Saturday, 26 October 2019

Very Very useful general banking MCQs

Very Very useful general banking MCQs

1. ______is a money market instrument, which enables collateralized short term borrowing through Govt. securities: Repo
Rate.
2. While issuing DD of Rs.50,000/- and above what should not be accepted: By cash
3. Call option stands for: Right to Buy but without obligation to buy.
4. ˜Call Money market refers to the market for short term funds ranging from _____: Overnight funds
5. ˜In Ultra Small Branches, a designated offi cer will visit the connected to Bank’s central server (CBS): Bank discretion.
6. ˜Maximum deposit in PPF in a FY: Rs.1,50,000
7. CRR decided by: RBI
8. ˜Public Debt Office (PDO) is an ______: Autonomous body and Investment Banker to Central Govt.
9.Clean Audit Report means : An audit report without any qualifications
10. ˜What is full form of USB: Ultra Small Branch.
11. cross selling: Offering banks products to existing customers
12. What is callable security: which can be called at any predetermined date.
13. Under Atal Pension Yojana (APY), the Central Govt will contribute 50% of total contribution or Rs 1000 whichever is lower, to
eligible subscribers account, for a period of: 5 years.
14.A bank cannot grant loan against security of which type of shares - other bank’s shares, own shares: own shares.
15.A cheque will be valid for: 3 months from date of issue
16.A DD is required to be crossed with account payee crossing if the amount of DD is: Rs 20000 and above
17.A Financial that derives its value from another financial product is called: Derivative.
18.A granted power of attorney to B for operating account of A. You receive information about death of A and simultaneously a
cheque signed by B on account of A is presented for payment. What should the Bank do?: Cheque will not be paid.
19.A minor will attain majority at the age of: 18 years
20.A private limited company must have minimum ___directors?: 2
21.After 6 months of successful transaction, which facility will be provided for accounts opened under PMJDY scheme?: Overdraft
22.Age limit in PrimeMinisters Jeeven Jyoti Bima Yojna: 18 —50
23.All scheduled commercial banks to convert their opening balance sheet as at April 1, 2013 in compliance with the IFRS.
24.An officer does not require permission of Branch Manager for: making payment of a pay order which was issued on account of
purchase of furniture by the bank.
25.Appeal against decision of Banking Ombudsman can be made to: Deputy Governor RBI.
26.Application for information under RTI Act 2005 should be disposed off within: 30 days
27. As per Atal Pension Yojana (APY), the minimum age of joining the scheme is 18 years and maximum age is and the age of
exit and start of pension would be 60 years: 40 years
28.As per Atal Pension Yojana (APY), the minimum period of contribution by the subscriber
29.As per KYC guidelines, Demand draft of how much amount cannot be issued against cash?: Rs 50,000 and above
30.As per latest change, what is the maximum PPF contribution that can be paid in a F.Y?: Rs 150,000
31.As per Official Language Policy, in Region "C", how much percentage of the Sign Boards should be in Hindi?: No specific target.
32.As per Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) Scheme, all saving bank account holders are entitled to join the scheme in
the age between: 18 to 70 years.
33.As per RBI guidelines, Base rate is to be reviewed by bank on _______: Quarterly basis.
34.As per RBI Guidelines, the charges for closure of bank account before stipulated period should not exceed: not applicable as
banks are free to fix account closure charges
35.As per RTI Act, information is required to be given by public authority within how many days?: 30days
36.As per RTI Act, information related to life and liberty should be submitted within: 48 hrs.
37.As per section 107 and 108 of Indian Evidence Act, a person can be presumed to have died if he is missing for : 7 years
38.As per Supreme Court who cannot be a partner? HUF.
39.At present, who is the Governor of RBI?: Dr Raghuram Rajan
40.Atal Pension Yojana (APY) offers fixed amount of pension ranging between depending upon the contribution which will be based
on the age of joining the APY: Rs 1000 to Rs 5000
41.Balance lying in the account of a company. When winding up proceedings of the company started funds in the account will be at
disposal of: Official Liquidator
42.Bank Customer relation in safe custody: Bailee- Bailor.
43.Banker customer relationship in standing instruction: Agent and Principal
44.Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI) is a – (a) subsidiary of RBI (b) Department of Ministry of Finance (c)
Department of Indian Banks Association: None of these as it is an independent and autonomous watch dog to monitor and ensure
that the Banking Codes and Standards adopted by the banks are adhered to.
45.Banks are required to maintain Minimum and maximum CRAR of: Min 9% in India. There is no maximum.
46.Banks should disclose the details of fees/remuneration received in respect of the Bancassurance business undertaken by them, in
the ‘Notes to Accounts’.
47.BCSBI is affiliated or regulated by? An independent body
48.Best indicator of country's growth?: GDP
49.Bharathi Airtel tie up with which bank regarding payment bank?: Kotak Mahindra Bank.
50.Break even point: Level of sales at which there is no profit no loss
51.Broad money is represented by: M3.
52.Business correspondent appointed by bank work as- (a) Bank dealers; (b) Agent of the Bank (c) Customer's agent; (d) RBI agents
(e) RRB Agents (f) Trustees of customer: Agents of the bank.
53.Business correspondent in bank are for banking business: Bank is the Principal and correspondent is the Agent.
54.Call money is available for: one day
55.Call option stands for: Right to Buy but without obligation to buy.
56.CAMEL rating is done by: RBI to judge the health of banks
57.Capital account convertibility means the freedom to convert to financial assets in to foreign financial assets and vice versa.
58.Capital adequacy ratio related to? : CRAR- capital fund.
59.Carbon credits relates to: environment
60.CARE STANDS FOR : CREDIT ANALYSIS & RESEARCH LTD
61.Certificate of incorporation issued by: Registrar of Companies
62.Chairman of SEBI: U K Sinha.
63.Clayton’s Rule is related to which of the following rights?: Right of Appropriation
64.Clean Audit Report means : An audit report without any qualifications
65.Contact less Debit Card has been issued by: ICICI Bank.
66.Contract of Insurance is a contract of: Indemnity.
67.Contract to perform the promise or discharge the liability of a third person in case of his default can be termed as - (a)Guarantee;
(b) Indemnity; (c) Contingency; (d) Subrogation: Guarantee.
68.Cost push inflation is due to: High cost of production
69.Counter Cyclic Buffer required as per Basel III will be made at: normal times
70.CP is issued for amount of: Rs.5.00 lac and multiples of Rs 5 lac.
71.CPPC STANDS FOR : CENTRAL PENSION PROCESSING CELL
72.Cross selling: Offering banks products to existing customers
73.CRR decided by: RBI
74.CRR is based on which act: Sec 42(1) of RBI Act
75.CRR is calculated on: net demand & time liability.
76.Current account operated by finance director of a limited compnay. Cheque signed by him presented for payment after his death:
Cheque should be paid
77.Customer day is observed by banks at what periodicity?: once in a month (15th day of every month)
78.DEATH CLAIM SETTLEMENT IN HOW MANY DAYS? : 15 DAYS
79.Delayed collection beyond abnormal period: SB Rate + 2%.
80.Distribution of Insurance products as Corporate Agents is called: Bancassurance
81.DRP: Disaster Recovery Plan
82.DSB Returns relate to: Off Site Surveillance
83.Duplicate DD to be issued in how many days?: 14 days from the date of request
84.Elasticity of Demand is least in the case of: Items of necessity.
85.Existing total No. of RRBs as on 31-03-2012: 82
86.Expand IFRS -International Financial Reporting System
87.Expand the abbreviations GAAS: Generally Accepted Auditing Standards
88.Facility for Exchange of Notes and Coins: The facility of exchange of cut/mutilated banknotes, in addition to soiled notes and issue
of good quality clean banknotes/coins, should be made available at all bank branches (including those of co-operative banks and
RRBs). This facility should be provided to all members of public without discrimination on all working days
89. FIR is required to be filed in case where the counterfeit notes found are acknowledgement is to be obtained from the concerned
police authorities: Five pieces and above.
90.First Unique Identification Card (Aadhar card) was issued in which state – Maharashtra; Sikkim; Manipur; Karnataka?:

