Saturday, 8 June 2019

Treasury products

TREASURY PRODUCTS

1) Which of the following currency is not fully convertible?

a) USD b) EURO c) INR d) GBP

2) What are the Spot Trades?

a) It is the process of settlement where payment and receipts of funds are settled in respective currencies.

b) The settlement takes place within 2 working days from the trade date.

c) Currency may be bought or sold with settlement on the same date i.e. To day (TOD)

d) The settlement can be on the -next day he. Tomorrow (TOM)

3) Which of the following is significant about spot trade?

a) All rates quoted on the screen are for spot trade unless otherwise mentioned

b) TOD and TOM rates are generally quoted at a discount to the spot rate.

c) TOD and TOM rates are less favourable to buyer d) All these

4) What is forward contract?

a) It is a contract for purchase and sale of currency at a future date.

b) The exchange rate for a future contract is quoted on the day of contract.

c) The contract between buyer and seller is called forward contract.

d) All the above

5) Which of the following is true regarding a forward contract?

a) Treasury may have forward contracts with customers or Banks as counterparties.

b) Customers cover currency risk through forward contract.

c) Treasury may cover its customer exposure by taking reverse position in Inter-Bank market.

d) All the above

6) The features of forward rates are:

a) They are not projected on the basis of exchange rate movement in the market

b) Forward rates are decided on the basis of interest rate differential of two currencies.

c) The interest rate differential is added to the spot rate for low interest yielding currency and deducted

from the spot rate for high interest yielding currency

d) All the above

7) Which of the following are True?

a) Forward rate reflects interest rate differential only in prefect markets.

b) Perfect markets are where currency is fully convertible and highly liquid.

c) When currency is not fully convertible the demand for forward contract influences

the forward exchange rate d) All these

8) The features of a swap are:

a) A combination of spot and forward transactions is called a swap.

b) Buying in the spot market and selling same amount in forward market or vice-versa is swap.

c) Swap is mainly used for funding requirements_ d) All these

9) A Bank may have foreign exchange surpluses from the following sources:

a) Profit from overseas Branch operations

b) Forex Borrowing in foreign domestic market

c) Foreign currency and convertible rupee deposits with branches

d) All the above



10) A Treasury may have surplus forex from the following sources:

a) Surpluses net of Bank's -lending in foreign currency

b) Floating funds on account of customer transactions

c) EEFC funds maintained in current account d) All these

11) The surplus forex can be invested by a Treasury in:

a) Inter-Bank loans b) Short term investments c) Nostro Account

d) Any or all of these

12) Which of the followings are the sources for short-term investments?

a) Treasury Bills issued by foreign governments

b) Commercial paper

c) Other debt instruments issued by multi lateral institutions

d) All the above

13) What is a Nostro Account?

a) This is a current account denominated in foreign currency maintained by a Bank with the correspondent Bank in the

home country of the currency.

b) Nostro Account does not attract any interest.

c) Many correspondent Banks provide automatic investment facility for funds held

overnight which earn nominal interest. d) All these

14)What is Money Market?

a) It is place for raising and deploying short term resources where maturity does not exceed one year.

b) Inter-Bank market is divided as call money and term money.

c) Call money market is also overnight market where borrowed funds are repaid on the next working day.

d) Notice money market is where funds are placed beyond overnight and upto 14 days.

15) The participants in call/notice money market are:

a) The major players are Banks and primary dealers.

b) Non-Banking financial companies can only lend the surplus funds upto specified limit_

c) NBFC can not participate in this market d) Both (a) and (c)

16) Which of the followings are the features to Treasury Bills?

a) The T-Bills are issued by the RBI on behalf of central govt. for pre-determined amount.

b) The interest is by way of discount.

c) The price is determined through an auction process d) All these

17) The maturity period of T-Bills is:

a) 91 days b) 364 days c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these

18) Which of the followings is relevant to T-Bills?

a) Each issue of 91 days T-Bill is for Rs_ 500 crore and auction is conducted weekly onWednesday.

b) Each issue of 364 days is for Rs. 1000 crore and it is auctioned fortnightly

c) The Banks park short term funds in T-Bills d) All these

19) The Benefits of T-Bills are:

a) It is Risk free investment

b) It yields interest higher than the call money market.

c) It is possible to trade T-Bill in secondary market d) All these

20) Which of the followings is correct regarding T-Bill?

a) It is in the Electronic form and held in SGL Account maintained by Banks with RBI.

b) Depository participants can also operate through SGL Account.

c) The settlement of T-Bills is through Clearing Corporation of India d) All these

21) If a T-Bill is of 91 days is priced at 99.26, what does it signify?

a) It will yield interest at 2.99%

b) This is known as implicit yield.

c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these

22) The_ features of the commercial paper are:

a) It is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of promissory note.

b) The highly rated corporate Borrowers can raise short term funds through this instrument.

c) It is an additional instrument to the investing community d) All these

23) -The time limit for issuing a CP is:

a) Minimum maturity 7 days b) Maximum maturity one year

c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these

24) The requirements for issuing a commercial paper are:



a) The company issuing CP should have minimum credit rating of P2.

b) Banks can invest in CP only if it is issued in D-mat form

c) The minimum amount of CP is Rs. 5 lac d) All these

25) Who issues guidelines for issue of CP?

a) RBI

b) Market practices prescribed by FIMMDA (Fixed Income and Money Market and Derivatives Association of India) c) (a)

and (b) both d) None of these

26) A company issuing CP must satisfy the conditions:

a) Tangible Net worth of the company should not be less than Rs. 4 crore

b) The company should be enjoying working capital limit with Bank/financial institution

c) The Borrowal Account should be classified as standard Asset d) All these

27) How does Tangible Net Worth is arrived at?

a) Capital b) Free Reserves c) (a) + (b) — Intangible Assets if any

d) None of these

28) Which of the following is relevant about commercial paper?

a) It is issued for discounted amount i.e. less than face value

b) The price is quoted for face value

c) It is negotiable instrument d) All these

29) Which of the following statements regarding commercial paper is

not correct?

a) CP is a substitute to working capital

b) Interest rates are at par with PLR

c) It should be compulsory in D-mat form

d) Purchase and sale of CP is effected through the depository participants

30) Banks prefer to invest in CP through Treasury because :

a) Credit Risk is relatively low.

b) Yield on CP is higher than inter-bank money market.

c) There is no liquidity risk d) All these

31) Which of the following- Credit Rating Agencies have been authorized by RBI for

Rating?

a) ICRA b) CRISIL c) CARE and FITCH Ratings India Ltd. d) All these

32) The provisions for issue of commercial paper are:

a) Maximum period for subscription to an issue of CP is two weeks from the date of opening of issue.

b) CPs can be issued on a single date or in parts on different dates.

c) The same issue of CP should have the same date of maturity d) All these

33) The process of issue a CP involves:

a) The Bank is appointed as issuing and paying agent.

b) The Bank would assess the requirement and the extent to which the CP issue is linked with credit limit.

c) The potential investors are given a copy of IPA certificates d) All these

34) The features of certificate of Deposit are:

a) It is a debt instrument issued-by Bank against deposit of funds

b) It is a negotiable instrument

c) It bears interest rate higher than regular deposits of the Bank. d) All these

35) The requirements of certificate of Deposit are:

a) Minimum amount of deposit is Rs. 1 lac

b)_ The maturity period may range from 7 days to one year

c) It is an additional source for investment to Banks and corporates d) All these

36) What is a Reverse Repo?

a) It is a contract to buy securities and then to sell them back at an agreed future date and price.

b) It provides opportunity for short term investments of surplus funds

c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these

37) What is Repo?

a) It is an instrument of borrowing funds for a short period.

b) It involves selling a security and simultaneously agreeing to repurchase it at a future date for a slightly higher price.

c) The price difference is called interest d) All these

38) The significance of Repo is:

a) It is a tool used by RBI for open market operations.



b) It affects liquidity in the system.

c) None of these d) Both (a) and (b)

39) The commercial Banks participate in Repo transactions because of:

a) To meet short fall of CRR --

b) To meet short fall in SLR

e) The interest on Repo is lower than call market d) All these

40) Repo transactions are regulated by:

a) RBI b) Securities Contracts Regulations Act c) (a) and (b) both d) None

41) Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Repo is a short term money market instrument

b) The Repo Rate and period is announced by RBI,c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these

42) What is the Repo Rate with effect from 16th Sept 2010?

a) 5% b) 5.25% C) 5.75% d) 6% e) None of these

43) What is the Reverse Repo Rate with effect from lSept 2010?

a) 4% b) 4.25% c) 4.75% d) 5% e) None of these

44) The process of Repo transaction is:

a) A Bank may sell securities to the counterparty with an agreement to repurchase the same securities after a certain

period at pre determined price.

b) The bank gets cash in exchange of securities and pays back the cash after a certain period and get back the securities.

c) The difference between sale price and repurchase price is interest d) All these

45) The advantage to the counterparty under a Repo transaction is:

a) It earns interest on secured [ending.

b) It holds securities which serves the purpose of meeting SLR requirements.

c) The value of securities is higher by a margin to cover price Risk. d) All these

46) Which of the following statements is correct? .

a) The margin maintained on Repo securities is called hair cut as principal amount exchanged against

securities is lower than the market value of securities

b) RBI uses Repo to control liquidity

c) Banks and primary dealers sell govt. securities to RBI and avail liquidity d) All these

47) Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) RBI uses Repo Transactions under liquidity adjustment facility

b) Liquidity is not affected through lending to Banks under a Repo Transaction.

c) Absorption of liquidity is done by accepting deposits from Banks.

d) Absorption of liquidity by accepting deposits from Banks is known as Reverse Repo.

