualify for Tier ii capital is
a) Rs 1.25 Crs
b) Rs 30 Crs
c) Nil
d) Non of these
ans is c
55. A company enjoys cash credit account with a bank . HE also has a
term looan account with o/s balance of Rs 15 Crs as on 31-03-2010 the
bank has also subscribed to the bonds issued by the borrower company
amounting to Rs 3 Crs. As on 31-03-2010 the CC account with o/s balance
of Rs 1.20 Crs is required to be classified as NPA there is no default in
payment of interest and installment in the term loan and bonds. The amount
that will become NPA on account of this borrow company is
a) Rs 1.20 Crs
b) Rs 16.20 Crs
c) 19.20 Crs
d) none of these
ans: c = 15+3+1.20=19.20
56. A bank has deposits worth ZMW 3,00,000 billion. The interest rate on
this is 12%. SRR to be maintaioned by the bank is 8% effective cost to
deposit is....
1) 12%
2) 15.23%
3) 13.04%
4) 14.66%
Ans: 3 From 300000
8 % should be made for SLR requirements
So available fund for making loans(asset)
= 300000 - 8% of 300000
= 300000 - 24000
= 276000
For this fund 276000
Bank is paying 12 % on 300000
Cost of fund is 36000
So making no loss ..
Bank has to lend money at that interest rate..
Which will cover this cost of funding that is 36000
36000 = 276000 × r /100
36000/276000 = r / 100
0.1304 = r / 100
r = 13.04 %
57. in a loan a/c the balance outstanding is 4.20 lacs and a cover of 75% is
available from CGFTMSE .the a/c has been doubtful since 25.08.2009.and
the value of security held is 1,50,000.the total provision in the a/c as on
31.03.2013 will be
1.2,10,000
2.2,17,500
3.1,26,000
4.2,65,000
Answer should be 2
Explanation ...
Outstanding. .balance. .
Is .....420000
Security available is..
150000
CGFTMSE...on remaining amount
Which is. .
= 420000- 150000
= 270000
Coverage is only 75 %..
So uncovered amount. .
We will take as a Provisioning. .
Which is ..
= 25% of 270000
= 67500
Since loan is in doubtful category for more than 3 years
So we will take 100 % Provisioning for security value. .
Which is.
= 150000
So totality. .
Provisioning is..
= 150000 + 67500
= 217500
58. A customer covers its receivable under exchange fluction risk cover
scheme of ECGC . On due date the currency appreciate by 45%. The
customer will gain on the transaction due to currency fluction.
a) 45%
b) 12%
c) 10%
d) 2%
Ans: bAny loss or gain..
Within the range of 2 % to 35%..
Will go in ecgc account. .
Thatswhy. .
Gain of 45%
Of that...33% will go in ecgc account. .
So profit only. .12%..
For customer
59. A claim of Rs 45 lacs has been settled by ECGC in favour of a bank
againt default of Rs 60 lacs. Subsequently the bank realizes Rs 20 lacs
collaterals available to it.What is the loss suffered by the bank on this loan
?
a) Rs 10 lacs
b) Rs 5 lacs
c) Rs 20 lacs
d) Non of these
ans: A Because of ecgc settled the 45 lakhs on default of 60 lakhs. .
Which means. .ecgc settled the 75 % of default. .
here 20 lakhs is realised security. ...
Which means claim amount will be only..
40 lakhs towards ecgc...
And ecgc will settle obly 75 % amount. .
And 25 % will be bear by bank..
So loss of 25% of 40 lakhs.
Means loss 10 lakhs will bear by bank
60. A claim of Rs 45 lacs has been settled by ECGC in favour of a bank
againt default of Rs 60 lacs. Subsequently the bank realizes Rs 20 lacs
collaterals available to it.What is thenet amount paid to ECGC ?
a) Rs 30 lacs
b) 45 lacs
c) 20 lacs
d) None of these
Because of ecgc settled the 45 lakhs on default of 60 lakhs. .
Which means. .ecgc settled the 75 % of default. .
here 20 lakhs is realised security. ...
Which means claim amount will be only..
40 lakhs towards ecgc...
And ecgc will settle obly 75 % amount. .
And 25 % will be bear by bank..
So 75% of 40 lakhs.
Means 30 lakhs will settled by ecgc
61.
an advance of Rs 235000/- has been declared sub standard on 31/05/2012.
It is covered by securities with realizable value of Rs 168000/-. Total
provision in the account as on 31/03/2013 will amount to:
1) 35250
2) 30200
3) 47000
4) 83800
right ans should be. ..2
Explanation. .
We take provision. .
10 % for secured portion.
20% for unsecured portion
= 10% of 168000 + 20% of of 67000
= 16800 + 13400
= 30200
62. The ovenight VaR of 1yr govt security yield is 0.20% with a current yield
of 7.50%. A prospective seller of the security may expect the yield to be on
next day
1) 7.50%
2)7.70%
3) 7.30%
4) inadequate information to make the calculation.
right ans is B any one explain
In worst case scenario prospective seller of security may expect rise in
the yield so ans is 7.50+0.20=7.70......
Same case vl diffrent fr prospective buyer as he expect the yield to fall
so 7.70-.20=7.30
Qtn 63. Received order of USD 50000(CIF) to Australia on 1.1.11 when
USD/INR Bill Buying Rate is 43.50. How much preshipment finance will be
released considering profit margin of 10% and Insurance and freight cost@
12%. And margin is 25%.
ans
FOB Value = CIF – Insurance and Freight – Profit (Calculation at Bill Buying
Rate on 1.1.11)
= 50000X43.5 = 2175000 – 216000(12%) – 191400(10% of 1914000) =
1722600
Pre-shipment Finance = FOB value -25%(Margin) = 1722600-
430650=1291950.
Qtn 64 Spot Rate ((Forward Rates)) is 35.6000/6500 Forward
1M=3500/3000 2M=5500/3000 3M=8500/8000
Transit Period ----20 days Exchange Margin = 0.15%.
Find Bill Buying Rate & 2 M Forward Buying Rate
a ) 31.6979
b ) 34.6979
c ) 27.6979
d ) 25.6979
Dinesh Jawalkar Solution
Bill Buying Rate (Ready) : Bill Date +20 days
Spot Rate = 35.6000 Less Forward Discount 1M (0.3500) Less Exchange
Margin 0.15% (0.529)
i.e. 35.6000-.3500-.0529(0.15% of 35.2500) = 35.1971
3 Month Forward Buying Rate will be applied. 20 days + 2M
Spot Rate = 35.6000 Less Forward Discount of 3M (.8500) Less Exchange
Margin (.0521)
i.e. 35.6000-.8500-.0521(0.15% of 34.7500) = 34.6979 Ans.
Qtn 65
Issue of DD on New York for USD 25000. The spot Rate is IUSD =
34.3575/3825 IM forward rate is
34.7825/8250
Exchange margin: 0.15%
a ) 32.4341
b ) 34.4341
c ) 36.4341
d ) 38.4341