Maharashtra ( To Ranjana Sonawne of Tembhli village in Maharashtra)
91.For counterfeit notes a consolidated report as per prescribed format to be submitted to police authorities if in a single Txn note
is: five pieces or more in one transaction and if four pieces then consolidated report through nodal office to local police station.
92.For creation of Equitable mortgage, the town for deposit of title deeds to be notified by – (a)State Govt; (b) RBI; (c) Central Govt;
(d) Bank: State Govt
93.For injection of liquidity Txn done by RBI: Repo Rate.
94.For seeking information under RTI what is not required?: Reason for seeking information not to be disclosed.
95.For Ultra Small Branches a designated officer will visit the village on a prefixed date and time every ______with laptop and will be
connected to Bank’s central server (CBS): Week
96.Forged currency note: not to be returned & should be impounded
97.Fraudulent Draft presented and paid, who is to lodge complaint: Paying banker
98.FSDC: Financial Stability and Development Council
99.Full form of FDI: Foreign Direct Investment
100. Full form of IRDAI is: Insurance Regulatory & Development Authority of India.
101. Full form of MUDRA: Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Ltd (MUDRA)
102. Full form of NIM: Net Interest Margin
103. Full form of Nrega: National Rural Employment Guarantee
104. Full form of PRAN?: Permanent Retirement Account No
105. Funds received in Consolidated Fund of India are maintained with: RBI (Reserve Bank of India is the main banker of the
Government and other authorised Banks function as its agents while handling Government transactions).
106. General insurance works on which principle: Principle of utmost faith.
107. Gift City: Gandhi Nagar, Gujarat;
108. Govt securities are known as: Gilt edged securities
109. Govt. infused capital in 9 PSBs in the beginning of 2015 amounting to: Rs.6990 crore
110. Green revolution is related to production of : Wheat and Rice
111. Growth of people in a country is reflected in: real per capita income
112. Guidelines on having Investor Protection Funds by Stock exchanges issued by: SEBI.
113. Head Office of Asian Development Bank is located at: Manila (Philippines)
114. Head Office of International Labour Organisation is located at: Geneva
115. Head office of NABARD is located at: Mumbai (S!DBI Head Office at Lucknow)
116. How much exemption from income is allowed as per section 80 C of Income Tax Act for the financial year 2015-16?: Rs
150,000
117. Hyper inflation- when a country experiences very high and usually accelerating inflation. The general price level within a
specific economy increases rapidly as the functional or internal currency, loses its real value very quickly.
118. IBPP STANDS FOR : INTERNET BILL PRESENTATION & PAYMENT
119. ICAAP full form: Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Process.
120. If a Garnishee Order is received by the bank in which amount to be attached is not mentioned, what should the bank do?:
Full amount to be attached
121. If there is delay in reporting to RBI by currency chest or there is double/excess reimbursement, what is the rate of
interest charged by RBI?: Bank rate+2%.
122. in 1969, the 14 Bank Nationalised. At that time the Prime Minister of India: Smt. Indira Gandhi
123. In a partnership formed under Indian Partnership Act 1932, what is the liability of a partner?: Partner is liable jointly and
severally i.e. as partner as well as in his personal capacity. Therefore, liability is unlimited
124. In which type of charge possession is with creditor and ownership is with debtor?: Pledge
125. Income Rs.1.00 lac- Tax Rs.0.10 lac, Income Rs.2.00 lacs: Tax Rs.0.30 lacs, Income Rs.0.50 lac-Tax Rs.0.03 lac-This is
example of Progressive Tax
126. Inflation in India is measured on the basis of : Wholesale Price Index
127. Insurance amt in PMJDY: Rs 1 lac.
128. Insurance sector in India is regulated by: IRDA
129. Internal audit is meant for : internal operational check ups
130. Investment Fluctuation Reserve is calculated on which type of security? Available for Sale category and Held for Trading
category.
131. Investment Fluctuation Reserve is maintained on securities classified as: "Held for Trading" and "Available for Sale '
132. Investment Fluctuation Reserve is part of which type of capital: Tier I Capital.
133. Islamic banking has the features of : Conservative banking
134. CMD of a public sector bank is appointed by: Central Govt.
135. Issue of Rs 5 coins to commemorate the occasion of "150th Birth Anniversary of Swami Vivekananda": The Government of