48) Which of the following statements is correct?

a) RBI has commercial repo auctions on overnight basis.

b) Repo and Reverse Repo Rates have been pre-fixed.

c) RBI has full discretion to change the frequency of auction. d) All these

49) The process of Bill Re-discounting is:

a) Treasury will discount Bill of Exchange of short term nature which are already discounted with the banks.

b) Rediscounting is done at money market rates.

c) The rediscounting rates are negotiable between the lending Bank and borrowing Bank. d) All the above

50) The advantage to the lending Bank is:

a) The surplus funds are invested at term money rate

b) Credit Risk is low as lending Bank has recourse to the discounting Bank

c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these

51) The benefits to borrowing Bank is :

a) It is able to infuse liquidity from out of existing Assets

b) Its capital adequacy ratio is improved or rediscounted bills are added to Inter-Bank liability c) (a) and (b) both

d) All these

52) Which of the followings is significant regarding government securities?

a) They are issued by Public Debt Office of RBI.

b) State govts. Issue state development Bonds.

c) Govt. securities are sold through auction conducted by RBI d) All these

53) Which of the followings is correct?

a) Interest is paid on face value of the bond at coupon rate.

b) RBI arrives at a cut off price based on bids submitted by Banks and primary dealers.





c) The price may be higher or lower than the face value d) All these

54) Price movement of Bond depends on:

a) Demand of the Bond which depends on liquidity in the system.

b) The yield on Bond is different from coupon rate.

c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these

55) If 10 years G. sec. at 7.37 per cent is priced at 104.80, what would be the yield'

a) 6.67% b) 5.42% c) 6.15% d) None of these

56) The interest rates in the economy depends on:

a) Rate of inflation b) GDP growth c) Other economic indicators

d) A combination of all these

57) The variety of Bonds may include: a) Step up coupons b) Coupons linked to inflation c) Floating rate coupons

d) Any of these

58) What is STRIPS:

a) Separately registered interest and principal securities

b) Under this process principal and interest are treated as separate zero coupon securities c) (a) and (b) both

d) None of these

59) What is corporate debt paper?

a) It includes medium and long term bonds and debentures issued by corporates and financial institutions

b) Yield on Bonds is higher than the govt. securities

c) They are called non-SLR securities where banks can invest d) All these

60) Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) Tier-2 capital Bonds issued by Banks fall under the category of corporate debt paper.

b) Bonds issued by corporates are not that liquid_

c) The bonds are issued in D-mat form.

d) Bank Treasury finds an attractive investment in corporate debt paper.

61) Which of the following statements is correct regarding corporate debt paper?

a) Higher the credit risk higher is the yield.

b) Global ratings are necessary if the debt paper is issued in International market.

c) Treasury can invest FCNR deposit funds and other forex surpluses in global debt paper. d) All the above

62) Which of the followings is correct?

a) Debentures are issued by private companies.

b) Bonds mainly issued by public sector companies.

c) Government does not provide guaranter on PSU Bonds d) All these

63) The material difference between debentures and bonds is:

a) Debentures are governed by relevant provisions of company law.

b) Debentures are transferable on registration

c) Bonds are negotiable instrument governed by Law of Contract. d) All these

64) The Bond can be : a) Zero Coupon Bond b) Floating Rate Bond c) Deep Discount Bond

d) Any of these

65) Which of the followings is not correct?

a) Debenture and Bonds can be issued with redemption in instruments over a period.

b) They can be issued with a premium or redemption.

c) There are no Bonds with put and call option

d) Bonds secured by stocks or other collateral are called collaterised obligations

66) Which of the followings is relevant regarding issue of Bonds and debentures?

a) The holders have prior legal claim over the equity and preference stock holders.

b) The Trustee appointed by issuing company protects the rights of debenture holders.

c) The Trustee can initiate legal action against the company in case of any default.

d) All of the above

67) Companies i s suing unsecured debentures and bonds have to compl y wi th the

provision of :

a) Companies Acceptance of Deposit Rules 1975 b) SEBI

c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these

68) What is a convertible Bond?

a) It is a mix of Debt and Equity.

b) Bond holder has an option to convert debt into equity on a fixed date.





c) The conversion price is pre-determined d) All these

69) The advantages of convertible Bonds are:

a) If the stock price is higher than prefixed conversion price, the investor would convert debt into Equity.

b) Company will have no debt repayment

c) The Equity of the company will be strengthened d) All these

70) Which of the followings are derivative products treated on stock exchange?

a) Index features b) Index options c) Stock futures and options d) All these

71) Provisions to invest in Equities are:

a) Banks can invest in Equities upto 20% of their net owned funds

b) Stock prices are highly volatile

c) Banks prefer low risk investments d) All these

72) The provision on Fll investments are:

a) Foreign currency funds are converted into rupee for portfolio investors.

b) Rupee funds with profits are converted into foreign currency for repatriation

c) Flls are allowed to invest in debt market d) All these

73) What is External Commercial Borrowings?

a) Indian companies can borrow on global market through Bank loan or issue of debt paper.

b) The debt can be repaid by reconversion of rupee funds into foreign currency

c) (a) and. (b) both d) None of these

74) The guidelines for investment of foreign currency funds of Banks are?

a) FCNR deposits can be invested in overseas market and for domestic lending :n foreign currency.

b) Banks are permitted to borrow/invest in overseas market 50% of Tier-I Capital.

c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these

75) What is Export Earners Foreign Currency Account?

a) Exporters are allowed to hold 100% export proceeds in a Current Account. wtth

b) No interest is paid on such deposits

c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these

76) What is Gilts?

a) Securities issued by government or Treasuries.

b) They do not have any credit Risk, c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these

77) SGL Account is:

a) Subsidiary General Ledger

b) It is maintained by public debt office of RBI

c) Banks maintain exclusively government Securities Accounts d) All of these

78) Which of the followings is correct?

a) Counterparty is the other party to a Transaction

b) Yield is internal rate of return where interest is also reinvested at original coupon rate.

c) Foreign currency deposits are denominated in foreign currency d) All of these

79) The features of FCNR deposit are:

a) They are denominated either in USD, GBP, JPY or EURO, Can- Dollar and Aus Dollar.

b) The deposits are maintained by non-resident Indians.

c) Interest on FCNR deposits is regulated by RBI d) All of these

80) Broad money or M3 consists of :

a) Currency in circulation b) Demand and time deposits with Banks

c) Deposits of Banks and other deposits with RBI d) All of these

81) Monetary policy of RBI aims at:

a) Controlling rate of inflation b) Ensuring stability of financial market

c) Regulating money supply d) All of these

82) The tools in the hands of RBI for direct control of money supply are:

a) CRR b) SLR c) (a)-and (b) both d) None of these

83) CRR is calculated on net Demand and Time liabilities which contain:

a) Demand deposits and Time deposits

b) Overseas Borrowings

c) Foreign outward remittances and other demand and time liabilities d) All of these

84) The Demand deposits include:

a) Current and Savings Deposits b) Margin Money for Letter of Credits

c) Overdue Fixed Deposits d) All these

85) Other Demand and Time Liabilities include:

ayAccrued Interest b) Credit Balance in Suspense Account

c) Any other liability d) All these

86) In which of the following categories only 3% minimum CRR is required to be

maintained?

a) Net Inter-Bank call borrowing/deposits where maturity does not exceed 14 days,

b) Credit Balance in ACU (Asian Currency Unit) Accounts

c) Demand and Time liabilities in respect of off shore Banking units d) None of these

87) Banks need not maintain CRR on :

a) Paid up capital, reserves, retained profits, refinance from apex institutions.

b) Excess provision for Income tax .

c) Claims received from DICGC/ECGC d) All these

88) Which of the followings is correct?

a) CRR need not be maintained on Inter-Bank term deposits of original maturity upto one year

b) RBI does not pay interest on CRR Balance

c) The Demand and Time l iabil i ties as on the report ing Friday of second previous

fortnight will be basis for CRR calculation d) All these

89) SLR can be maintained in the form of following Assets:

a) Cash Balance in excess of CRR requirements

b) ,Gold at current market price

c) Approved securities valued as per RBI norms d) All these

90) What is Liquidity Adjustment Facility?

a) It is the mechanism whereby RBI lends funds to Banking sector through repo instrument

b) This is used to monitor day to day market liquidity

c) This is exclusively applicable to repo and reverse repo transactions with RBI

d) All these

91) The features of Negotiated Dealing System are:

a) This is a system where securities clearing against assured payment is handed by Clearing Corporation of India.

b) Physical delivery of cheques are not required.

c) All Inter-Bank Money Market deals are done through Negotiated Dealing System

d) All the above

92) The feature of Real Time Gross Settlement System are:

a) All Inter-Bank payments are settled instantly.

b) Banks' Accounts with all the Branch offices of RBI are also integrated.

c) Since it is instant payment system, Banks need to maintain adequate funds

throughout the day.

d) All the above

93) Which of the following is correct?

a) Asian currency unit is a mechanism for payment to/from members of Asian clearing union.

b) Off shore Banking units render special Banking services only to overseas customers.

c) SWIFT is a secure worldwide financial messaging system exclusive to Banks.

d) All the above

94) What is DVP?

a) Delivery vesus Payment system where one account is debited and another account is credit at the same time.

b) In case of securities purchase funding account is debited and securities account is credited.