Dinesh Jawalkar Issue of DD on New York for USD 25000. The spot Rate is
IUSD = 34.3575/3825 IM forward rate is
34.7825/8250
Exchange margin: 0.15%
Solution:
TT Selling Rate will Apply
Spot Rate = 34.3825 Add Exchange margin (.15%) i.e. 0.516
TT Selling Rate = Spot Rate + Exchange Margin = 34.4341 Ans.
Qtn:65 Exporter received Advance remittance by way of TT French Franc
100000.
The spot rates are in India IUSD = 35.85/35.92 1M forward =.50/.60
The spot rates in Singapore are 1USD = 6.0220/6.0340 1M forward
=.0040/.0045
Exchange margin = 0.8%
a ) INR 4.9366
b ) INR 5.9366
c ) INR 6.9366
d ) INR 7.9366
Dinesh Jawalkar Solution
Cross Rate will apply
USD will be bought in the local market at TT Buying rate and sold at Spot
Selling Rates in Singapore for French
Francs:
TT Buying Rates USD/INR = Spot rate – Exchange margin = 35.8500-.0287
= 35.8213
Spot Selling Rate for USD/Francs = 6.0340
Inference:
6.0340 Franc = 1USD
= INR 35.8213
1 franc = 35.8213/6.0340 = INR 5.9366 Ans.
Qtn 66 On 12th Feb, received Import Bill of USD-10000. The bill has to
retired to debit the account of the customer. Interbank
spot rate =34.6500/7200. The spot rate for March is 5000/4500. The
exchange margin for TT selling is .15%
and Exchange margin for Bill selling is .020%. Quote rate to be applied.
a ) 31.8415
b ) 34.8415
c ) 35.8415
d ) 39.8415
Dinesh Jawalkar Solution
Bill Selling Rate will be applied.
Spot Rate + Exchange margin for TT Selling + Exchange margin for Bill
selling = 34.7200+.0520+.0695 = 34.8415
qtn:66 On 15th July, Customer presented a sight bill for USD 100000 for
Purchase under LC. How much amount will be
credited to the account of the Exporter. Transit period is 20 days and
Exchange margin is 0.15%. The spot rate is
34.75/85. Forward differentials:
Aug: .60/.57 Sep:1.00/.97 Oct: 1.40/1.37
a ) 28.0988
b ) 34.0988
c ) 40.0988
d ) 44.0988
Solution
Bill Buying rate will be applied.
Spot Rate----34.75 Less discount .60 = 34.15
Less Exchange Margin O.15% i.e. .0512 =34.0988 Ans.
Qtn 67Bank received MT of USD 5000 on 15th Sep. The Nostro account was
already credited. What amount will be paid to
the customer: Spot Rate 34.25/30. Oct Forward Differential is 22/24.
Exchange margin is .80%
a ) 38.2226
b ) 34.2226
c ) 30.2226
d ) 32.2226
Solution
TT buying Rate will be applied
34.25 - .0274 = 34.2226 Ans.
Qtn 67Spot Rate ((Forward Rates)) is 35.6000/6500 Forward
1M=3500/3000 2M=5500/3000 3M=8500/8000
Transit Period ----20 days Exchange Margin = 0.15%.
Find Bill Buying Rate & 2 M Forward Buying Rate
a ) 31.6979
b ) 34.6979
c ) 27.6979
d ) 25.6979
Solution
Bill Buying Rate (Ready) : Bill Date +20 days
Spot Rate = 35.6000 Less Forward Discount 1M (0.3500) Less Exchange
Margin 0.15% (0.529)
i.e. 35.6000-.3500-.0529(0.15% of 35.2500) = 35.1971
3 Month Forward Buying Rate will be applied. 20 days + 2M
Spot Rate = 35.6000 Less Forward Discount of 3M (.8500) Less Exchange
Margin (.0521)
i.e. 35.6000-.8500-.0521(0.15% of 34.7500) = 34.6979 Ans.
Qtn 67Issue of DD on New York for USD 25000. The spot Rate is IUSD =
34.3575/3825 IM forward rate is
34.7825/8250
Exchange margin: 0.15%
a ) 32.4341
b ) 34.4341
c ) 36.4341
d ) 38.4341
Issue of DD on New York for USD 25000. The spot Rate is IUSD =
34.3575/3825 IM forward rate is
34.7825/8250
Exchange margin: 0.15%
Solution:
TT Selling Rate will Apply
Spot Rate = 34.3825 Add Exchange margin (.15%) i.e. 0.516
TT Selling Rate = Spot Rate + Exchange Margin = 34.4341 Ans.
Qtn 67 Exporter received Advance remittance by way of TT French Franc
100000.
The spot rates are in India IUSD = 35.85/35.92 1M forward =.50/.60
The spot rates in Singapore are 1USD = 6.0220/6.0340 1M forward
=.0040/.0045
Exchange margin = 0.8%
a ) INR 4.9366...See More