India has minted the above mentioned coins.
136. Issue of Rs 5 coins to commemorate the occasion of "60th year of India Government
137. Job rotation for clerical staff should be done in every ______: 6 months.
138. Kisan Vikas Patra scheme was discontinued in 2010 due to which reason?: Fraud
139. Kite flying means accommodation receipts and payments and not genuine trade transactions
140. KV Kamat has become first chairman/President of which bank?: New Development Bank (NDB) of BRICS
141. LAFAR is submitted by whom?: Statutory Auditor
142. Letter received in Hindi in Region B, answer to be given in %age: 100%
143. LFAR returns relate to: Statutory audit
144. Life Certificate of pensioners is taken in which month?: November
145. Loan should not be granted to a director of the bank against: shares of own bank ( Loan can be granted against bank’s own
deposits; insurance policy; govt security).
146. Main Objective of Infrastructure Development Corporation is : Development of infrastructure of the country.
147. Marginal standing facility rate: 7.75%
148. Maximum period for filing case with Ombudsman: 12 months from receiving reply from bank
149. May I help you counter on how much staff: 10 and above.
150. Meeting of the Official Language Committee is held: Quarterly
151. MGNREGA: Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
152. MIN SUBSCRIPTION IN PPF CANNOT BE LESS THAN: Rs.500/-
153. Minimum amount of CD – Rs.1. lakh
154. Minimum and Maximum amount that can be deposited in PPF account is _____: Minimum Rs. 500/- & Maximum Rs. 1.50
lacs.
155. Money market mutual funds are regulated by: RBI
156. Mutual fund Market regulated by: SEBI
157. Name of device used by Business Correspondents: Biometric device.
158. Net Interest Income is Equal to: Interest received on assets о /ŶƚĞƌĞƐƚ ƉĂLJŵĞŶƚƐ ŽŶ ůŝĂďŝůŝƟĞƐ
159. New name of Planning Commission: “National Institution for Transforming India” or “NITI”
160. NITI full form: National Institution for Transforming India (Chairman PrimeMinister; Dy Chairman Arvind Panagariya).
161. Nobel Price for Microcredit: Muhammad Yunus
162. Number of directors in a public limited company can be: between 3 to 15. For more than 15, special resolution passed by
shareholders is required
163. Payment of DD more than 20000 only by crediting to account and not in cash as per: RBI guidelines
164. PERIODICITY OF CUSTOMERMEET IN A BRANCH: MONTHLY.
165. Perpetual Non redeemable preference share is a part of: Tier -1 capital
166. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) Scheme offers a life insurance cover of: Rupees 2 lakh
167. Premium in Prime Minister Suraksha Bima Yojana: Rs.12 per year and claim available is Rs.2 lac in case of accidental death
only.
168. Primary Deficit is Fiscal deficit?: Always less
169. Purchaser of DD cannot do the following: Stop the DD
170. Rating of Bank is carried by RBI on CAMELS criteria, what do “C” stands for? Capital Adequacy.
171. RBI at which rate purchases or rediscounts B/E or other Commercial Bks: Bank Rate (7.75%)
172. RBI can issue bank note upto: Rs 10000
173. RBI gives credit to bank on which rate: Repo rate
174. RBI Governor's main concerns in monetary Policy: Inflation and Fiscal Deficit
175. RBI has issued star series notes for replacement of wrongly printed currency notes. Currently, these notes have been
issued in the denomination of : Rs 10, Rs 20, Rs 50, Rs 100.
176. Regulator of Capital market: SEBI
177. Reporting time before 15 minutes from starting of public dealings in: Metro/urban/Semi Urban & Rural area.
178. Revaluation Reserve discounting factor to be taken to which capital: 55% & Tier II Capital.
179. Review of RBI credit and monetary policy: Bi-Monthly
180. RTI: Person seeking information need not give reason as to why he is seeking the information.
181. Sabbatical can be availed maximum: 24 months and two times in your tenure.
182. Safe custody of Articles comes under which act: Indian Contract Act
183. Safe deposit locker – maximum deposit that can be asked is: 3 year advance rent plus locker breaking charges.
184. SAFTA is related to :TRADE
185. Security officer visit for high risk branches: Once in a quarter.
186. Sensex of 30 scrips is related to: Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
187. Shares transferred in electronic form: Dematerialization.
188. Spread in the context of bank profit loss account means: Interest earned - interest expended
189. Statutory Audit of banks is done as per provisions of: Banking Regulation Act
190. Subordinate Debt should not be more than % of tier-I capital? 50%
191. Subordinated debt instruments together with all other instruments of Tier - II capital are to be limited to ___ of Tier I: 100%.
192. Subordinated Debt which is a component of Tier II capital, is shown in the balance sheet as a part of: Other Liabilities and
Provisions on the liability side
193. Subprime crisis means : Problem created by lending to borrowers not meeting the credit rating criteria.
194. The Branch Level Customer Service Committee may meet to study complaints/ suggestions, cases of delay, difficulties
faced / reported by customers / members of the Committee and evolve ways and means of improving customer service: at least
once a month
195. The charge levied by banks for under utilization or non utilization of sanctioned CC/OD limits is called: Commitment charge.
196. The Committee on Listing of Stock Exchanges was headed by Dr Bimal Jalan. The Committee has recommended against
listing of Stock Exchanges.
197. The country of Euro Zone facing crises is: Greece and Cyprus (latest Cyprus)
198. The liability of Introducer in case of fraud by the customer: No legal liability
199. The main source of infrastructure finance are: FDI investment, Pension funds, Insurance funds.
200. The police seeks information regarding conduct of an account being maintained in your branch in connection with some
investigation. Can the bank pass on the information? : Yes, if the information is asked by an official of the rank of incharge of Police
Station or above and in writing.
201. The present Bank Rate is: 7.75%
202. The recent committee on urban coop banks was headed by: R. Gandhi
203. Tier I capital also known as: core capital.
204. Tier II capital can be maximum up to : 100% of Tier -1 capital.
205. Total number of Banking Ombudsman in India: 15
206. Transfer of interest in specific immovable property to create security for a debt is called: Mortgage
207. Treasury bill is issued for: 91 days,182 days,364 days
208. UCBs will start TDS at source if interest on term deposit in a financial year is more than Rs.10,000/- from which date: 1st
June 2015
209. Unclaimed deposits with banks which have not been claimed for last 10 years will be transferred to: Depositor Education
and Awareness Fund.
210. Under new pension scheme- minimum subscription in a year: Rs.6000 in a year ( min 500 at one time and for max there is
no upper limit)
211. Under Pardhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) Scheme, the uniform premium amount of Rs plus service tax
should be applicable per annum per person: Rs 12
212. Under PMJDY Scheme announced by PrimeMinister the debit card will be issued to every account holder. The type of debit
card will be: Rupay Card;
213. Under PMJDY, what is the time limit for lodging a claim in respect of the accident as covered under accident insurance
cover:Within 90 days of accident.
214. Under Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) Scheme, the uniform premium amount of is
applicable per annum per member: Rs 330
215. Under Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Yojana (PMJJBY) scheme, the individual is eligible to join the scheme at the age
between: 18 years to 50 years
216. UNDR NPS MINIMUM SUBSCRIPTION IN A YR : Rs.6000
217. Uniformity in Intersol Charges: Banks should follow a uniform, fair and transparent pricing policy and not discriminate
between their customers at home branch and non-home branches. Accordingly, if a particular service is provided free at home
branch the same should be available free at non home branches also. There should be no discrimination as regards intersol charges
between similar transactions done by customers at home branch and those done at non-home branches. Cash handling charges may
not be included under intersol charges
218. Upon finding the counterfeit currency note on the counter, the action of the bank should be: Impound the currency note
but credit full amount to customer. Receipt not to be issued to depositor.
219. Voting rights to an individual shareholder in Private banks not to exceed: 10 % (being increased to 26%)
220. What are the total number of digits in Aadhar Card: 12
221. What does LAF stands for_____: Liquidity Adjustment Facility.
222. What is a special purpose vehicle? A special purpose vehicle is a legal entity (usually a limited company of some type or,
trust or a limited partnership) created to fulfill narrow, specific or temporary objectives. Its operations are limited to the acquisition
and financing of specific assets.
223. What is Accrual concept: Every income or expense is taken in to account when becomes due irrespective of the fact
whether it is received or paid or not.
224. What is age limit in PMJeeven jyoti Bima yojna?: Eligible all saving accounts holder in the age of 18 to 50 years; Benefits
Rs. 2 lac on death due to any reason; Premium – Rs. 330 per annum per member.
225. What is Certificate of Incorporation?: Certificate issued by Registrar of Companies to a limited company, which is a
conclusive evidence of existence of company as a separate body corporate.
226. What is Debt securitization: Converting illiquid financial assets in to liquid marketable securities.
227. What is factoring?: Purchasing of Book debt
228. What is forfaiting?: Without recourse discounting of export bills
229. What is full form of FDI?: Foreign Direct Investment
230. What is full form of GDP?: Gross Domestic Product
231. What is full form of GST?: Goods and Service Tax
232. What is full form of IFRS?: International Financial Reporting Standards.
233. What is full form of ULIP?: Unit Linked Insurance Plan
234. What is guarantee corpus in MUDRA bank or funds allocated for MUDRA: Rs 20000 crore
235. What is Hybrid debt instrument? a) Debenture b) Bond c) Preference
shares d) Convertible Bonds.
236. What is incorrect about RTI?: Reason for seeking information to be mentioned in RTI application
237. What is meant by 'sensitivity' in economics terms? Sensitivity analysis (SA) is the study of how the variation (uncertainty) in
the output of a statistical model can be attributed to different variations in the inputs of the model. It is a technique for
systematically changing variables in a model to determine the effects of such changes
238. What is Personal Accident insurance cover for death and permanent disability due to accident in PrimeMinister Jan Dhan
Yojana (PMJDY): Rs.1.00 Lac
239. What is rate of Premium in Pradhan Mantry Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)?: Premium payable Rs. 12 per annum per
member; sum insured Death / permanent disability Rs. 2 lacs; Partial disability Rs. 1 lac.
240. What is short selling?: Selling securities by a dealer which he does not possess at the time of sale.
241. What is the age limit for coverage under Prime Minister Suraksha Bima Yojna (PMSBY): 18 years to 70 Years
242. What is the amount of insurance cover in case of PrimeMinister Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojan (PMJJBY): Rs 2 lakh
243. What is the cut off point for reporting of Non Cooperative Borrowers – Rs.5. Crore and above.
244. What is the date for final implementation of Basel III?: 31.03.2019
245. What is the effect of Bonus Issue of Shares on Debt-equity ratio? No effect at all as neither there is a change in term liability
nor in net worth of the company.
246. What is the full form of QIP?: Qualified Institutional Placement.
247. What is the full from of GIFT city?: Gujarat International Financial Tech City.
248. What is the impact of increase in Inflation rate?: Purchasing power decreases
249. What is the initial tax exemption limit for Normal Senior Citizens i.e. aged between 60 years to less than 80 years? Rs 3 lakh
250. What is the liability of a bank in case of payment of forged cheque?: Bank is liable to drawer for having made payment
without authority as also for wrongful dishonor of another cheque due to insufficient funds.
251. What is the lock in period for deposits under PPF scheme: 15 years
252. What is the main concern of Indian Economy today?: Rising Inflation
253. What is the maximum age of Govt’s nominee on Board of Directors of a bank?: 70 years
254. What is the maximum amount for which award can be given by Banking Ombudsman in cases other than complaints
relating to credit card: Rs 10 Lac
255. What is the maximum amount of award that can be given by Banking Ombudsman in case of credit cards?: Rs 1 lakh
256. What is the meaning of delegation? Delegation means the granting of authority subordinates to operate within the
prescribed limits. It means subdivision and sub-allocation of powers to the subordinates in order to achieve effective results.
Authority can be delegated but responsibility cannot be delegated.
257. What is the meaning of financial closure? Financial Closure occurs when there is legally binding commitment of private
sponsors to mobilize funding or provide services.
258. What is the minimum paid capital required for setting up a payment bank?: Rs 100cr
259. What is the nature of business of Insurance Co: indemnifying the insured, collective sharing of risks
260. What is the objective of selling mutual fund product by a bank?: To earn non interest income
261. What is the percentage in Region A to bring training materials bilingually?: 100%
262. What is the period of 12th Five year plan :2012-2017
263. What is the Purpose of nomination? To settle claims easily and quickly in case of death of depositor
264. What is the reason for allowing appointment of a Non Banking Financial company as BC?: For increasing financial inclusion.

265. What is the relation between debenture holder and company: Creditor and debtor
266. What is the relation between purchase of a DD and Bank?: Creditor and Debtor
267. What is the relationship between bank and customer in case of Garnishee order?: Debtor and Creditor
268. What is the role of nominee in term deposit?: He is trustee of legal heirs
269. What is the Service Charge for a remittance of Rs.20,000/- to Nepal if payee not customer of NSBL: Rs 100
270. What is the stake of Central Govt., Sponsoring Bank and State Govt. in RRB capital structure: 50:35:15.
271. What is the time within which death of account holder under Prime Minister Jan Dhan Yojna (PMJDY) should be advised to
bank? 30 days
272. What is the transaction code no for DD in the MICR cheques: 16
273. What is Variable cost:Which changes with production like Raw material, wages, power etc.
274. What refers to P-Notes: Participatory Notes used by Foreign Institutional Investors for investment by overseas investors
who are not registered with SEBI.
275. What right is available to paying bank in respect of DD - stop payment, cancellation, revalidation: revalidation
276. What should the minimum holding of Government in public sector banks?: 51%
277. What was the target for opening accounts under PrimeMinister Jan Dhan Yojana which was to be achieved by 26 Jan 2015?
Initially 7.5 crore accounts which was later increased to 10 crore accounts.
278. When a bank in addition to accepting deposits and making advances, provides various other types of financial services, it is
called: Universal Banking
279. When a complainant receives copy of award from Bank Ombudsman, within how many days, he is required to give his
acceptance?: 30 days from date of receiving the copy of award.
280. When banks borrow fund for overnight, what is it called: call money
281. When does the right of a nominee start in case of deposits? On the death of all account holders.
282. When is customer day celebrated : 15th of each month
283. When letter of administration issued: When a person dies intestate.
284. When remittance done to currency chest, counting in front of bank officials will be done for denomination of: Rs.500 and
Rs.1000 notes.
285. Which company has got license to start new private sector bank in the year 2014?: Bandhan Financial Services Ltd.
286. Which describes insurance business most?: Disaster risk cover.
287. Which is example of Direct Tax: Income Tax
288. Which is not the function of ALCO?: Fixing Budgets and Targets
289. Which is the central bank of India? : Reserve Bank of India.
290. Which is the first Credit information company of India?: COL
291. Which is the largest source of liquidity in equity market? FII
292. Which of the following can not be done by the purchase of a Demand Draft – (a) Stop payment of DD; (b) Obtain duplicate
DD in case of loss; (c) Getting the DD revalidated; (d) endorse the DD: Stop payment of DD.
293. Which of the following does not come under Tier II capital? a) Capital reserves b) Undisclosed reserves c) Revaluation
reserves d) Cumulative Perpetual shares: Capital Reserves.
294. Which of the following does not have share in RRB? (a) Sponsor Bank (b) Central govt (c) State govt (d) Nabard: Nabard.
295. Which of the following has become new member of Asian Clearing Union: Maldives Monetary Authority. (Other members
are Bangladesh Bank, Royal Monetary Authority of Bhutan, Reserve Bank of India, Central Bank of the Islamic Republic of Iran,
Central Bank of Mynamar, Nepal Rashtra Bank, Central Bank of Sri Lanka, State Bank of Pakistan)
296. Which of the following is a Direct Tax - Excise duty, custom duty, service tax, VAT, gift tax: Gift Tax
297. Which of the following is an indirect tax? Sales Tax
298. Which of the following is Chairperson of NABARD: Sh. Prakash Bakshi
299. Which of the following is index of National Stock Exchange – (a) Nifty; (b) Sensex; : Nifty
300. Which of the following is the financial capital of India – Delhi, Ahmedabad, Mumbai: Mumbai
301. Which of the following will be reduced with increase in inflation? (i) Purchasing Power of money (ii) Interest rate (iii) Cannot
say (iv) CRR (v) None of these: Ans is Purchasing power of Money.
302. Which of the following-is a subsidiary of Standard & Poor? CRISIL
303. WHICH OF THE ITEMS WILL NOT BE AN ASSET IN BANKS BAL SHEET – ADVANCES/FIXED ASSET/ DEPOSITS/
: Deposits
304. Which one is not under core sector: automobile
305. Which sector has highest share in GDP of India?: Services
306. Which tax has been abolished in Budget 2015-16?: Wealth tax
307. Which type of charge to be created on Bank’s FD?: Assignment
308. While giving guarantee favouring stock exchange on behalf of brokers, minimum margin should be (a) 50 % out of which
minimum 25% should be cash margin (b) 50 % out of which minimum 20 % should be cash margin (c) 50 % out of which 10 % should