c) This facilitates prompt settlement of security transactions. d) All these





1 C 2 A 3 D 4 D 5 D 6 D 7 D 8 D 9 D 10 D

11 D 12 D 13 A 14 A 15 A 16 D 17 C 18 D 19 D 20 D

21 C 22 D 23 C 24 D 25 A 26 D 27 C 28 D 29 B 30 D

31 D 32 D 33 D 34 D 35 D 36 C 37 D 38 D 39 D 40 C

41 C 42 D 43 D 44 D 45 D 46 D 47 B 48 D 49 D 50 C

51 C 52 D 53 D 54 A 55 A 56 D 57 D 58 C 59 D 60 B

61 D 62 D 63 D 64 D 65 C 66 D 67 C 68 B 69 D 70 D

71 D 72 D 73 C 74 D 75 C 76 C 77 D 78 D 79 D 80 D

81 D 82 C 83 D 84 D 85 D 86 D 87 D 88 D 89 D 90 D

91 D 92 D 93 D 94 D

Bfm mcqs


1. A company has four branches at Bangalore, Chennai, Delhi and Mumbai. IEC number should be
obtained by.
A. all bran ches simultaneously.
B. each branch separately.
C. any one branch, which c an be used by all branches.
D. the head office, which can be used by all branches.
ANSWER: D
2. An exporter who deals in multi products should get Registration-cum-Membership Certificate from.
A. all export promotion councils relevant to the products dealt in.
B. export promotion council nearest to the head office of the expo rter.
C. export promotion council of main line of activity or FIEO.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: D
3. An exporter cannot obtain details about prospective buyers from.
A. yellow pages.
B. web sites.
C. Indian em bassy abroad.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: D
4. A thorough buyer evaluation may be waived in case of.
A. buyers from advanced countries.
B. buyers from countries having bil ateral relations with India.
C. buyers having import licences.
D. transactions covered by full ad vance payment.
ANSWER: D
5. Force majuere clause in an export .
A. relates to penalty for non-fulfilm ent of contract.
B. exempts the exporter from liability from non-ful filment of contract due to reasons beyond his control.
C. provides for enforcing the contract compulsorily.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: B
6. Obtaining quality certification is compulsory for.
A. export of commodities falling under mandator y inspection requirements of the government.
B. export of items meant for human consumption
C. all exports.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: A
7. Booking of shipping space in advance is helpful to an exporter in.
.
A. saving in freight charges.
B. availing bank finance.
C. getting priority on inla nd movement of cargo by rail.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: C
8. Under advance remittance as a method of payment the credit risk is borne by.
A. the importer.
B. the exporter.
C. importers ba nk
D. none.
ANSWER : A
9. Open account when used as a method of payment indicates.
A. the transactions are legal
B. the buyer has no money t o pay immediately.
C. the seller wants to sell desperately.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: D
10. Open account method of payment is beneficial to
A. the buyer.
B. the seller.
C. the buying agent.
D. both the buyer an d the seller.
ANSWER: A
11. Cash on delivery method is normally used for.
A. bulk cargo with immediate market.
B. small but valuable items sent by po st.
C. slow moving items.
D. exports to countries with balance of payments problems.
ANSWER: B
12. Documents against payment term indicates
A. the documents are sent by post.
B. the export is risky.
C. the collecting bank will hand the documents to the buyer against payment.
D. the exporter delivers the documents to the bank against advance.
ANSWER: C
13. The best form of method of payment for an importer would be.
A. advance remittance.
B. letter of credit.
C. documents aga inst payment.
D. open account.
ANSWER: D
14. When goods are sent to an agent of an exporter in the importing country, the method of payment
adopted is.
A. open account.
B. letter of credit .
C. consignment sa le.
D. documents agains t acceptance.
ANSWER: C
15. The method of payment where the exporter relies on the undertaking of a bank to pay is.
A. bank guarantee.
.

B. letter of credit.
C. letter of comfo rt.
D. none of the above .
ANSWER: B
16. Letter of credit transactions are generally governed by the provisions of.
A. Uniform customs and Procedures for Documentary Credits.
B. United Conference on Practices for Documentary Credits.
C. Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits.
D. Uniform Code and Procedure for Documentary Credits.
ANSWER: C
17. A letter of credit for a commercial transaction is.
A. a guarantee by the issuing bank to the exporter that bills drawn by the latter will be met.
B. undertaking by the issuing bank to the exporters bank that the exporters bills will be met by the
issuing bank.
C. undertak ing by the issuing bank to the exporter that documents conforming to the requirements of the
credit will be negotiated/paid against by the bank.
D. none of the above
ANSWER: C
18. The beneficiary under a letter of credit is.
A. the bank opening the credit.
B. the customer of the opening bank.
C. the confirming bank.
D. the exporter.
ANSWER: B
19. A letter of credit is opened on behalf of.
A. exporter customers.
B. importer customers.
C. any party wishing to make payment abroad.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: B
20. A letter of credit is addressed to.
A. the beneficiary.
B. the negotiating bank.
C. the reimbursing bank .
D. the importer.
ANSWER: A
21. Bank B of Baroda nrgotiated on 12.3.2005 documents ynder a recovable letter of credit opened by
Bank C of California. On 13.3.2005 before the documents were dispatched by Bank B to Bank C, it
receives a notice from the latter, dated 11.3.2005 cancelling the letter of credit.
A. Bank B cannot get reimbursement from Bank C since the documents are n egotiated after the
cancellation of the letter of credit.
B. Bank B cannot get reimburse ment from Bank C, but have recourse to the exporter.
C. Bank B can get reimbursement from Bank C because the documents were negotiat ed before the
notice of cancellation could reach it.
D. Bank B can get reimbursement from Bank C since the notice of cancellation is invalid.
ANSWER: D
22. When a letter of credit does not indicate whether it is revocable or irrevocable, it is treated as.
A. revocable.
B. irrevocable .
C. revocable or irrevocable at the option of the beneficiary.
D. revocable or irrevocable at the option of the negotiating bank.
.

ANSWER: B
23. Payment for bills drawn under letter of credit should be made by the negotiating bank.
A. immediately in all cases.
B. after the documents are a pproved by the issuing bank.
C. immediately or on a future date depending upon the te rms of credit.
D. only in foreign currency.
ANSWER: C
24. Under an acceptance letter of credit, the responsibility of the issuing bank is.
A. only to accept the bill.
B. to pay against the bill.
C. to accept the immediat ely and also to pay the amount of the bill on its due date.
D. to get the acceptance of the importer on the bill.
ANSWER: C
25. A confirmed letter of credit is one.
A. confirmed by a bank (other than t he opening bank) in the exporters country.
B. confirmed by the importer to be correct.
C. confirmed by the exporter that he agrees to the conditions.
D. confirmed to be authentic.
ANSWER: A
26. Under the confirmed letter of credit the undertaking the confirming bank is.
A. in addition to that of the opening bank.
B. in substitution of the undertaking of the opening bank.
C. subject to government policies to the exporter country.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: A
27. A credit which provides for reinstatement of the amount as and when bills are drawn under it is called.
A. reinstatement credit.
B. reimbursement credi t
C. revolving credit.
D. back-to-back cre dit.
ANSWER: C
28. A transferable credit is one.
A. . which can be negotiated.
B. which can be transferred b y the importer to any other person.
C. which can be transferred by the beneficiary to any other perso n.
D. which provides for transfer of liability to another bank.
ANSWER: C
29. A transferable credit can be transferred.
A. once.
B. twice .
C. thrice.
D. any nu mber of times.
ANSWER: A
30. A transferable credit can be transferred to a third person in.
A. the same country.
B. a third country.
C. the same countr y or any third country.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: C
.
31. A transferable letter of credit.
A. can be transferred to more th an one person even if partial shipment is prohibited.
B. can be transferred to more than one person only if partial shipment is allowed.
C. is one which contains words such as fractionable, assignable, etc.
D. . is transferred free of charge.
ANSWER: B
32. A back to back letter of credit.
A. is always an inland letter of c redit.
B. is a new letter of credit issued on th e strength of the letter of credit which is not transferable.
C. can be issued only when the original letter of credit is transferable.
D. can also be transferred.
ANSWER: B
33. A letter of credit that provides for granting of pre-shipment finance as well as storage of goods in the
name of the bank is.
A. a red clause let ter of credit.
B. a standby letter of credit.
C. a green clause letter of cr edit.
D. a secured letter of credit.
ANSWER: C
34. A letter of credit carries an undertaking of the opening bank to pay up to a specified amount in case of
non-performance of certain obligation by the applicant. This letter of credit is.
A. invalid.
B. an antic ipatory letter of credit.
C. standby letter of credit.
D. performance letter of cr edit.
ANSWER: C
35. The responsibility of an advising bank of a letter of credit is to.
A. vouch the genuineness of the letter of credit.
B. negotiate documents under the letter of credi t.
C. negotiate documents under the letter of credit, if the opening bank fails.
D. none of the above
ANSWER: A
36. Bank of Mumbai receives a bill under letter of credit opened by it. The importer instructs the bank not
to pay because he says the goods received are defective. The bank should.
A. return the bill with the reason payment refused.
B. seek clarification from the drawer; meanwhile k eep the bill with it.
C. refer the matter to International Chamber of Commerce.
D. make payment to the negotiating bank since the importe rs reason is untenable.
ANSWER: D
37. While scrutinizing the documents tendered under a letter of credit, the negotiating bank and issuing
bank should apply the doctrine of.
A. strict compliance
B. force majeure.
C. indemnity.
D. major com pliance.
ANSWER: A
38. Bank A has opened a letter of credit on behalf of its customers Imports India. When a bill under the
letter of credit is presented for payment by the negotiating bank it is found that Imports India do not have
sufficient balance in the account to pay the bill. The bank should.
A. intimate the negotiating bank by cable.
B. sue the customer for non-compliance w ith the letter of credit terms.

C. defer payment to the negotiating bank.
D. make payment to the negotiating bank immediately if documents are in order.
ANSWER: D
39. The expiry date of a letter of credit falls on 1st November, a bank holiday at exporters place.
A. The documents can be presented for negotiation the next working day.
B. The documents should be negotiated latest by the preceding working d ay.
C. Last date of negotiation and last date of shipment get postponed by a day.
D. The last date for shipment gets postponed but not the last date of negotiati on.
ANSWER: A
40. A letter of credit stipulates that the shipment should be made at the beginning og August 2005. It
means, the shipment can be made.
A. only on 1st August 2005.
B. during the first week of A ugust 2005.
C. any date between 1st and 10th of Aug ust 2005.
D. before the commencement of April 2005.
ANSWER: C
41. The letter of credit provides that shipment shall be made during the first half of February 2006. It
means the shipment can be made on any date between.
A. 1st and 4th of February 2006.
B. 1st and 15th of February 2006 .
C. 1st and 14th of February 2006; generally, with discretion to the negotiating bank to accept on 15th
February 2006 also.
D. 1st and 14th of February 2006; on 15th only if the port did not work on 14th.
ANSWER: B
42. If the letter of credit indicates the amount as about a specified amount, the drawing under the credit can
be.
A . 30% more than the specified amount.
B. 30% more or less than the Specified a mount.
C. 10% more than the specified amount.
D. 10% more or less than the specified a mount.
ANSWER: D
43. A letter of credit is opened for 100 kg of coffee for GBP 800. Documents for 102 kg of coffee for GBP
800 is presented for negotiation.
A. The bill cannot be accepted because quantity exceeds the letter of credit limit.
B. The bill cannot be accepted as the unit price get varied.
C. The bill can be accepted as it is beneficial to the import er.
D. The bill can be accepted since a tolerance of $5% in quant ity is allowed under UCP.
ANSWER: D
44. A teletransmission will be considered an operative instrument where.
A. it states full details to follow
B. it states mail confirmation w ill be the operating instrument.
C. it states airmailing our irrevocable letter of credit
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: D
45. A bank which issues a preliminary advice of issuance of an irrevocable credit.
A. A bank which issues a preliminary advice of issuance of an irrevocable credi t.
B. can later convert it as operative instrument.
C. may issue the operative instrument with dif ferent terms.
D. may issue the operative instrument with different terms.
ANSWER: A