Hitesh Kothari 6.0220*.008=.0481, -0040= 5.97
Cross Rate will apply
USD will be bought in the local market at TT Buying rate and sold at Spot
Selling Rates in Singapore for French
Francs:
TT Buying Rates USD/INR = Spot rate – Exchange margin = 35.8500-.0287
= 35.8213
Spot Selling Rate for USD/Francs = 6.0340
Inference:
6.0340 Franc = 1USD
= INR 35.8213
1 franc = 35.8213/6.0340 = INR 5.9366 Ans.
68. International Advisors, Inc. (IAI) is receiving a payment of 100,000
Euros in three months. The spot rate for the Euro is currently $0.92 per
Euro, but IAI has entered into a threemonth
forward contract with their bank at $0.94 per Euro. How much will IAI
receive in
three months?
a. $92,000
b. $94,000
c. $106,383
d. $108,696
ANS : B
69. One year T-bill rate is 9% and the rate on one year zero
coupon debenture issued by LM ltd is 12.50% , the probabililty of
default is …..
a) 4%
b) 3%
c) 5%
d) non of these
ans: b formula for probability of default is 1-P= 1- ( (1+i)/(1+k))
=1-((1.09/1.125))=1-.969=.03=3% ( Page 284 of bFM).
70. A bond with acupon rate of 7.38% maturing in 2015 and trading
at Rs 106.32 will have yield of…………….
a) 6.94%
b) 14.40%
c)7.84%
d) non of these
ans : a = current yield= coupon rate/ Prevailing mkt value=
.0738/106.32= 6.94%