be cash margin: Ans is (a)
309. While increasing or decreasing interest rate, we often hear basis point. 100 Basis point will be equal to: 1 %.
310. Who can stop payment of a Demand Draft?: Nobody
311. Who decides Saving Bank rate: Bank- ALCO committee.
312. Who has never been Governor of RBI – (a) C Rangarajan; (b) Y V Reddy; (c) Bimal Jalan; (d) Pratip Kumar: Pratip Kumar
313. Who headed the committee appointed by RBI for financial inclusion?: Nachiket Mor (The Committee on Comprehensive
Financial Services for Small Businesses and Low Income Households)
314. Who is Drawee in case of DD - paying branch, collecting bank, issuing branch; purchaser, holder?: Paying branch of issuing
bank.
315. Who is not promoter of CIBIL: RBI....
316. Who is regulator of commodity market in India? 1)sebi 2) Ncedex 3) mcx 4) Forward Market Commission: Forward Market
Commission.
317. Who is the regulator of capital market?: SEBI
318. Who is the regulator of insurance sector?: IRDA
319. Who is the Regulator of LIC: IRDA
320. Who issue Garnishee Order: Court
321. Who was President of India before Ms Pratibha Patil: A P J Abdul Kalam
322. Who will decide Base Rate of a Bank?: Bank itself.
323. Wholesale Price Index is calculated on which basis?: Weekly basis for food inflation and monthly for aggregate inflation.
324. Why International Financial Reporting System (IFRS) should be implemented: For comparison of financials of companies
operating in two different international jurisdictions.
325. Within how many days appeal against Ombudsman can be filed?: 30 days
326. Within how many days, appeal can be made by a bank against the Award of Banking Ombudsman to the Appellate Authority
i.e. Deputy Governor RBI: 30 days from receiving the acceptance from customer
327. You need to issue a Demand draft for Rs 10,000 favouring Mr X of Chandigarh.Which one of the following will not be the
option while issuing DD – (i) Payee will be Mr X or Bearer (ii) Payee will be Mr X Chandigarh (iii) Payee will beMr X State Bank of India
A/C 31435195901: Mr X or Bearer


Friday, 25 October 2019

IT security recollected

IT security recollected
Some of the recalled questions/topics are as following...

2-3 questions on Escrow
Security governance
Cert in
Major change from it act to it amendment act
BC DRP steps
2 questions on firewall
RTO
RPO
CISO reports to whom
Who are responsible for IT security
Maker checker difference
Spyware
VoIP
Black/white box testing
Salami attack
ISMS
PDC and DRC
2 questions on fault tolerant systems
Disadvantage of check list audit
2-4 questions on physical security
ITAM 2 questions
What cant be disclosed under RTI act 2005
Schema
Modem
Green server
Telnet uses which port
2-3 questions on security standards
E wastes
2-3 questions related to software development
COBIT
Threat vector
DoS
SQL
Cross site scripting
Steganography
Cryptography
Beta testing
Multiplexers
CAPTCHA
Dual core processor
   MSME recalled questions :  Exam Date 25-Aug-2019
1) CLCSS subsidy
2) In TReds : what are the instruments
3) UNIDO’S programmes
4) Maximum money that can be sanctioned under turnover method : 500 Lakhs
5) Which is not involved in launching cluster development project
6) Maximum time for completion of one cluster
7) SIDBI’s MAHILA VIKHAS NIDHI
8) SFURTI is applicable to which item (Traditional industries)
9) Location of ITCOT ?
10) Current ratio is 1.33:1; If CA increased by  10%; CL increased by 5%; what is current ratio ?
11) Find out Debit equity ratio
12) MSME limitations
13) In partnership firm within how many months minor has to give notice after becoming Major
14) Which type of A/c’s not covered in CGTMSE
15) After sanctioned a loan with hypothecation within how many days charge has to be created ?
16) What are the precautions to be made by a banker in case of joint Hindu Family; in JHF Minor became major ?
17) ISO9000 : max benefit amount
18) To start industrial unit with whom permission to be obtained ?
19) Under the composite loan scheme what is the max amt eligible ?
20) Functions of NABARAD
21) Duration for Loan disbursement
22) Rating agency for MSME  - SMERA
23) One question from Pre-Shipment advances (packing credit advances)
24) One question from Red clause LC
25) One question from Factoring
26) 4-5 questions from CGTMSE
27) 1 question on DIC – District Industries centre
28) 4 questions from MUDRA
29) 1 question from TUFS & TEQUP
30) 3 questions from investment in P&M, Equipment
31) 1 question from re-construction of P-ship firm
32) 1 question on rights & liabilities of directors & shareholders in Pvt ltd. Co & Public ltd. Companies ?
33) 3 questions on women entrpeneur enterprise => How much share and categories of women enterprises, supportive measures for women entrepenuer activities.
34) 1st question in 1st chapter (asked differently)
35) 4-5 questions on CGTMSE
36) 1 question on DIC  - Direct Industries Centre
37) NSIC schemes
38) Find our Debt equity ratio
39) Max amt for sanction in (Nayak committee) Turnover method (page 142)
40) MSME rating agencies : 147 page
41) EDP training – PMEGP : 164 page
42) 4Th question in 6th chapter
43) Sick unit definition : 239 page
44) Guidelines for rehabilitation of sick MSME’s : 253 page
45) Wilful defaulters : 257 page
46) Benefits of ARC : 266 page
47) Microfinance institutions : 273 page
48) 2 questions on MUDRA
49) One question on relationship Banking
50) One question from WTO
51) One question Basal 2 & 3

Imp

Most important topic forever useful::

Individual Elements of Balance Sheet
and Their Analysis:::

Liabilities
 Current Liabilities
 Term Liabilities
 Debentures
 Public Deposits
 Capital
 Reserves (including
Revaluation reserve)

Assets
 Current Assets
 ICDs/Loans
 Fixed Assets
 Capital Work-in-
Progress
 Investments
 Other Non-Current
Assets
 Fictitious & Intangible
Assets

Current Liabilities
 Current liabilities are the liabilities, including bank
borrowings, which are payable within next 12 months.
Thus, the following items are treated as current
liabilities:
 Sundry creditors for raw material supplies and other
expenses
 Advance payment received
 Dividend payable
 Instalments of term loans/deposits/DPGs/debentures
due within one year
 Any other liability which will fall due in next 12 months

Term Liabilities
 Term liabilities include loans taken from
banks or Financial Institutions for long-term
usage, which are repayable over a longer
time period. While instalment payable in next
12 months is classified as current liabilities,
the remaining instalment amount that is due
for payment after a year is classified as term
liabilities.

Debentures
 The features of debentures are:
 They are essentially in the nature of loans - much like
long-term loans granted by banks / financial
Institutions
 Companies raise them from general public and
institutions, to be repaid within a specific time frame
 Companies pay interest at a specified rate to
debenture holders from whom they raise debentures,
till they repay the principal sum
 They come in the form of certificates issued by a
company under its common seal, which is also an
acknowledgement of the company's indebtedness to
the debenture holder

Public Deposits'
 Care to be Exercised by Lending Banker
Should take care, particularly, in cases where
the company has defaulted in repaying such
public deposits
 May treat all such public deposits which have
become due for repayment, and the portion of
small investments (regardless of the age of
such deposits), as current liability

Capital
 Capital of a business enterprise is an item of
liability by virtue of:
 The entity concept used in the preparation of
financial statements, which treats capital as a
liability.
 The principles of accountancy, according to
which the enterprise owes this sum to the
owner(s) and therefore carries a liability to
pay back the capital fund with or without any
profit earned on it

Reserves
 A Reserve
 Consists of the portion of the earnings and
receipts.
 Does not serve as a provision against a
known liability or any diminution in the value
of fixed assets (i.e. accumulated depreciation)
etc., in contradistinction to Reserves which is
part of net worth of the company

Surplus
 A Surplus
 Represents credit balance in the profit and
loss account, after the dividend and reserves
etc. are provided for, appropriated or
transferred.