46. A letter of credit is required to be completer and precise. It means.
A. it should not contain excessive details.
B. it should not refer to a previous credit w hich was amended.
C. both 1 and 2.
D. none of the a bove.
ANSWER: C
47. Expiry date of a letter of credit refers to.
A. the last date for shipment.
B. the last date for negotiatio n.
C. the last date for presentation of documents to issuing bank.
D. the last date of the month in which shipment can be made.
ANSWER: B
48. Unless otherwise required by the credit, the authentication of a document cannot be indicated by.
A. facsimile signature.
B. mark or stamp.
C. electronic meth od of authentication.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: D
49. The obligation of the applicant of the credit to the beneficiary is.
A. to get the letter of credit opened confirming to terms of sale con tract.
B. to remain liable for the payment if the issuing bank fails to pay.
C. both 1 and 2 options.
D. only to get the credit opened.
ANSWER: C
50. Applicant for a letter of credit is not liable to the issuing bank.
A. for the charges of the issuing bank when collectable from the beneficiary, but he fails to pay.
B. actions of the intermediary bank.
C. the obligations imposed by foreig n laws and usages.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: D
51. The responsibility of an accepting bank in a letter of credit is to.
A. accept bills drawn under the credit.
B. pay bills drawn under the credit.
C. accept and pay bills drawn under the credit.
D. accept the bill and get the payment from the issuing bank.
ANSWER: C
52. The responsibility of a negotiating bank is to.
A. verify that it negotiating only bills drawn und er credit advised by it.
B. the goods covered by the bill are safe and properly insured.
C. the documents tendered are as per the terms of credit.
D. both 2 and 3 above.
ANSWER: C
53. The responsibility of the confirming bank of a letter of credit is.
A. to negotiate and pay documents drawn under the credit.
B. vouchsafe the authenticity of the credit.
C. pay, if the issuing bank fails to pay docu ments that are in order.
D. pay, if the payment cannot be made by issuing bank due to gove rnment action.
ANSWER: A
54. Reimbursing bank under a letter of credit.
A. same as the issuing bank.
.

B. the paying bank.
C. the bank from wh ich the negotiating bank can claim reimbursement.
D. branch of the issuing bank in the exporters country.
ANSWER: C
55. Under UCP, the banks involved in a letter of credit transaction are responsible for.
A. genuineness of documents submitted by the beneficiary.
B. non-fulfillment of obligations by the other banks.
C. delay in transmission of messages.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: D
56. Under a letter of credit, the bill of exchange should be drawn on.
A. the issuing bank.
B. the issuing bank or any other bank as indicated in the credit.
C. the issuing bank or the importer as indicated in the credit.
D. any party as indicated in the credit.
ANSWER: B
57. As per Negotiable Instruments Act, the following will be a foreign bill.
A. A bill drawn in Mumbai on a party in New York and payable at Delhi .
B. A bill drawn in Chennai on a party in Kolkata and payable at Colombo .
C. A bill drawn in Bangalore on a party in Sydney and payable there.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: C
58. As per UCP, the minimum amount for which marine insurance should be effected is.
A. FOB value.
B. CIF value.
C. FOB value plus 10%.
D. CIF value plus 10%.
ANSWER: D
59. The following document is not acceptable under a letter of credit unless specifically authorized by the
credit.
A. m arine insurance policy.
B. insurance document whic h specifies that the cover is subject to a excess.
C. certificate of insurance.
D. cover notes issued by br okers.
ANSWER: D
60. The currency in which the insurance policy is obtained should be the currency of .
A. the importers country.
B. the exporters country.
C. the letter of credit.
D. any country, which is easily exchangeable.
ANSWER: C
61. The date from which the marine insurance policy should be effective should be.
A. same as the date of the transport document.
B. same or later than the date of the transport d ocument.
C. same or earlier than the date of the transport documen t.
D. earlier than the date of the transport document.
ANSWER: C
62. General Average loss under marine insurance is.
A. the basis for calculation of premium.
B. losses suffered to compensate extraor dinary sacrifice made to save the property in common.

C. risks for which only average cost will be reimbursed.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: B
63. Marine policy clause that currently gives widest coverage against risks is.
A. Institute Cargo Clause A.
B. Institute Cargo Clause B.
C. Institute Cargo Clause C.
D. All Risks Clause.
ANSWER: C
64. For Claiming under marine policy, the claimant should have insurable interest.
A. at the time of taking the policy.
B. when damage to or loss of good s occurs.
C. both at the time of taking the policy and o ccurrence of damage/loss.
D. either at the time of taking the policy or at the time of occurrence of damage/loss.
ANSWER: B
65. The description of goods in the following document should agree exactly with the description in the
letter of credit.
A. Bill of lad ing.
B. Commercial in voice.
C. Packing list.
D. all the above .
ANSWER: B
66. A certified invoice is one.
A. certified as correct by th e importers agent in the exporters country.
B. certified as correct by the consul of the importers country
C. certified as correct by Chamber of Commerce.
D. which includes a certificate of origin.
ANSWER: B
67. Certificate of origin indicates.
A. the country of shipment of g oods.
B. the place of manufacturer/product ion of goods.
C. the country of manufacturer/production of good s.
D. whether the product belongs to plant or animal ki ngdom.
ANSWER: C
68. Details about the exact contents of each package can be found in.
A. packing list.
B. packing cert ificate.
C. commercial invoice .
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: A
69. The following invoice does not evidence sale.
A. consular invoice.
B. certified invoice.
C. visaed invoice.
D. proforma invoi ce.
ANSWER: D
70. The following transport document is a document of title to goods.
A. bill of lading.
B. multimodal tr ansport document.
C. airway bill.
.

D. none of the above.
ANSWER: A
71. A bill of lading is.
A. a non-negotiable instrument.
B. a quasi-negotiable.
C. fully negotiable ins trument.
D. partly negotiable instrument .
ANSWER: B
72. A mates receipt is.
A. Document signed by an officer of a vessel evidencing receipt of a shipment on board the vessel.
B. a substitute bill of lading.
C. bill of lading evidencing g oods carried on deck.
D. a draft bill of lading.
ANSWER: A
73. In a bill of lading the consignees name is mentioned as to order. It means the goods will be delivered to
the order of.
A. consign or.
B. the bank.
C. the consig nee.
D. the shipping ag ent.
ANSWER: A
74. As per UCP, unless specifically authorized in the letter of credit, a bank will not accept.
A. through bill of lading.
B. short form bill of ladin g.
C. bill of lading indicating t hat the carrying vessel is propelled by sail only.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: D
75. In the absence of specific mention in the letter of credit, under UCP a transport document is considered
stale.
A. if presented for negotiation 21 days after its issue.
B. if presented for negotiation after its issue.
C. if presented after expiry of the letter of cre dit.
D. if presented for negotiation after the goods rea ch the destination.
ANSWER: A
76. A straight bill of lading is one.
A. covering both land and water transport.
B. the goods covered by which are delivera ble to the consignee.
C. which is sent directly to the consignee.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: B
77. Freight to pay bill of lading is acceptable if.
A. the contact term is CIF.
B. the contract term is CFR .
C. the contract term is FOB.
D. goods are carried by a for eign vessel.
ANSWER: C
78. The drawback of non-negotiable sea waybill is.
A. . it does not evidence contract of affreightmen t.
B. it increases the incidence of fraud.
C. goods will not be delivered withou t the waybill even if indemnity is executed.
.

D. the buyer cannot sell the goods in transit by surrendering a paper document to a new buyer.
ANSWER: D
79. The following transport document is acceptable under a letter of credit.
A. house air waybill
B. house bill of ladin g.
C. warehouse receipt.
D. tramp bill of lading .
ANSWER: A
80. According to the Multimodal Transportation of Goods Act, a multimodal transport document cannot
be.
A . a bearer instrument.
B. an order instrument.
C. a non-negotiable inst rument.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: D
81. Air waybill is prepared in.
A. three originals.
B. quadruplicate.
C. as many copie s as required by the exporter.
D. one original only.
ANSWER: A
82. Incoterms cover.
A. trade in intangi bles.
B. ownership and trans fer rights.
C. contracts of carriage
D. rights and obligation s of parties to contract of sales.
ANSWER: D
83. The following incoterms cannot be used for contracts providing for transportation of goods by sea.
A. CFR.
B. DDP.
C. DES.
D. DEQ.
ANSWER : B
84. The incoterm providing least responsibility to seller is.
A. EXW.
B. DDP.
C. FOB.
D. CIF.
ANSWE R: B
85. The group of incoterms under which the sellers responsibility is to obtain freight paid transport
document for main carriage is.
A. E terms.
B. C terms.
C. D terms.
D. F terms.
ANSWER: B
86. The incoterm should indicate the place of shipment in case of.
A. F terms
B. E terms .
C. C terms.
D. Dterms.
ANSWER: A
87. Incoterm is specific about the responsibility for marine insurance in case of.
A. FOB and EXW.
B. FOB and CIF.
C. CIF and CIP.
D. CPT and DD P.
ANSWER: C
88. The importer under FOB terms requests the exporter to book shipping space on vessel convenient to
the exporter. The exporter.
A. is bound to book the shipping space as it is his duty under FOB term.
B. Should refuse the request as it is the duty of the importer to book the shipping space.
C. may accept the request, but cannot recover the additional cost from the importer.
D. may accept and execute the request at the cost of the importer.
ANSWER: D
89. The group of terms arranged in order of increasing responsibility of exporter is.
A. C, D, E and E terms.
B. D, E, F and C terms.
C. E, F, C and D terms.
D. F, C, E and D terms.
ANSWER: C
90. The price quoted by the seller for the product.
A. Will vary depending upon the incoterm chos en.
B. is irrespective of the incoterm.
C. Will be the base price; the effe ct of incoterm to be added later.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: A
91. Adoption of incoterms is.
A. compulsory for all intern ational contracts.
B. compulsory for all letter of credit transacti ons.
C. optional for the parties to the contract.
D. mandatory for transactions with Europ e.
ANSWER: C
92. Packing credit is.
A. an advance mad e for packing goods for export.
B. pre-shipment finance for export.
C. a priority sector advance.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: B
93. The amount of packing credit should not normally exceed.
A. the local cost of manufacture for the exporter.
B. FOB value of the export contract.
C. CIF value of the export contract.
D. The cost of manufacture or the F OB value of the export contract, whichever is lower.
ANSWER: D
94. The following person is not eligible for packing credit.
A. merchant exporter.
B. a person making de emed exports.
C. sub-supplier to manufacturer expo rter.
D. supplier to sub-supplier to manufactur er exporter.
.
ANSWER: D
95. The running account facility for packing credit is available for.
A. status holders only.
B. exporters of specifi ed goods.
C. exporters with good track rec ord.
D. exporters with orders above Rs.10 0 crores.
ANSWER: C
96. The advantage to the exporter of running account facility of packing credit is.
A. production of letter of credit or firm order is completely waived.
B. the period of facility need not be adhered to.
C. production of letter of credit or firm order is waived immediately; they must be produced within
reasonable time.
D. the rate of i nterest is low.
ANSWER: C
97. The exemption from the condition that packing credit should not exceed domestic cost of production is
not waived for.
A. commodit y eligible for duty drawback.
B. commodity imported under advance lic ence.
C. HPS groundnuts.
D. agro based produ cts like tobacco.
ANSWER: B
98. The substitution of commodity/fresh export for adjustment of packing credit is not available for.
A. advance against sensitive commodities.
B. transactions of sister/associate/group co ncerns.
C. exporters availing running account facility.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: B
99. Normally the maximum period for which packing credit advances are made in.
A. 90 days.
B. 135 days .
C. 180 days.
D. 360 days.
ANSWER: C
100. A per-shipment advance is not expected to be adjusted by .
A. proceeds of export bill.
B. export incentives.
C. post shipment fina nce.
D. local funds.
ANSWER: D
101. A packing credit was granted against an export order, but the export could not take place.
A. It should be reported to Reserve Bank of India.
B. The exporter should be blacklisted
C. Claim should preferred with ECGC .
D. Interest at domestic rate should be ch arged on the advance from the date of advance.
ANSWER: D
102. For direct exporters, the packing credit should normally be granted only against.
A. a letter of credit.
B. firm order.
C. export licen ce.
D. a letter of credi t or firm order.
.