Security standards and best practices

Security standards and best practices
The Standard of Good Practice for Information Security, published by the Information Security Forum (ISF), is a business-focused, practical and comprehensive guide to identifying and managing information security risks in organizations and their supply chains.
The most recent edition is 2016, an update of the 2014 edition.
The 2011 Standard is the most significant update of the standard for four years. It includes information security 'hot topics' such as consumer devices, critical infrastructure, cybercrime attacks, office equipment, spreadsheets and databases and cloud computing.
The 2011 Standard is aligned with the requirements for an Information Security Management System (ISMS) set out in ISO/IEC 27000-seriesstandards, and provides wider and deeper coverage of ISO/IEC 27002 control topics, as well as cloud computing, information leakage, consumer devices and security governance.
In addition to providing a tool to enable ISO 27001 certification, the 2011 Standard provides full coverage of COBIT v4 topics, and offers substantial alignment with other relevant standards and legislation such as PCI DSS and the Sarbanes Oxley Act, to enable compliance with these standards too.
The Standard is used by Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs), information security managers, business managers, IT managers, internal and external auditors, IT service providers in organizations of all sizes.
The 2011 Standard is available free of charge to members of the ISF. Non-members are able to purchase a copy of the standard directly from the ISF.

IT Governance Standards and Best Practices
ISO/IEC 27000 family of Information Security Management Systems - This document provides an overview of ISO/IEC 27000 family of Information Security Management Systems which consists of inter-related standards and guidelines, already published or under development, and contains a number of significant structural components.
ISO 27001 - This document provides the ISO standards of the requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining and continually improving an information security management system within the context of the organization.
ISO 27002 - This document introduces the code of practice for information security controls.
British Standard 7799 Part 3 - This set of guidelines is published by BSI Group for the information security risk management.
COBIT - The Control Objectives for Information and related Technology (COBIT) is published by the Standards Board of Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA) providing a control framework for the governance and management of enterprise IT.

India Post Payments Bank (IPPB)

All about India Post Payments Bank (IPPB)

The India Post Payments Bank (IPPB)[ inaugurated on the 1st of September 2018 has been incorporated as a public sector company under the Department of Posts with 100% GOI equity and is governed by the Reserve Bank of India. 650 branches of the bank along with 3250 customer access points are operational across the country from September, 2018. The network presence will be extended to 1.55 lakhs by December 2018.


IPPB is offering demand deposits such as savings and current accounts up to a balance of Rs 1 Lac, digitally enabled payments and remittance services of all kinds between entities and individuals and also provide access to third-party financial services such as insurance, mutual funds, pension, credit products, forex, and more, in partnership with insurance companies, mutual fund houses, pension providers, banks, international money transfer organisations, direct benefit transfer, etc.



10 key highlights that will help you decode all about IPPB:

1. The institute will operate like a banking organisation, but with smaller scale operations. Most banking operations like accepting deposits shall be done, but they cannot give loans or issue credit cards.

2. As per guidelines laid out by the Reserve Bank of India, it can accept deposits of up to Rs 1 lakh per customer, offer payments and remittance services, mobile payments/transfers/purchases and other banking services like ATM/debit cards, net banking and third-party fund transfers.

3. The bank will offer 4 percent interest rate on savings accounts. It has also tied up with PNB and Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance for products such as loans as well as insurance.

4. These facilities can be accessed through 650 branches and 3,250 access points.

5. Around 1.30 lakh access points will be located in rural areas, which the government hopes to fulfil its financial inclusion goal. The IPPB also has a nod to link around 17-crore postal savings bank (PSB) accounts with its own set-up.

6. Deposits in any account that exceed Rs 1 lakh will be automatically converted into post office savings account

7. Use of technology: The payments bank will be using Aadhaar to open accounts, while a QR card and biometrics will drive authentication, transactions, and payments. Postmen will be armed with biometric devices as well.

8. Ownership of the bank is solely with the government and is functioning under Department of Posts. It will offer products and services through channels such as counter services, micro ATMs, apps, messages and interactive voice response.

9. According to RBI, the objectives of setting up of payments banks will be to further financial inclusion by providing (i) small savings accounts and (ii) payments/remittance services to migrant labour workforce, low income households, small businesses, other unorganised sector entities and other user.

10. In a bid to take on competing entities such as Airtel and Paytm Payments Bank, the Cabinet gave a nod to 80 percent hike in spending on IPPB to Rs 1,435 crore. This, it said, will arm it with additional ammo to compete in the market.