Assets - Current Assets
 Current assets are those assets, which: Are expected
to be converted into cash e.g. raw material, stock-in-
process, finished goods etc. in next 12 months, and
Pertain to the company's main activity
 However, in respect of receivables, the treatment is
different. Receivables are treated:
 As current assets only for a period of 6 months
 As non-current assets, if they are more than 6
months old

Fixed Assets
Fixed assets are the assets:A credit analyst
should:
 Held for use in production or providing goods,
services etc. over a long period of time
 Not meant for sale in the normal course of
business
 That are producers of merchandise and not
merchandise themselves

Assets - Investments
 Investments made by a company, appearing in the
balance sheet of a company:
 Is a very important item, appearing in the assets side,
from the point of view of a credit analyst
 Normally indicates deployment of funds in securities
or assets, which may not be directly related to the
main activities of the companyMay refer to the
surplus funds of enterprises, which they decided to
invest in short-term securities for earning profit/short-
term gainsMay also refer to, funds invested in the
shares/securities of another enterprise in which the
investor company is interested on a long-term basis.
E.g.: Investment made in subsidiaries.

Assets - Other Non-Current Assets
 Other non-current assets include:
 Advances to suppliers of capital goods (plant,
machinery etc.)
 Deferred receivables (maturity after 1 year)
 Receivables more than 6 months old
 Non-consumable stores and spares
 Dues from directors et

Assets - Fictitious & Intangible
Assets
 Fictitious Assets
 Companies incur certain expenses, which are
not charged to the profit & loss account either
fully or in part during the same year in which
they are incurred. These expenses figure on
the asset side of a balance sheet, as though
they are real assets. Such assets are known
as fictitious assets.

Assets - Fictitious & Intangible
Assets
 Intangible Assets
 Assets that may not represent any real or
tangible asset are called as intangible
assets.Intangible assets represent monetary
values of different rights enjoyed by the
business enterprise, and are therefore
considered as assets. This category of items
include goodwill, patents, copyrights,
trademark rights etc. that appear on the asset
side of a balance sheet.

Very important acts

1.Dishonour of electronic fund transfer for
insufficiency,etc of funds in the account define in
which act?
2.Duties of system provider is defined in which
act?
3.Which section define electronic fund transfer in
payment and settlement act 2007
4Minor cannot enter into a contract defines in
which act?
5.Indemnity is defined in which act?
6.Guarantee is defined on which act?
7.Lien is defined in which act?
8.Pledge is defined under which act?
9.Revival / acknowledgement of debt is defined in
1.Sec 25 of payment and settlement act 2007
2.Sec 21 of payment and settlement act 2007
3.Sec 2(1) ©
4.Sc 11 of Indian contract act
5.Sec 124 of indian contract act
6.Sec 126 of India contract act 1872
7.Sec 171 of India contract act 1872
8.Sec 172 of India contract act ,1872
9.Sec 18 of limitations act 1963

Thursday, 24 October 2019

JAIIB exam recollected questions on  04 November 2018 ...


1.Two questions on Basel 2 and 3 ... each 2 marks question
2.NEFT and RTGS details for 4questions
3.Can you accept it with as NEFT or RTGS or vice versa
4. Sections are asked from NI Act  around 6 questions
5.PMDJY - 3Qtns
6.A has dream cheque at Delhi, and sent for clearing to bank Y where he has his AC, it was returned due to insufficient funds 
Which Court A can approach
A resident location
Delhi
Y Bank
7.Mandate holder features in two questions
8.Can Two minors open a Joint AC?
9.LC issued for 10 lakh, at the time payment it was found in the bills mentioned as 10.90.. can it be acceptable or not   Answer Accept
10.Use of DRS system to CBS
11.Matching of 
Lien
Set off
Pledge
Appropriation 
with 

Rights of Physical property FD created before maturity of loan
12.Where as ASBA can be used
13.One qtsn Selective Credit Control.
Asked to find out which is not a feature of SCC
14.No of Cycle of a Product
15.Stages of Product   ..4
16.What's your reason while accept/not to accept to provide an acknowledgement for Loan request
17.Electronics chq is defined under sec...
18.Sec 6 ni act
19.Which asset cannot assign for loan?
Book Dept
LIC
Share certificate
Copy rights**
20.Minimum credit rating of company for issue CP should be _ 
A1
AAA
Aa1
A3**
21.Asset of mutual fund are held by 
Custodian**
Registar
Trusstee
Amc
22.Corporate security dealt with  __market    money market
23.Codes which are withdrawn by RBI?

24.Question related to bcsbi was there..
25.Which one is stamp duty
Lc
Bill purchase
Bank guarantee**
Bill discounting

26.A partner acts as agent of firm is called______
27.In call money what% can commercial bank take an advance?125
28.Electronic cheque is defined in section 6

29.Under LRS resident can remit______
30.. Servuction means what, 
31. Pull strategy pull means demand, supply, price, quality. 
32. Who introduces NEFT. 
34. in joint account nominee is their A expired in that what you will do. 
35. Kotler  marketing defination.
36.Forfiating,factoring
37.BG
                                            


                                             

                                            

Current affairs on 24.10.2019

Today's Headlines from www:

*Economic Times*

📝 L&T bags HPCL's order worth over Rs 7,000 crore

📝 Shoppers Stop Q2 net loss at Rs 8.17 crore

📝 Halonix looks to raise Rs 600 cr for expansion

📝 Tata Steel subsidiary bags second chrome mine after Misrilall in e-auction in Odisha

📝 Jubilant FoodWorks to spend up to Rs 250 crore on setting up 120 stores this year

📝 Google touts quantum computing milestone

📝 India unlikely to benefit from US-China trade tensions: EIU

📝 Modi govt sets out on the road to $5 trillion with a Rs 8 lakh-crore first list

📝 India Post Payments Bank fights to survive

📝 EU lawmaker backs 3-month Brexit extension

*Business Standard*

📝 Govt approves BSNL-MTNL merger, clears Rs 70,000-crore relief package |

📝 India to close procurement deal with US for 24 Seahawks in November

📝 Indian airlines to slip into loss in Q2 on jet fuel cost, weakening rupee

📝 HCl Tech Q2 net income rises 4.4% to Rs 2,651 crore, EBIT up 17.9%

📝 Govt relaxes fuel retailing norms, private firms can set up petrol pumps

📝 Govt accords 'Maharatna' status to Hindustan Petroleum, Power Grid Corp

📝 Bajaj Auto reports 21% rise in Q2 consolidated profit at Rs 1,523.32 cr

📝 India Inc Q2 earnings start on positive note, tax rate cut boosts profit

📝 Wheat MSP raised by 4.6% to Rs 1925/qtl, but it's still lowest in 5 years

📝 India is likely to move up in Ease of Doing Business report of World Bank

*Financial Express*

📝 HDFC Life Q2 net up 7.5% at Rs 309 crore

📝 Coal India banks on enhanced evacuation to make up for short supplies

📝 Dr Reddy’s recalls Ranitidine from US market

📝 Big potential for Indian carriers to expand in China market: Indigo

📝 Walmart India FY19 net loss soars 89%

📝 Merger of Sadbhav Group companies to streamline cash flow

📝 Google Pay India revenue increases 92% to Rs 3.76 crore

📝 GIC deal to boost 2019-20 bottom line by Rs 300 crore: IRB

📝 Muthoot Capital to give e-bike credit as Q2 PAT falls 35%

📝 Indian Bank Q2 net more than doubles to Rs 359 crore

📝 DHFL board seeks reply to KPMG audit report

*Mint*

📝 Boeing sees 737 MAX US approval before year-end, shares rise

📝 Trump to promote withdrawing U.S. from Paris climate accord: Report

📝 Huawei ships 20 cr smartphones in 2019 in record time

📝 S&P sees rising risk of contagion in India's financial sector

📝 Biocon posts 39% fall in net profit Q2 even as biologics business booms

📝 Nitesh Estates to sell 2 land parcels for Rs227 crore to pare debt

📝 HCL Tech Q2 profit jumps to 19.2%, announces bonus share

📝 Investments via P-notes fall for fourth month in a row, stand at ₹76,611 cr

📝 IMF sees Indian economic growth rebounding to 7% next fiscal

📝 Hero MotoCorp consolidated PAT down 10% in Q2FY20.

Tuesday, 22 October 2019

Various account s



Minor

Minor means a person who is below 18 years of age

According to the Indian Contract Act, a minor is under a legal incapacity to enter into a contract and therefore any contract with minor is void. Thus minor has to have a guardian of his person and property.

·         Whether a minor can draw a valid cheque – Section 26 of the NI Act provides that minor may draw, endorse, deliver and negotiate a negotiable instrument and so minor can draw a cheque. Ordinarily balances in such accounts are subject to a maximum specified amount and that the age of the minor is above 13 years. The account can be continued when the minor attains the majority. It is advisable to take a confirmation of balance in the account signed by him immediately on attaining majority

·         Whether he would, on attaining majority be bound by the withdrawals made by him when he was a minor – yes.