ANSWER: D
103. For packing credit in rupees, the interest for the period up to 180 days is chargeable at.
A. BPLR minus 2.5%.
B. BPLR minus 3%.
C. not exceeding BP LR minus 2.5%.
D. . not less than BPLR minus 2.5%.
ANSWER: C
104. Pre shipment Credit in Foreign Currency is available for a period of.
A. maximum 180 days.
B. minimum 180 days.
C. maximum 270 days.
D. maximum 360 days.
ANSWER: A
105. Pre-shipment Credit in Foreign Currency can be availed in.
A. US dollar only.
B. The currency of export only.
C. The currency of import only.
D. any permitted currency.
ANSWER: D
106. Advising of letter of credit will be done by the bank.
A. only to its customers.
B. to any person provide d the letter of credit is issued by its correspondent bank.
C. free of charge to its customers and for a cost to others.
D. . to any beneficiary and from any issuing bank.
ANSWER: B
107. The following is not a post-shipment advance.
A. Negotiation of bill under letter of credit.
B. Purchase of foreign bill.
C. Advance against bill for collection.
D. None of the above.
ANSWER: D
108. A bill drawn under the letter of credit contains discrepancies.
A. the bank should refuse to negotiate the documents.
B. take the bill on collection basis only.
C. must negotiate irrespective of the dis crepancies.
D. may purchase it or take it for collection, but sho uld not refuse to handle the bill.
ANSWER: D
109. The following is a must for an exporter
A. IEC number.
B. Exporters cod e number allotted by Reserve Bank.
C. A minimum local turnover of Rs 50 lakhs.
D. an export licence.
ANSWER: A
110. An export to Pakistan by post parcel should be declared in.
A. GR form.
B. EP form.
C. PP form.
D. GRX For m.
ANSWER: C

111. Realization of export proceeds in a period of 15 months from the date of shipment is allowed in the
case of.
A. all consignment exports.
B. exports on deferred paym ents terms.
C. exports to Nepal.
D. exports to Indian owned warehouses in Europe.
ANSWER: D
112. Generally, on exports the proceeds are to be realized within.
A. six months from the date of shipment.
B. one year from the date of shipment.
C. six months from the date of negotiat ion of documents.
D. one year from the date of negotiation of documents.
ANSWER: A
113. Availment of post shipment credit in foreign currency is compulsory for.
A. exports who have not availed packing credit.
B. all exporters who have availed packing credit .
C. exporters who have availed pre-shipment cred it in foreign currency.
D. none.
ANSWER : C
114. Post-shipment credit in foreign currency can be availed by.
A. use of on-shore foreign currency funds.
B. banks raising foreign currency funds ab road.
C. exporters arranging funds abroad.
D. Any of the above methods.
ANSWER: D
115. Advance remittance from the importer can be accepted by an exporter in India provided
A. the advance does not carry interest payment.
B. shipment will be made only after one year fro m the date of receipt of advance payment.
C. the advance does not exceed 25% of the export value.
D. the rate of interest, if payable, does not exceed Libor p lus 1%.
ANSWER: D
116. A bank may refuse to accept an export bill for collection.
A. when the customer has sufficient limits under bill discoun ting facility.
B. when the documents have discrepancies as compared to letter of credit requirements.
C. when the documents are received from a non-customer.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: C
117. If the importer refuses to accept the bill drawn on him the exporter.
A. should reimport the goods.
B. must find an alternate buye r.
C. may reimport or sell to altern ate buyer depending upon commercial expediency.
D. sue the importer.
ANSWER: C
118. If export cargo is lost in transit, the exporter should.
A. claim under marine insurance.
B. claim with ECGC
C. seek write off of p ost-shipment credit.
D. forseek refund of customs duty.
ANSWER: A
119. Deferred payment export is a form of.
.
A. sellers credit.
B. buyers credit.
C. mutual credit.
D. market credit.
ANSWER: A
120. Buyers credit takes the form of.
A. exporters bank financing the bu yer directly.
B. exporters bank financing the buyers bank
C. both (a) and (b) above.
D. neither (a) nor (b) abov e.
ANSWER: C
121. Deferred payment exports refer to contracts where.
A. payment is to be made by the importer over 3 years and above.
B. payment is to be made by the importer after 6 months from the date of shipment.
C. the export for which the exporter avails deferred payment credit
D. lending in international markets on long-term basis.
ANSWER: B
122. Working Group for approval of project exports does not include.
A. Reserve Bank of India.
B. Financing bank.
C. Exim bank.
D. DGFT.
ANSWER: D
123. For project exports fulfilling norms for period of credit, in principle sanction can be given by.
A. the financing bank.
B. Exim bank.
C. The financin g bank for contracts worth up to Rs 25 crores and Exim bank for contracts worth up to
RS 100 crores.
D. the financ ing bank for contracts worth up to Rs 100 crores and Exin bank for contracts worth up to
Rs 25 crores.
ANSWER: C
124. Export of services on deffered payment terms requires clearance of the Working Group for.
A. contracts beyond Rs 5 crores.
B. all contracts.
C. contracts bey ond 20 crores
D. contracts beyond 10 crores .
ANSWER: B
125. In case of failure of the exporter, the liability of the bank which has issued the performance guarantee
is to.
A. c ompel the exporter to fulfil his obligation.
B. find alternative contractor who can execute the contract.
C. financially compensate the beneficiary up to the value of the contract.
D. financially compensate the beneficiary up to the guaranteed amount.
ANSWER: D
126. Advance payment guarantee assures.
A. the beneficiary that the exporter will make advance payments.
B. the exporter that the importer will make advance payments.
C. the importer to refund the money he has advanced to the exp orter, if the latter fails.
D. the exporter that the bank will extend credit for the contract
ANSWER: C
.

127. Indian parties are prohibited from making investment in foreign entity engaged in the business of.
A. real estate.
B. real estate or banking.
C. real estate or banking or agriculture.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: B
128. Export Credit Guarantee Corporation(ECGC) policies do not cover risk against.
A. buyers protracted default to pay for the goods.
B. war in buyers country.
C. buyers failure to obtain necessary import licence or exchange authorization from authorities in his
country
D. ca ncellation of export licence. Answer:C
ANSWER: C
129. The standard policy of ECGC covers risk of.
A. buyers failure to obtain import licence.
B. cancellation of import license in the bu yers country.
C. insolvency of the collecting bank.
D. all the above.
ANSWER: B
130. The standard policy of ECGC protects loss to the extent of.
A. 90% for political risk and 60% for commercial risk.
B. 90% for both political and commercial risks.
C. 60% for political risk and 90% for commerci al risk.
D. 60% for both political and commercial risks.
ANSWER: B
131. The maximum amount of claim against an individual buyer that ECGC will accept under its standard
policy issued to an exporter is known as.
A. maximum liability.
B. credit limit.
C. individual li mit.
D. there is no such ceiling.
ANSWER: B
132. The standard policy of ECGC is issued.
A. on whole turnover for 12 months.
B. on whole turnover basis for 24 mo nths.
C. against each consignment separately.
D. on monthly basis.
ANSWER: B
133. The Small Exporters Policy of ECGC is issued to.
A. any exporter in the SSI category.
B. any exporter who is exempt from excise duty.
C. an exporter with an anticipated turnover in the next 12 months not exceeding 1 crore.
D. an exporter with an anticipated turnover in the next 12 months not exceeding 25 lakhs .
ANSWER: D
134. Which of the following information about the Small Exporters Policy is wrong?
A. Risk coverage is 95% for commercial risk and 100 % for political risk.
B. The policy is issued for a period of 12 months.
C. The premium payable is lower than under the s tandard policy.
D. All the above.
ANSWER: D
.
135. Under its maturity factoring facility ECGC offers which of the following services?
A. Credit protection and sales ledger maintenance.
B. Credit protection, sales ledger maintenance and collection.
C. Financing exports.
D. Invoice discountin g and sales ledger maintenance.
ANSWER: B
136. The maturity factoring of ECGC protects the exporter against.
A. failure of the buyer to obtain authority as per the regulations o f his country.
B. risk normally covered by General Insurers.
C. failure of the buyer to pay.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: C
137. Cover under the guarantee of ECGC is available to.
A. the bank against the default of the importer.
B. the bank against the default of the exporter.
C. the exporter against the failure of the export er.
D. the bank and the exporter against the failure of the buyer.
ANSWER: B
138. Pre-shipment advances granted in excess of the FOB value of contract in anticipation of duty
drawback can be covered under.
A. Packing Credit Guarantee.
B. Whole Turnover Packing C redit Guarantee.
C. Export Production Finance Guarantee.
D. Export Finance Guarantee.
ANSWER: C
139. . Export Finance(Overseas Lending) Guarantee of ECGC protects.
A. banks providing foreign currency loans to their correspondents.
B. banks providing foreign currency loans to contractors executing projects abroad.
C. overseas branches financing Indian exports.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: B
140. Post-shipment advances against export incentives can be covered under.
A. Post-shipment Export Credit Guarantee.
B. Whole Turnover Post-shipment Credit G uarantee.
C. Export Production Finance Guarantee.
D. Export Finance Guarantee.
ANSWER: D
141. The rate of premium payable to ECGC for eligible advances covered under Whole Turnover Packing
Credit Guarantee is.
A. 6 paise per Rs 100 p.a. on daily average products.
B. 6 paise per Rs 100 p.m. on monthly average produ cts.
C. 6 paise per Rs 100 p.m. on yearly average products.
D. 6% per annum.
ANSWER: A
142. The risk to a bank in confirming a letter of credit is covered by ECGC under
A. Export Performance Guarantee.
B. Transfer Guarantee.
C. Export Finance Gua rantee.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: B