·         No Loan /Overdraft can be given to minor. This is because, a minor can make others liable on the Negotiable Instrument, but he himself cannot be made liable.

.

·         Even though a minor is not competent to contract, he can be appointed and act as agent for another person competent to contract. That is he can be agent of his father, but he will not be personally liable for what he does on behalf of the major.

·         A minor below age of 7 can not open an account independently

·         Under Section 30 the Indian Partnership Act, a minor can be admitted to the benefits of the partnership. But the minor is not liable personally for the debts of the firm.



Lunatics

Joint Hindu Family

Joint Account Holders (207)

A joint account is an account opened by two or more persons Insanity of a joint account holder Insolvency of the Joint account Holder
Death of a Joint account Holder As the mandate taken for the operation of the account also deals with survivorship, on the death of one of the joint account holders, the survivors are entitled to the whole amount both under the law of devolution applicable to joint owners and by the customer of bankers. Where the mandate is operation by joint signatures and if one of them dies, the balance is payable (or recoverable from if debit balance) to the survivor and the legal heirs of deceased (or recoverable from estate of deceased in case of debit balance).

Accounts in the Name of Joint Hindu Families (JHF) The members of the family are called coparceners and the eldest male member is the manager or the Karta. When an account in the name of the JHF is opened all the adult coparceners are to sign the Account opening form, even though the Karta would operate on the account.


Accounts in the Name of Partnership Firms (106)

A partner has no authority to give a guarantee on behalf of the firm and if such guarantee is to be given, it should be signed by all partners.
Retirement of Partner
Death of Partner: The death of partner has the legal effect of dissolving the firm, as his legal heirs cannot step into his shoes. The surviving partners have the right to carry on the business for the purpose of winding up.
Any cheque presented for payment should be paid only with the consent of the surviving partners
When the account is in debit balance, the operations should be stopped to fix the liability of the deceased partner.

.

Insolvency of partner: Insolvency of any partner will result will result in the dissolution of the firm. A cheque signed by such a partner should not be honored without the confirmation from other partners, who may continue to operate the account for winding up the business.

Partnership account and the partner’s private account

Position of a Minor: under Section 30 the Indian Partnership act, a minor can be admitted to the benefits of the membership. He can therefore become a partner and act as a agent on behalf of the other partners of the firm. But the minor is not liable personally for the debits of the firm.

Collecting Banker – Duties and Responsibilities (84)

1.    Protection available to Collecting Banker
Holder For Value – banker parted with funds before collecting the proceeds of the cheque.

2.    Non-liability of a Banker Receiving Payment of a Cheque Requirements of Section 131

Crossed Cheques – No Statutory protection is extended to cheques which are forged.
Collection on behalf of Customers –The collection should be done on behalf of its Customer.
Receive Payment in good faith and without negligence

Where the endorsement on the cheque or the drafts is fictitious and the collecting bank failed to check it, the collecting bank was not protected under section 131.
If Collecting Bank does not confirm the endorsement on the reverse of the cheque the drawee bank would not be entitled to any protection.