143. Under Exchange Fluctuation Risk Cover, the ECGC provides cover.
A. to the exporters on deferred payment terms against exchange fluctua tions.
B. to banks for advances made in foreign currency to importers abroad.
C. to banks against advances for deferred payments exports.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: A
144. . In case of exports to countries placed by ECGC in its restricted cover categories.
A. the risk will be covered by ECGC only if specific applications from exporters are approved by them.
B. The corporation will not cover the exports.
C. the risk will be covered on intimation to EC XGC.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: A
145. The Board of Trade is.
A. a wing of the board of Directors in companies engaged in foreign trade.
B. the authority that appraises foreign investment in India.
C. a consultative and advisory body for the Government if India on foreign trade policy.
D. an organization of exporters from India.
ANSWER: C
146. Commodity Boards do not differ from Exports Promotion Councils in respect of the following.
A. Commodity Boards deal with problems relating to production also.
B. . Commodity Board is a statutory body.
C. Commodity Board covers a specific pro duct.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: C
147. Which of the following organization does not specialize in training activity?
A. Indian Institute of Foreign Trade.
B. Indian Trade Promotion Organisa tion
C. Indian Institute of Packaging.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: B
148. The institution specializing in organizing fairs and exhibitions is.
A. Indian Institute of Foreign Trade.
B. Federation of Indian Export Orga nisations.
C. Indian Trade Promotion Oraganisations.
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: C
149. Market Access Initiative is not available for.
A. conducting market studies.
B. participation in internationa l trade fairs.
C. testing charges for engineering products .
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: D
150. Market Development Assistance is available to.
A. exporters with annual turnover up to Rs 10 cror es.
B. exporters with annual turnover up to Rs 5 crores.
C. exporters with annual turnover above Rs 10 crore s.
D. all exporters.
ANSWER: A
.

Caiib BFM recollected June 2018

CAIIB BFM Recollected questions

June 2018



1.Most of the questions from foreign exchange    numericals

2. case study on DGAP, Leverage ratio

3. case study on LC

4. Risk weight on Housing loan

5.Diffence between basis risk, gap risk, and yield curve risk

6. Letter of credit related

7.Capital charge for PR questions

8.Problems on NII

9.YIELD On T BILL

10 .Tier 1 CRAR

11.Call risk

12.NRE ,NRO, FCNR account related

13 Beta factor and basic indicator approach

14.The main object of the LRM loan review mechanism

15.The notional transit period permitted ..

16. One case study on asset liability management

17. Exchange fluctuation risk of ecgc

18. Rupee account... nostro,vostro,loro,mirror are in option

19. case study on TT buying, selling

20. RAROC,Who decide maximum limit of risk

21.Corporate debt instrument characteristics

22.Basel 3 bank apply – for computing capital requirement from existing risk..

23.residual risk also known as..

24.Elements of common equity Tier 1 cap

25.In repo transaction in G-sec , the settlement carried in  first leg is ------------ basis

26. BASEL 3 going concern capital is

27.Liqidity risk is a type of time risk??

28.GOI not issue T bill with ------------maturity days

29.Notice money market period is…

30Duration is the elasticity of the bond

31.In CP Buy bank offer may not be made before ----days

32.Features of hedging , Int, Arbitrage ,trading , Investment

33.Nostro Accounts are – accounts

34.Emp option risk about pre closure

35. Feature of CCB  BASEL 3

36.FX clear is a forex dealing sym developed by

37.Features of CRR

38.Calculation of LCR under level1  Asset

39.Cross rate

40.Charactristics of foreign exchange market

41.Temporary Asset--- revaltion not present

42.Calculation of capital for General market risk

43.In stock of HQLA for the purpose of cap liquidity coverage ratio…

44. BCBS introduced new approach called..

45.Instrument having lower demand and trading…

46 In india short position allowd..

47.Features of LCR

48.Rapid Growth period bank can make…

49. RAROC,Who decide maximum limit of risk

50. case study on TT buying

51. what does CRR impact

52. no.of key  priniciples in Supervising review process

53. Features of CCB in BASEL 3

54..5 marks case study from CALL and PUT option

55.Rupee account Vostro or Mirror?

56. Calculate price for a 270day CP having face value 100/- when yield is 7.57%?

a. 94.6970,a. 94.6770, c. 94.6570, d. 94.6370

57. Calculate yield on a 182 day T bill issued at 97.30/-?

a. 7.57,b. 7.75, c. 5.57, d. 5.75%

58.no.of key priniciples in Supervising review process

59. Features of CCB in BASEL 3

60. 1.yield in tBill

61.rwa

62. Case study o. Nii and nim

63. Case study on rwa and capital charge

64.case study on leverage ratio

65. Case study on lc , advising bank confirming bank etc

66 case study on foreign exchange

67. yield to maturity 02 questions asked

68.call money Nd term money

69. Approach basic indicator approach , advance approach

70. M duration

71. piller 3 ,spr

72. 5 marks case study from CALL and PUT option

73. NII - 5marks

74.CRAR - 5marks

75.FEDAI - 5marks

76.Exchnge rates- 5marks

(USD to INR)

77.Exchange rates - 5marks

(USD - Jap yen - GBpound)

78. Lc - 5 marks

79 DGAP nd Levarage ratio - 5marks

80.5 questions on USD JPY against foreign person returning to India 





Friday, 7 June 2019

Caiib bfm

CAIIB-BFM (TOPIC: INTERNATIONAL COMMUNICATIONS PAYMENT SYSTEMS)



SWIFT (Society for World wide Inter-Bank Financial Telecommunications): SWIFT an acronym is a Joint, being exchanged physically. All Foreign Currency 3rd country Commercial Payments are settled electronically.

FEDWIRE (USA): System of Inter-Bank settlement operated by Federal Reserve Bank of USA. The facility is available to member Banks throughtout USA. The facility is available for paper instruments like Cheques, DD also apart from online transactions. Its therefore available in Online & Offline formats. However its restricted to USD instruments only. Its not a general Inter-Bank System but is restricted to Federal Reserve Bank & Banks having their A/c's with Federal Bank. It's meant for domestic settlements within USA.



CHAPS (UK): Clearing House Automated Payments System (CHAPS) is the British equivalent to CHIPS, handling receipts & payments in London. This system also works on the Net Settlement System. Non-Profit Co-Operative society owned by about 250 Banks. Most of these are European & North American Bank with Headquarter at Brussels. SWIFT is a World wide, computer based secure Net Work System & each Member has access to all the Other Members. It operates on a Secure Network. It is a Large Network of interconnected Banks & Financial Institutes facilitating secure International dealings. It eliminates the need to maintain multiple coding systems with various correspondents & totally removes the Risk of theft of Code Books, errors creeping as a result of not updating of Code Books etc. Messages are delivered in Uniform Perform or Formats. This reduces the chamber of misinterpretation or confusion. Besides being confidential, safe, self authenticated & SWIFT in real sense, the system reduces the cost of the transaction too.

CHIPS (USA): CHIPS stand for Clearing House Inter-Bank Payment System. Its an Electronic Payment System & is jointly owned by New Work house clearing association members. It processes more than a million instruments daily without.



TARGET (EURO): Trans-European Automated Real-time Gross Settlement Express Transfer system is a EURO. Payment System comprising 15 National RTGS Systems working in Europe.

RTGS+ & EBA (EURO): These are other EURO clearing system. RTGS+ is a German Hybrid Clearing System operating as a European Oriented Real-time Gross Settlement & Payment System with over 60 participants. The EBA-EURO-1 with a membership of over 70 Banks in all EU member countries works as a netting system with focus on Cross Border EURO Payments. for Retail Payments, EBA has another system called STEP-1 with over 200 members across EU Zone. STEP-2 is also in use in EU Zone, which facilities Straight Through Processing (STP) to member Banks, using Industry Standards...




Caiib bfm recollected

CAIIB BFM Recollected questions Today's Exam (09.12.2018)



1.Case studies form TT rates , similar question of EPC case study given in book, Basel and stock ratios.

2.5 numericals from TT Rate

3.5 from CRAR

4.5 from STOCK RATIOS

5 from EPC Export packing credit

6.1 direct question from Altzman score abt its definition

7.Numerical case study (5 questions) from yield and RWA

8.Pg no 563 for stock ratios, read definition and ratio formula

9.Pg no 123 for EPC- Pre n post shipment finance

10. Stock Approach and ratios

11.Volatile liabilities, total assets, deposits, loans etc given

12.Read the roles of various institutions like ECGC, EXIM Bank etc..In 1st sitting ECGC formation year was given, we had to identify the institution

13.1 case study on NRI a/c as well. Direct questions based on family tree.

14.1. VaR is used to find which type of risk?

15.. Select correct statement for exports to countries other than ACU

A) No export in INR

B) No export in any freely convertible currency

C) Export only in $ and euro

D) export from a 3rd party can be there

16.Like A is an Indian who now settled in UK and married B who is from Kenya but now a British citizen. They have 2 children (C &D) born in London. C is now married to a Pakistani citizen and settled in Karachi. D is working in London.



1. Status of D

A) NRI

B) Foreign National

C) Person of Indian origin

D) Person of Kenya origin



2. A can open which type of a/c?



3. Nominee A can make for her a/c out of her family)?

A) all

B) B

C) B&D

D) anyone



4. Can A add her dead Indian sister as nominee in FCNR a/c?



5. Can C open any account in India



17.case study on LC

18.Roles of various institutions like ECGC,EXIN bank



19. 2 to 3 corresponding bank questions



20.Questions on Treasury bills, NRI,RAROC



21.Question like How many days is NTP? How many days EPC canbe extended? ND all that



22.Total theoretical paper..

Numerical from NII, NIM, GAP, choose option in which to invest given risk weight and yield



23.5questions related to NRE



24.Max questions came from Market risk

25.Estimated level of operational risk,

Ratio in respect of liquidity risk management case study and one liner,

LCR,

T bills periods,

Policies for ALM,

identify risk,

CM period,

Case study on exchange rate,

Ripple effect which risk,

Going concern capital,

Vostro a/ c example,

NRE/NRO/FCNR,

SNRR,

LC case study for 5days, insurance risk cover, partial shipment,

DDA a/c,

Advance against undrwan balances,

Role of EXIM BANK,

SRP principles,

Tier I capital with CCB as on 31 mar 2018,

Stress testing,

Altman Zscore,

Securitization,

Heading meaning,

Operations risk cause based,

Operations risk measurement approach,

100%unpaired tier 1or usd10mn,

Interest rate swap,

RBI policy ratios,

Case study on call/put,

Case study on NII/NIM,

Crop loan NPA status,

Long term crop loan period,

Embedded option risk

Thursday, 6 June 2019

Export credit

Export credit useful for CAIIB and certified credit professionals

Export Credit

Export credit is allowed in two stages namely pre shipment or packing credit and post

shipment. Salient

features of packing credit are as under:

1. For packing credit eligibility conditions are (a) Exporter should have Import Export

Code Number

(b)Exporter should not be on the caution list of RBI

(c) Exporter should not be on the specific approval list of ECGC

(d) He should have confirmed order of LC. However, if running packing credit facility has

been allowed confirmed order can be submitted later on.

2. Amount of PCL: on the basis of FOB value

3. Period of PCL: As per need of exporter. If pre-shipment advances are not adjusted by

submission of export documents within 360 days fromthe date of advance, the

advances will cease to qualify for prescribed rate of interest for export credit to the

exporter ab initio.

Adjustment of PCL: Normally through proceeds of export bills or export incentives or

debit to EEFC account.

Post shipment credit

1. As per Exchange Control Regulations, bills should be submitted for negotiation within

21 days of shipment.

2. Export proceeds should in general be realized within 12months fromdate of shipment.

(Earlier it was 6 months and for status holder exporters, 100%EOU, units in EHTP/STP,

the period was 12months fromthe date of shipment). In case of export for warehousing

the period of realization is 15months. In case of exports by units in Special Economic

Zone there is nomaximumperiod prescribed by RBI.

3. Authorised Dealer can grant extension up to 6months if invoice amount is up to USD

1 million.

4. If any export is not realized within 180 days of date of shipment, in all cases, a report

should be sent to RBI on XOS statement which is a half yearly statement submitted as

at the end of June & Dec of each year. This is to be submitted by 15th of July / January.

5. Normal Transit Period is the period between negotiation of bills and credit to Nostra

account. It is fixed by FEDAI and presently it is 25 days irrespective of the country.

Interest Rate on Export Credit

1. Export credit in rupees: Interest rates applicable for all tenors of rupee export credit

advances sanctioned on or after July 01, 2010 will be at or above Base Rate. Interest

Rates under the BPLR system effective upto June 30, 2010 will be 'not exceeding BPLR

minus 2.5 percentage points per annum' for the following categories of Export Credit:

 Pre-shipment Credit (fromthe date of advance) : (a) Up to 270 days (b)Against

incentives receivable from Government covered by ECGC Guarantee up to 90 days. If

pre-shipment advances are not liquidated from proceeds of bills on purchase, discount,

etc. on submission of export documents within 360 days from the date of advance, the

advances will cease to qualify for prescribed rate of interest for export credit ab initio.

 Post-shipment Credit (from the date of advance):

(a) On demand bills for transit period (as specified by FEDAI);

(b) Usance bills (for total period comprising usance period of export bills, transit period

as specified by FEDAI, and grace period, wherever applicable): i) Up to 180 days; ii) Up

to 365 days for exporters under the Gold Card Scheme.

(c) Against incentives receivable from Govt. (covered by ECGC Guarantee) up to 90

days

(d) Against undrawn balances (up to 90 days);

(e) Against retention money (for supplies portion only) payable within one year from the

date of shipment (up to 90 days)

(f) In respect of overdue export bills also interest rate should be charged at not

more than BPLR minus 2.5%up to 180 days from date of advance.

2. Export Credit in Foreign Currency:

 Pre-shipment Credit in foreign currency (from the date of advance):

(i) up to 180 days not more than LIBOR/ EURO LIBOR/ EURIBOR plus 200 basis

points.

(ii) Beyond 180 days and up to 360 days: Rate for initial period of 180 days

prevailing at the time of extension plus 200 basis points.

(iii) Beyond 360 days as per bank discretion

 Post shipment in foreign currency:

(a) On. demand bills for transit period: Not exceeding 200 basis points over

LIBOR/EURO LIBOR/EURIBOR.

(b) Against usance bills for total period comprising usance period of export bills, transit

period and grace period up to 6 months from the date of shipment: Not exceeding 200

basis points over LIBOR/EURO LIBOR/EURIBOR

(c) Export Bills (Demand or Usance) realized after due date but up to

date of crystallization: 200 basis points over the rate charged up to due date.

Interest Subvention on export credit in rupees:

TheGovernmentof India has decided to extend Interest Subvention of 2% from

April1,2010 upto March31,2011 on pre and post shipment rupeeexport credit, for

certain employment oriented export sectors as under: (i)Handloom (ii)Handicrafts

(iii)Carpets (iv)Small & Medium Enterprises, (v)Leather and Leather Manufactures (vi)

Jute Manufacturing including Floor covering (vii)EngineeringGoods (viii)Textiles.

The items marked bold added vide circulardated 9thAug 10.However, the total

subvention

Will be subject to the condition that the interest rate, after subvention will not fall

below7%which is the rate applicable to the agriculture sector under priority sector

lending. The interest subvention will be available even in cases where Base Rate

system has been introduced and banks can grant export credit below Base Rate after

considering subvention provided it is not less than 7%p.a.

Export Refinance

1. Who will provide? Export Refinance is provided by RBI.

2. Maximum period of refinance is 180 days.

3. Extent of Refinance: 15%(w.e.f. 27.10.2009) of eligible export finance outstanding on

the reporting Friday of the preceding fortnight. Outstanding Export Credit for the

purpose of working out refinance limits

will be aggregate outstanding export credit

minus export bills rediscounted with other banks/Exim Bank/Financial Institutions,

export credit against which refinance has been obtained from NABARD/Exim Bank, pre-

shipment credit in foreign currency (PCFC), export bills discounted/rediscounted under

the scheme of 'Rediscounting of Export Bills Abroad', overdue rupee export credit and

other export credit not eligible for refinance.

4. Interest rate is Repo Rate. 5. Packing Credit in Foreign Currency is not eligible for

export refinance.

Export Declaration Forms for goods and services

Every exporter of goods or software in physical form or through any other form, either

directly or indirectly, to any place outside India, other than Nepal and Bhutan, shall

furnish to the specified authority, a declaration in one of the forms set out below

containing the full export value of the goods or software.

a) FormGR: To be completed in duplicate for export otherwise than by Post including

export of software in physical form i.e.magnetic tapes/discs and papermedia.

b) Form SDF: To be completed in duplicate and appended to the shipping bill, for

exports declared to Customs Offices notified by the Central Government which have

introduced Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) system for processing shipping bills

notified by the Central Government.

c) Form PP: To be completed in duplicate for export by Post.

d) Form SOFTEX: To be completed in triplicate for declaration of export of software

otherwise than in physical form, i.e. magnetic tapes/discs, and paper media. Declaration

forms are submitted in two copies except Softex forms which are submitted in three

copies. As per

current guidelines no declaration ismandatory for exports with value up to $ 25,000 or

its equivalent. Duplicate copy of the declaration form which is submitted to the AD is-

now required to be retained by the AD for the purpose of audit and not to be forwarded

to RBI.

Gold Card Scheme for Exporters

1. Exporters with good track record eligible for the Card. Their account should have

been Standard for 3 years continuously with no irregularity.

2. Gold Card Scheme is not applicable to those exporters who are blacklisted by ECGC

or included in RBI's defaulter's list/ caution list ormaking losses for the past three years

or having overdue export bills in excess of 10 per cent of the 'previous year's turnover'.

However, RBI has advised (Oct 09) that in view of difficulties faced by exporters on

account of weakening of external demand and in realizing the dues within the stipulated

time, the requirement of

overdue export bills not exceeding 10%of the previous year's export turnover, has been

dispensed with for one year i.e. from April 1, 2009 toMarch 31, 2010.

3. Limits to Card holder exporters to be sanctioned for 3 years with provision for

automatic renewal subject to fulfilment of terms and conditions. For disposal of fresh

applications the period is 25 days, 15 days for renewal of limits and 7 days for sanction

of ad-hoc limits.

4. A stand by limit of not less than 20% of the limits sanctioned should be ma

de

available for executing sudden orders.

5. Gold Card holder exporters will be given preference in,the matter of sanction of

PCFC.

6. Gold Card holders are entitled for concessional interest on post shipment credit up to

365 days.

Trade and Exchange Control Regulations for Imports

1. Importer can import goods either on the basis of OGL or on the strength of specific

import licence issued by DGFT.While issuing letter of credit or retiring import bills, the

AD is required tomake relative endorsement in the exchange control copy of import

licence.When fully utilized, it is to be retained by the AD for verification by the

auditor/inspector.

2. Payment for imports should bemade within 6months from date of shipment.

3. Advance payment against imports is allowed up to any amount. However, where the

amount of advance, remittance for services exceedsUS $ 500,000 or its equivalent, or

for goods exceeds USD50,00,000, the same can be allowed against guarantee of an

international bank of repute or guarantee of a bank in India against counter guarantee of

an international bank.However, in respect of Public Sector Company or aDepartment/

Undertaking of theGovernment of India/ StateGovernments, approval fromtheMinistry of

Finance,Government of India is required for advance remittance for import of goods or

services without bank guarantee for an amount exceeding USD100,000.