Wednesday, 16 October 2019

CASE STUDIES ON DOCUMENTARY CREDITS AND UCP600

CASE STUDIES ON DOCUMENTARY CREDITS AND UCP600
CASE STUDY 1
Banks have a practice of calling for the original LC at the time of presentation of documents and
endorse any drawings on its reverse.
LC's may be made available by Acceptance / Defferred Payment / Negotiation and to be freely
available with any bank.
Is it mandatory to endorse the original LC on its reverse?
Analysis
Most LCs contain a clause indicating such a requirement.
The practice is required by SWIFT standards cat.7, for freely negotiable credits, available with any
bank.
Conclusion
What is the problem?
CASE STUDY 2
If a nominated bank does not incur a deffered payment undertaking on presentation of complying
documents and forwards them to the Issuing Bank.
Subsequently can it a purchases a deferred payment undertaking from the issuing bank and seek
protection under UCP600?
Articles 7c. UCP600
CASE STUDY 3
If a LC is confirmed and is available with the Confirming Bank and the beneficiary chooses to
present the document directly to the Issuing Bank and the Issuing Bank wrongfully dishonors.
Should the confirming bank honor the presentation given that the LC has meanwhile expired?
Article 8a. UCP600
CASE STUDY 4
A documentary credit requires all documents must to be issued in English language.
The presentation includes a Certificate of Origin bearing a Stamp / Legalisation done in another
language
Is this a discrepancy?
Issued in?
CASE STUDY 5
As per Article 38 of UCP 600, A LC can be transferred to more than one second beneficiary. This
can be done preferably when the Partial Shipments are allowed under the LC.
If the first Beneficiary is certain that he would be able to comply with article 31(b) of UCP600 (re
partial shipments – submission of multiple BLs on the same voyage), can a LC be transferred to
more than one second beneficiary even if the LC states Partial Shipment is prohibited provided
Article 38.d. UCP600
CASE STUDY 6
If the nominated bank does not accept a bill of exchange drawn on them by the beneficiary, can the
same bill of exchange be presented to the issuing bank or should they present a fresh bill of
exchange drawn on the Issuing Bank
UCP Article 7a (iv)
CASE STUDY 7
Under the documents required a LC calls for a Bill of Lading.
Bill of Lading submitted with the documents is signed by a forwarder as carrier.
Is it a discrepancy?
Article 20 UCP600
CASE STUDY 8
L/C requirement: invoices in 3 fold and Legalized by Chamber of Commerce.
Beneficiary submits invoices with only one legalized and others without being legalized.
Is it a discrepancy?
Article 17e. UCP600
CASE STUDY 9
LC calls for a Beneficiary's certificate stating the expiry date (of the product).
The certificate presented states only the month and the year of expiry.
Is it a discrepancy?
Bankers are expected to have a certain amount of general knowledge and common sense
CASE STUDY 10
The documents required in a transferable LC calls for an Inspection Certificate issued by the First
Beneficiary.
At the request of the First Beneficiary LC is transferred to a Second Beneficiary without calling for
the Inspection Certificate, which the first beneficiary undertakes to submit along with drafts and
invoices to be presented for substitution.
Has the Transferring Bank acted in aprudent manner.
Sub-article 38g of UCP600
CASE STUDY 11
A LC states the last date for shipment as 09 November 2014 and the expiry as 30 November 2014,
is silent on the period of presentation and also states ‘Stale Bills of Lading Acceptable”.
Documents presented on 01 October 2014 with the Bill of Lading dated 01 June 2014 refused by
the Issuing Bank stating Late Presentation (not presented within 21 days after the BL date as per
article 14.c UCP600)..
The negotiating Bank does not agree with the reason for refusal.
Should the Issuing Bank honour?
Rule A19.b ISBP745
Case Study 12
The documentary credit in question issued subject to UCP600 called for shipment from “ANY
NORTH EUROPEAN PORT” and the transport document required in field 46a was: “FULL SET OF
CLEAN ON BOARD BILL OF LADING”.
The Nominated Bank received a bill of lading evidencing shipment from Antwerp, which we found to
be within the scope of North Europe, since the geographical area of North Europe was not defined
in the Credit.
The Issuing Bank refused the documents arguing that Antwerp is not within the geographical area
or range stated in the Credit.
The Issuing Bank further argued that Belgium is in Western Europe and not in Northern Europe and
quoted an internet website (www.mapsofworld.com) where we could easily recheck.
Is the discrepancy cited by the issuing bank valid?
Analysis
UCP 600 sub-article 14 (a) states that a bank must examine a presentation on the basis of the
documents alone.
It is not a matter for the ICC Banking Commission to define or determine geographical areas or
ranges. The requirement in the credit is vague and clearly ambiguous.
In accordance with ISBP 745 Preliminary Considerations paragraph (v), the applicant bears the risk
of any ambiguity in its instructions to issue or amend a credit.
Furthermore, an issuing bank should ensure that any credit or amendment it issues is not
ambiguous or conflicting in its terms and conditions.
It should not be necessary to refer to external resources in order to determine relevant facts.
Conclusion
The applicant and issuing bank must bear the risk of ambiguity for failing to express specifically how
“Any North European Port‟ is to be defined.
In this case, the document is not discrepant.
Case Study 13
Under a credit issued subject to UCP600 by Bank V in country W available by negotiation and
expiring with Bank A in country N, Bank A added its confirmation. Upon presentation of complying
documents Bank A negotiated and discounted. Documents were refused by Bank V for the following
reason: “Health Certificate to be presented in 1 original and 2 copies but only presented in 1 original
plus 1 copy.”
Bank A stated that all required originals and copies were presented to them within the time limits
foreseen by the credit, but admitted to having made an operational mistake by leaving one copy of
the Health Certificate in their file and by only sending 1 original and 1 copy to Bank V.
Bank A requested Bank V to create a second copy on Bank A‟s account, or to instruct Bank A to
courier the missing copy, but Bank V did not provide agreement. In the absence of any instructions,
and after the expiry date of the credit, Bank A couriered the missing copy document to Bank V,
certifying on their letter that it was presented within the time limits of the credit. Bank V still refused
to honour the presentation.
Has the Issuing Bank the right to refuse the documents on the basis of the missing copy of the
Health Certificate, in spite of the fact that the missing copy was sent to them after the expiry date,
but with the declaration of the negotiating bank that the copy was presented within the time limits
foreseen under the LC?
Analysis
The credit was available for negotiation with the Nominated Bank and expired at their counters.
UCP 600 sub-article 6 (d) (ii) states: “The place of the bank with which the credit is available is the
place for presentation. The place for presentation under a credit available with any bank is that of
any bank. A place for presentation other than that of the issuing bank is in addition to the place of
the issuing bank.”
UCP 600 article 6 (e) states: “Except as provided in sub-article 29 (a), a presentation by or on
behalf of the beneficiary must be made on or before the expiry date.”
In accordance with UCP 600 sub-article 7 (c) an Issuing Bank undertakes to reimburse a nominated
Bank that has honoured or negotiated a complying presentation and forwarded the documents to
the Issuing Bank.
The Issuing Bank did not receive all the required documents and subsequently issued a refusal
notice. The Nominated Bank, after an exchange of correspondence with the Issuing Bank,
forwarded the missing copy document to the issuing bank certifying that it had been presented
within the time limits required by the credit.
Conclusion
The initial cited discrepancy is valid. However, upon receipt by the issuing bank of the missing copy
document, and on the basis that it also received a certification from the negotiating bank that the
document was presented within the time limits required by the credit, the issuing bank must
reimburse the confirming bank.
Cade Study 14
Under a credit issued by Bank V in country V available by negotiation and expiring with Bank A in
country N, Bank A added its confirmation. Upon presentation of complying documents Bank A
negotiated and discounted. Documents were refused by Bank V for the following reason: “Health
Certificate to be presented in 1 original and 2 copies but only presented in 1 original plus 1 copy.”
Bank A stated that all required originals and copies were presented to them within the time limits
foreseen by the credit, but admitted to having made an operational mistake by leaving one copy of
the Health Certificate in their file and by only sending 1 original and 1 copy to Bank V.
Bank A requested Bank V to create a second copy on Bank A‟s account, or to instruct Bank A to
courier the missing copy, but bank V did not provide agreement. In the absence of any instructions,
and after the expiry date of the credit, Bank A couriered the missing copy document to Bank V,
certifying on their letter that it was presented within the time limits of the credit. Bank V still refused
to honour the presentation.
Has the Issuing Bank the right to refuse the documents on the basis of the missing copy of the
Health Certificate, in spite of the fact that the missing copy was sent to them after the expiry date,
but with the declaration of the negotiating bank that the copy was presented within the time limits
foreseen under the LC?
Analysis
Although not indicated in the query, it is assumed that the credit was issued subject to UCP 600.
The credit was available for negotiation with the nominated bank and expired at their counters.
UCP 600 sub-article 6 (d) (ii) states: “The place of the bank with which the credit is available is the
place for presentation. The place for presentation under a credit available with any bank is that of
any bank. A place for presentation other than that of the issuing bank is in addition to the place of
the Issuing Bank.”
UCP 600 article 6 (e) states: “Except as provided in sub-article 29 (a), a presentation by or on
behalf of the beneficiary must be made on or before the expiry date.”
In accordance with UCP 600 sub-article 7 (c) an issuing bank undertakes to reimburse a nominated
bank that has honoured or negotiated a complying presentation and forwarded the documents to
the issuing bank.
The issuing bank did not receive all the required documents and subsequently issued a refusal
notice. The nominated bank, after an exchange of correspondence with the issuing bank, forwarded
the missing copy document to the issuing bank certifying that it had been presented within the time
limits required by the credit.
Conclusion
The initial cited discrepancy is valid. However, upon receipt by the issuing bank of the missing copy
document, and on the basis that it also received a certification from the negotiating bank that the
document was presented within the time limits required by the credit, the issuing bank must
reimburse the confirming bank.
Cade Study 15
Bank A (Issuing Bank) in country A issued a standby credit subject to UCP 600 which was advised
to the beneficiary in country B by Bank B (Advising Bank).
The beneficiary presented a demand under the credit which arrived at the counters of the Bank A
before the expiry date of the credit.
Bank A issued a notice of refusal on the third day following presentation stating one discrepancy:
“Original Standby LC Not Presented”.
There was no wording in the credit requiring presentation of the original Standby LC.
1) Is the discrepancy stated by the Bank A correct?
2) Can Bank A raise further discrepancies at a later date in respect of the one presentation made by
the beneficiary under the credit?
Analysis
1) The wording of the credit did not require the presentation of the original credit as part of the
claim. Unless the credit was issued by mail or in paper format, it is doubtful how the originality of the
document could be determined. Accordingly, unless otherwise specifically required within the terms
and conditions of a credit, there is no requirement for the original credit to be included in the
presentation.
2) UCP 600 sub-article 16 (c) states that when a bank decides to refuse or negotiate, it must give a
single notice to that effect to the presenter. UCP 600 clearly does not allow for further discrepancies
to be raised that were apparent at the time of the initial presentation, as is referred to within former
ICC Opinions R196, R328, R271 and TA764rev.
Conclusion
1) The discrepancy is not valid.
2) Additional discrepancies are not to be considered, as banks only have one opportunity to raise
discrepancies for each presentation.
Cade Study 16
Under a documentary credit subject to UCP 600 the beneficiary of the L/C presented, amongst
other documents, a charter party bill of lading (CPBL), made out in accordance with the terms and
conditions of the respective L/C, signed and stamped as shown hereafter:
According to UCP 600 sub-article 22 (a) (i), a CPBL must appear to be signed by any of the
following parties:
· the master,
· the owner,
· the charterer, or
· a named agent for any of the above.
The stamp shows, however, that the master is signing “On behalf of Owners”.
As this is a case not contemplated by UCP 600 sub-article 22 (a) (i) like the signing by a carrier or a
named agent for the carrier as indicated in Official Opinion 470/TA.775rev., we would like to know
the opinion of the ICC Banking Commission to this case, i.e. whether this is an acceptable way of
signing or not: If the answer is that it is not acceptable, whether it would be acceptable, if the name
of the owner(s) would be stated.
Analysis
UCP 600 sub-article 22 (a) (i) states that a CPBL must appear to be signed by:
· the master or a named agent for or on behalf of the master, or
· the owner or a named agent for or on behalf of the owner, or
· the charterer or a named agent for or on behalf of the charterer.
Furthermore, it states: “Any signature by the master, owner, charterer or agent must be identified as
that of the master, owner, charterer or agent.”
ISBP 745 paragraph G4 (b) states: “When the master (captain), owner or charterer signs a charter
party bill of lading, the signature of the master (captain), owner or charterer is to be identified as
“master” (“captain”), “owner” or “charterer”.
ICC Opinion 470/TA.775rev does not apply as it relates to a CPBL issued and signed by a carrier or
its agent.
The signature on the CPBL is identified as that of the master (captain). The master is signing for
and on behalf of the owner.
Conclusion
The document is acceptable.
Cade Study 17
The Documentary Credit issued subject to UCP 600 by an Issuing Bank located in country X on
behalf of an applicant also located in country X and confirmed by a Bank located in country Y
required in field 46a “documents required” amongst other the following document:
Quote Bank guarantee from international first class bank payable in country X equivalent to EUR
xxxxx [the guarantee indicates an amount] valid till xx.xx.xxxx [the guarantee indicates a fix date].
Unquote
The bank guarantee presented to the Confirming Bank is issued by a bank located in country Y and
states that it is subject to the laws of country Y. The wording of the presented guarantee shows the
applicant of the Letter of Credit as beneficiary of the guarantee. The amount and expiry date of the
guarantee are in compliance with the requirements stipulated in the Letter of Credit. The payment
undertaking of the guarantee is worded as follows:
QUOTE
We, xxx [the guarantee indicates the guaranteeing bank], hereby irrevocably undertake to
pay you [the guarantee is addressed and directed to the applicant of the Letter of Credit]
without delay on your first written demand for payment an amount up to xxx [the guarantee
indicates an amount] provided your demand for payment is simultaneously supported by (…)
UNQUOTE
The wording of the guarantee does neither contain an express indication that it is “payable in
country X” nor any express reference to country X being the place of payment.
The Confirming Bank accepted the presented guarantee but the Issuing Bank raised the following
discrepancy: “Bank Guarantee from international bank is not payable in country X.”. Please let us
have your official opinion whether and if so why the issuing bank was entitled to raise the
discrepancy by answering the following questions:
1. Is the guarantee only compliant if it either indicates expressly that it is “payable in country X” or
contains an express reference to country X being the place of payment? Or can it be argued that
the guarantee meets the requirement “payable in country X” because it is issued in favour of a
beneficiary located in country X and as it provides that payment thereunder has to be made to this
beneficiary?
2. Would the requirement “payable in country X” be met if the guarantee is made out as described
above but is not issued by a bank located in country Y but in country X?
3. Does the stipulated requirement “payable in country X” require the document checker to
determine whether the presented guarantee‟s place of payment is country X?
4. Could the confirming bank argue validly that the Letter of Credit does not stipulate that the
requirement “payable in country X” must be met by an express reference or wording in the
guarantee document (e.g. 46a: Bank guarantee from international first class bank indicating that it is
“payable in country X” equivalent to (…)”) and that this requirement may therefore be deemed as
non-documentary and not stated and thus be disregarded according to UCP 600 sub-article 14 (h)
5. Could the confirming bank argue validly that the checking of the document falls with respect to
the requirement “payable in country X” under the auspices of UCP 600 sub-article 14 (f) because
this requirement is worded in way that does not amount to a stipulation of the document‟s data
content ?
Analysis
The credit included, in field 46a of the MT700, a requirement for a guarantee to be issued by an
international first class bank payable in country X (the country of the credit issuing bank). Apart from
amount and expiry date, no other requirements were provided. The credit was confirmed by a bank
in country Y (the country of the credit beneficiary).
The actual guarantee that was presented to the confirming bank was issued by a bank in country Y,
stating that it was subject to the laws of country Y.
The guarantee contained a statement from the guarantee issuing bank that they irrevocably
undertook to pay the guarantee beneficiary (the applicant of the credit) without delay on first written
demand for payment. It did not include an explicit statement or reference that the guarantee was
payable in country X.
Whilst the Confirming Bank accepted the guarantee as a compliant document under the credit, the
Issuing Bank refused on the basis that the guarantee was not payable in country X.
In view of the fact that the beneficiary of the credit was located in country Y, it is not unusual that
they would use a bank in their own country to issue the guarantee, as was the case in this query.
The guarantee had been issued directly in favour of the beneficiary (the credit applicant) in country
X, and not via another bank in country X. It included a condition that payment would be made
against first written demand. It does not state a place for presentation. Because the guarantee did
not state a place for presentation, demands must be presented at the issuing bank. The issuing
bank is located in country Y.
Conclusion
1. The guarantee needed to clearly state that it was payable in country X. In order to achieve this, it
would have needed to be payable at the counters of a bank in country X, and not at the counters of
the guarantee issuing bank in country Y. The fact that the guarantee was issued directly in favour of
the beneficiary (credit applicant) in country X and was payable against first written demand, did not
fulfil this requirement.
2. If the guarantee had been issued by a bank in country X, this would have met the requirements of
the credit.
3. The place of payment of the guarantee was to be stated as “in country X‟ or determinable as
being within country X.
4. The requirement for the guarantee clearly related to a requirement for an actual document.
Consequently, UCP 600 sub-article 14 (h) is not applicable.
5. The condition in the credit “payable in country X‟ is a specific requirement that must be clearly
reflected in the guarantee document if it is to fulfil its function. The discrepancy raised by the issuing
bank is valid.
CASE STUDY 18
The relevant LC conditions:
1) (Under documents required): Full set of clean on-board marine bills of lading consigned to order,
blank endorsed, notify applicant and marked “freight payable as per charter party”
2) (Under other conditions): Charter Party BL acceptable
The presented BL shows:
a) “freight payable as per charter party”
b) signed by XXX Logistics Co Ltd as agent for carrier YYY Shipping Lines Ltd
c) the reverse page shows the shipper’s blank endorsement
d) reverse page also shows typical shipping contract terms & conditions (i.e. not the usual Charter
Party BL terms & conditions)
In short, the BL (front and back), other than the freight statement, does not display anything to
suggest that it is subject to a charter party contract.
Issuing Bank paid but deducted a discrepancy fee for the waived discrepancy of “Charter Party BL
signatory’s capacity not as master, owner, charterer or agent for any of the aforesaid”. Issuing
Bank’s position appears to be that, by virtue of the LC‟s BL freight requirement, the LC is actually
calling for a Charter Party BL. And because the BL does show such freight statement, the BL is to
be treated as being subject to a charter party contract, and therefore the BL must be signed in
accordance with Article 22 (a) (i).
Negotiating Bank of course disagreed and countered that the freight phrase was not enough
evidence that the BL was a Charter Party one. It argued that, save for the freight phrase; its terms &
conditions (on reverse page) were those of a conventional BL. If it is a conventional BL, then issuing
bank’s discrepancy is incorrect. It should be instead: “Conventional BL presented but contains an
indication that it is subject to a charter party”..
ANALYSIS
The credit required a marine bill of lading marked “freight payable as per charter party‟. In this
respect, the credit was badly worded. The presented bill of lading was marked “freight payable as
per charter party”.
ISBP 745 paragraph G2 (b) states: “A transport document, however named, indicating expressions
such as “freight payable as per charter party dated (with or without mentioning a date)”, or “freight
payable as per charter party”, will be an indication that it is subject to a charter party.
ISBP 745 paragraph G1 states: “When there is a requirement in a credit for the presentation of a
charter party bill of lading, or when a credit allows presentation of a charter party bill of lading and a
charter party bill of lading is presented, UCP 600 article 22 is to be applied in the examination of
that document.
Where a credit simply allows for or requires the presentation of a CPBL, a CPBL issued and signed
by a carrier or its agent is discrepant under UCP 600 sub-article 22 (a) (i).
CONCLUSION
The discrepancy raised by the issuing bank, “Charter Party BL signatory‟s capacity not as master,
owner, charterer or agent for any of the aforesaid”, is correct.
CASE STUDY 19
L/C available with Advising Bank by payment, however the Advising Bank did not act under our
nomination and has sent documents presented by the beneficiary to the Issuing Bank without
examining them (in accordance with beneficiary's request). No message was received from the
issuing bank, Advising Bank received a MT910 from their correspondent bank informing us of the
credit entry on our account and containing information in field 72: /EUR100 deducted as discr.fee/.
The documentary credit included the following clause: 'discrepancy fee of EUR 100.00 will be
deducted from the proceeds any drawing if documents are presented with discrepancies'
We have contacted issuing bank arguing that since they had not acted in accordance with UCP 600
sub-article 16 (c) (ii), quoting every single discrepancy they should be precluded from deducting
discrepancy fee.
An answer was received that their action has nothing to do with UCP 600 article 16 and that if we
want to find out about discrepancies we will have to ask for it. It seems that they are acting in line
with the conclusion of a/m Opinion. Nevertheless, we cannot agree with it.
In the opinion of the Issuing Bank and according to UCP600 sub-article 16 (a) an issuing bank
determines if a presentation does not comply. By deducting their discrepancy fee they obviously
wanted to indicate that the presented documents did not comply.
As per article UCP 600 sub-article 16 (b) issuing bank may in its sole judgment approach the
applicant for waiver, but that does not extend period of time mentioned in UCP 600 sub-article 14
(b), nor does it (in our opinion) annul the provisions of UCP 600 sub-articles 16 (c), (d), (e) and (f).
Achieving applicant's acceptance of discrepancies does not justify the action of not listing all
discrepancies, even when sending message indicating acceptance (such as in MT752).
Advising Bank is of the opinion that if Issuing Bank determines that presented documents contain
discrepancies, all discrepancies should be quoted either in separate MT734 or in MT752 within 5
working days. Otherwise they are precluded claiming that documents are discrepant (and
accordingly not allowed to deduct discrepancy fee)
ANALYSIS
A presentation of documents had been paid by the issuing bank deducting their discrepancy fee.
Prior to payment no notice of refusal has been sent nor had any information on discrepancies been
provided by the issuing bank.
When an issuing bank finds discrepancies in documents, it has two options available to it under
article 16: to provide a refusal message to the presenter in terms of sub-articles 16 (c) and (d) or, to
approach the applicant for a waiver without first providing a notice of refusal (sub-article 16 (b)).
When the option of approaching the applicant for a waiver is chosen, and such waiver is given and
accepted by the issuing bank, the practice is for the issuing bank to honour, and such honour will be
less any discrepancy fee that was stated in the credit.
When this course of action is taken, the issuing bank should provide the presenter, as part of their
payment message or in a separate communication, details of the discrepancies that were observed.
The presenter can then choose to dispute the discrepancies, therefore questioning the relevance of
the deduction representing the discrepancy fee. If the issuing bank does not provide such an
indication, the presenter may seek, and the issuing bank must provide, such details. The actions of
the issuing bank, as described in situation D, do not represent preclusion under sub-article 16 (f).
Conclusion:
The Issuing Bank is entitled to a discrepancy fee as outlined in the credit, but it should inform the
presenter of the discrepancies that were found, either in the advice of payment or in a separate
communication.
The issuing bank is not required to send a notice of refusal to the presenter if it elects to contact the
applicant for a waiver and to receive a waiver that is acceptable to it. Sub-article 16 (f) does not
apply in these circumstances.
If the covering schedule listed the discrepancies that the presenter had found, the Issuing Bank
should either advise the presenter that the documents were taken up despite the discrepancies that
had been identified by the presenter, or list the discrepancies for which the issuing bank had sought
waiver from the applicant.
It is only when an issuing bank does not indicate the discrepancies that there should be a need for
the presenter to seek such details. The default position is that an issuing bank, in order to justify a
discrepancy fee, should always indicate the discrepancies by one of the methods described above.
When an issuing bank has approached the applicant for a waiver, and received such waiver and
decided to act upon it, it does not need to send a notice of refusal in accordance with UCP 600 subarticle
16 (c) in order to be entitled to deduct a discrepancy fee when it honours a presentation. In
such circumstances, UCP 600 sub-article 16 (f) does not apply.
When a bank deducts a discrepancy fee on the basis of a “discrepancy fee clause‟ in a credit, it is
good banking practice to inform the presenter of any discrepancies that were found in the
documents, either in the advice of payment or in a separate communication. In the event they fail to
do so, this does not preclude them from providing such information subsequently.