4. Bill of Entry is documentary evidence of physical arrival of goods into India. For

advance remittance exceeding US $ 1,00,000, it should be submitted within 6 months of

remittance. In case importer does not furnish the same within 3 months from the date of

remittance, the Authorised Dealer should rigorously follow-up for the next 3months. AD

is required to submit to RBI, statement on form BEF on half- yearly basis (within 15

days from the close of the half-year) as at the end of June & December of every year, in

respect of importers who have defaulted in submission of Bill of entry within 6 months

from the date of remittance.

5. Delinking or Crystallisation of Export and Import bills: Crystallisationmeans converting

a foreign currency liability to rupee liability. In the case of overdue export bills it will be

done as per bank discretion and exchange rate will be TT selling rate. In the case of

import bills conversion will be at Bills selling rate. In demand bills it will be on 10th day

and in case of usance bills it will be done on due date.

6. Banks are permitted to make remittances for imports, where the import bills I

documents have been received directly by the importer from the overseas supplier and

the value of import bill does not exceed USD 300,000.

7. Banks are allowed to issue guarantees in favour of a non-resident service provider,

on behalf of a resident customer who is a service importer, for an amount up to USD

500,000 or its equivalent. In the case of a Public Sector Company or a Department/

Undertaking of theGovernment of India/ StateGovernments, approval from the Ministry

of Finance, Government of India for issue of guarantee for an amount exceeding USD

100,000 or its equivalent would be required.

8. For release of forex for imports, application should be made on Form Al if the amount

of

remittance exceeds USD 500. For release of forex for purpose other than import,

application should be made on Form A2 if the amount of remittance is more than USD

5000.

Risk in Foreign Exchange

1. Risk in foreign exchange arises when a bank has open position in forex i.e either it is

overbought or oversold. A bank is said to be overbought when purchase is more than

sale and it is oversold when sale is more than purchase.

2. When a bank is overbought and it wants to square its position it will gain if rate of

forex goes up and will lose if rate of forex goes down.

3. When a bank is oversold and it wants to square its position, it will gain if rate of forex

goes down and will lose if rate of forex goes up.

4. The Daylight open position will be generallymore than the overnight open position.

Important points on Diamond Dollar Account (DDA)

a. Exporters-importers dealing in rough and polished diamonds or diamond-studded

jewellery can open up to 5 DDAs

b. Exporter should have a track record, of at least, three years and average export

turnover of Rs 3.00 crores, can open Diamond dollar account with an AD, for

transacting business in foreign exchange.

Who can open (Exchange Earners Foreign Currency Account) EEFC accounts

with an authorised dealer in India ?

a. Any person resident in India, who is an earner of foreign currency

b. Including Special Economic Zones, Software Technology Parks, Export

Processing Zones and status account holders

How much of the foreign exchange can be credited to EEFC account?

a. Can currently credit up to 100% of the inward payments received in foreign

currency to this account.

EEFC accounts are:

a. In the nature of current account, and are non-interest bearing.

b. Balances in EEFC accounts can be used for any current account transactions,

including repayment of packing credit advances, whether availed in Rupee or

foreign currency.

The finance to exporters, both Pre-Shipment and Post –shipment, by Banks in

India is:

a. to make exporters compete with their competitors from other countries, as also to

boost the exports from the country and can be in Indian Rupees

b. to make exporters compete with their competitors from other countries, as also to

boost the exports from the country and can be in foreign currency

Finance allowed to an exporter, to fund the expenses needed for procurement of raw

material, manufacturing, packing, local transportation, labour charge and all expenses

upto the stage of packing and shipment, is called Pre-Shipment Finance/Loan or

Packing Credit Loan (PCL)

Finance against export bills, when the shipment is already made, is called Post-

shipment Credit or Post-Shipment Export finance (PSEF)

Pre-shipment finance can be of two types: Packing Credit (PCL) and Advance against

Govt, receivables, i.e. Duty Drawback, etc.

Post-shipment finance can be of various types, as under:

a. Export bills purchased/discounted/negotiated (FBP/FUBD/FBN)

b. Advance against bills sent on collection, exports on consignment basis, undrawn

balances or duty Drawback

Before sanctioning Packing Credit Loan to a customer, following precautions need to be

taken, besides normal KYC norms:

a. He should have Export/Import Code number (IEC) and his name should not

appear under the caution list of RBI.

b. He should not be under the Specific Approval list of ECGC.

c. He has the capacity to execute the order within stipulated time and has a

genuine and valid export order or Letter of Credit for export of goods.

 Before sanctioning Packing Credit Loan to a customer, following precautions need to

be taken, besides normal KYC norms:

a. No PCL has been availed by him against the same order/LC from any other

bank.

b. Bank should call for Credit Report/Status reports on the foreign buyers, their Bank

and their country .

c. The exporter should submit an undertaking to submit stock statements for the goods

on which PCL has been allowed.

While sanctioning Packing Credit Loan to a customer, following precautions need to be

taken, besides normal KYC norms:

a. The total period sanctioned should be as per the manufacturing cycle or the

process cycle of the goods being manufactured.

b. Normally the total period of PCL should not exceed 180 days.

The following is correct with regards to rate of interest on preshipment finance:

a. Normally the total period of PCL should not exceed 180 days. Banks can grant

extensions beyond 180 days up to 360 days, based on their assessment and

need of the customer. Any extension beyond 360 days, would cease to qualify for

concessional rate of interest to the exporter, ab initio.

Following is correct with regards to calculation of Pre-shipment Finance:

a. If the contract or the LC is on CIF basis, the FOB value will be arrived at by

deducting 13% to 14% (representing freight and insurance) from the CIF value, if

the dispatch is through sea and around 25% if the dispatch is by air.

b. After arriving at the FOB value, the usual margin, i.e., profit margin stipulated in

the terms of sanctions to be deducted

Following is correct with regards to calculation of Pre-shipment Finance:

a. Quantum of finance will be fixed on the FOB value of the contract/ LC or the

domestic value of the goods whichever is less after deducting the profit margin

b. Advance for the freight and insurance charges are not to be disbursed at the

initial stage itself

Following is correct with regards to calculation of Pre-shipment Finance:

a. Banks may adopt a flexible attitude with regard to debt-equity ratio, margin and

security Norms

b. There could be no compromise in respect to viability of the proposal and the

integrity of the borrower

Following precautions are to be taken by the bank after sanctioning the pre-shipment

finance:

a. Bank should inform ECGC the details of limit sanctioned in the prescribed format

within 30 days from the date of sanction. (Wherever advances are covered under

Whole Turnover Policies of ECGC.)

b. The advance should be liquidated on submission of relative export bills, by way

of allowing post shipment finance against those bills or with any other export

proceeds against which no packing credit has been availed by the exporter .

c. The end use of the funds disbursed should be tracked by the banks

In case after allowing PCL, exports do not take place: the advance is treated as local

advance, and interest at domestic penal rates is to be charged, ab initio.

Can Packing Credit be sanctioned to sub-suppliers?

a. Packing credits can be allowed to sub-suppliers also at the first level(supplier to

Export order holder) under the Rupee credit scheme.

b. Packing credit can be granted on the basis of the inland LC opened by a bank at

the request of the Export Order holder

Banks have been authorized to grant pre-shipment advances on RUNNING ACCOUNT

basis, provided:

a. there need for 'Running Account' facility and exporters’ track record is good

b. letters of credit/firm orders should be produced within a reasonable period of

time (generally one month)

In case of PCL allowed for purchase of seeds, for export of de-oiled cake, the proceeds

from local sale of oil can be used to liquidate PCL, within a period of 30 days from the

date of advance.

What is true regarding post-shipment finance? Post-shipment finance is an advance

against export documents. It involves handling of export documents, sending it to the

foreign bank/buyer and collecting proceeds thereof

In case of rupee finance, the bill is to be purchased/discounted/negotiated at

appropriate bill

______ rate of the bank, keeping in view the tenor or notional due date of the bill.

Buying

The rate of interest should be within the broad guidelines fixed by RBI and: FEDAI

Which of the following is true? Sight Documents are purchased, Usance documents are

discounted and documents under LC are negotiated

To cover the risks for the documents which are not sent under LC, banks should advise

the customers :

a. for coverage of credit risks through the guarantees/ policies for post-shipment

advances, offered by ECGC

a. exporter should be advised to go for a separate buyer-wise policy to get wider

coverage will be available to the exporter in case of any default

b. to make vigorous follow-up for due dates, and payments for bills

Banks generally cover their post shipment advance under _____policy of ECGC:

a. Whole Turnover Post-Shipment Guarantee Scheme

"Deemed Exports" refers to those transactions in which the goods supplied do not

leave the country and the payment for such supplies is received either in Indian rupees

or in free foreign exchange.

The following categories of supply of goods by the main/ sub-contractors shall be

regarded as "Deemed Exports" under this Policy, provided the goods are manufactured

in India:

(a) Supply of goods against Advance Licence/Advance Licence for annual

requirement/DFRC under the Duty Exemption /Remission Scheme;

(b) Supply of goods to Export Oriented Units (EOUs) or Software Technology Parks

(STPs) or Electronic Hardware Technology Parks (EHTPs) or Bio Technology

Parks (BTP);

(c) Supply of capital goods to holders of licences under the Export Promotion

Capital Goods (EPCG) scheme;

(d) Supply of goods to projects financed by multilateral or bilateral agencies/funds

as notified by the Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance under

International Competitive Bidding in accordance with the procedures of those

agencies/ funds, where the legal agreements provide for tender evaluation

without including the customs duty;

(e) Supply of capital goods, including in unassembled/ disassembled condition as

well as plants, machinery, accessories, tools, dies and such goods which are

used for installation purposes till the stage of commercial production and spares

to the extent of 10% of the FOR value to fertiliser plants.

(f) Supply of goods to any project or purpose in respect of which the Ministry of

Finance, by a notification, permits the import of such goods at zero customs duty

.

(g) Supply of goods to the power projects and refineries not covered in (f) above.

(h) Supply of marine freight containers by 100% EOU (Domestic freight containers–

manufacturers) provided the said containers are exported out of India within 6

months or such further period as permitted by the Customs; and

(i) Supply to projects funded by UN agencies.

(j) Supply of goods to nuclear power projects through competitive bidding as

opposed to International Competitive Bidding.