RETAIL BANKING MCQS

  MODULE: A – RETAIL BANKING

1. RETAIL BANKING AN INTRODUCTION : TEST YOURSELF
Q.1. What is retail Banking?
a. Banking targetted at corporates
b. Banking focused towards weaker class segment
c. Banking deals with individuals and lends them money
d. Banking deals with wholesalers for deposits source
e. Both (a) and (c)
Q.2. Characteristics of retail banking?
a) Targeted at individual customers, and mass market segment
b) Offer various liability, assets and service products to individuals
c) Both (a) and c)
d) Delivery model of ATMs/internet and mobile banking
e) All above
Q.3. What are the advantages of retail Banking?
a) Spread of risk across customers /customers loyalty and attractive interest spreads.
b) Spread of credit risk to diversified customers and lesser volatility in demand and credit cycle
c) Large number of customers with selection possibility by scroing system.
d) Both and (a) and (c)
e) Both (d) and (b)
Q.4. Mark the problems in retail banking?
(a) Managing large number of customers and /or rapid evolution of services.
(b) Costs of maintaining low value transactions, (c) Higher
(d) delinquencies is unsecured retail loans and credit card receivables. All of above
(e) Both (a) and (c)
Q.5. Reasons for retail banking in India are :-
(a) Growing urban population/higher disposable income/increase in mass affluents space and explosion of service economy. (b)
Foreign banks and private sector banks seriously looking at the bottom of customers alongwith credit and debit cards
receivables. (c) Despite credit and deposits growth, banking access remains limited to few sections of the population, (d) Both
(b) and (c), (e) Both (a) + (b)
Q.6.Which is relevant to bank's balance sheet?
(a) ABSA (b) NASA (c) CASA (d) NBFC
Q.7.Define the retail assets under Retail Banking?
(a) Housing loans/consumer durables /credit card receivable
(b) Auto loans/personal loans/loan against shares and debenture
(c) ECS Loans/EFT Loans/CASA Loans
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(e) Both (a) and (b) only
Q.8. Which is highest in number of commercial banks in India?
a) Branches
b) ATMs
c) Extension Counters
d) Mobile Banking
e) Internet Banking
Q.9. What is the contribution of bank's retail assets to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in India?
( a ) 6% ( b ) 1 5% ( c ) 3 3% ( d ) 2 4% ( e ) 3%
Q.10. What is not a constraint in Retail Banking?
a. Managing large number of clients in absence of ROBUST IT system
b. Rapid evolution of services
c. Maintaining ATMs centres with low costs
d. Unsecured retail loans and credit and receivables amount
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Maintaining net interest margin of 2% in housing loans beyond 75 lakhs and above.
Q.11. What is business model for retail banking in India?
a. Strategic business unit approach
b. Departmental Approach
c. Integrated approach
d. Any one of above
e. Both (a) and (b) only
Q.12. Give the names of foreign banks which entered the retail banking activities butwhen notableto achieve the business objectives moved

out of business?
a. BNP Paribas
b. American Express
c. ABN Amro (Now RSB) bank
d. Citi Bank
e. All (a) to (c)
Q.13. In retail banking which business model is adopted generally by Public Sector Banks?
a. Strategic Business Unit
b. Departmental Approach
c. Integrated Approach
d. Management by Objective Approach
Q.14. Which business model in retail banking is do adopt by new generation private sector banks
a) Strategic business unit approach
b) Departmental Approach
c) Integrated approach (part of overall business plan)
(d) Management by Objective Approach
Q.15. During 1990s, certain foreign banks went for business model in retail banking, but after certain years?
a. Continued with their business inspite of being unprofitable
b. Changed their focus with some strategic changes
c. Movedout of the business
d. None of above
Q.16. Discuss the liability products offered to retail banking customers?
a. Savings Accounts
b. Current Accounts/Term deposit accounts
c. Housing Loans/consumer durables/auto loans/credit-cards easy payments
d. Both (a) + (b)
e. All (a) to (c)
Q.17. In Liability products of retail banking what are different value propositions?
a) ATMs/Debit cards/Credit Cards/Multicity cheques, built in with savings A/c
b) Internet banking/phone banking/mobile banking tagging group insurance products to life and non-life/money sweep facilities from savings

to fixed
deposits.
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Auto overdraft facility only
Q.18. Retail asset financing is a major component of retail banking. Discuss what are those assets?
a. Housing Loans/Loan against rental receivables
b. Consumer durable loans /credit cards/salary overdraft
c. Auto loans/personal loans/loans against securities
d. All above
e. Only (a) and (c)
Q.19. Discuss the other services which are tagged under retail banking?
a) Housing loan/consumer durables loan/auto loans/personal loan/ credit card receivables
b) Saving/term/current deposits
c) Debit Cards/ATM cards/telephone banking/mobile banking
d) Internet banking/demat services/brooking services/insurance policies/mutual funds/sale of gold coins/wealth management services
e) Both (a) and (c)
Q.20. Processing of services in retail banking is basically approached, from which dimension?
a. In-house resource
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b. Some products processed in house and some are outsourced
c. Outsourcing of entire process
d. AU above
Q2I. The entire process for products and services in retail banking is done though in house resource by which category of
banks?
a. Public Sector Bank (PSB)
b. Old Private Sector and PSBs
c. New Private Sector Banks
d. Foreign Banks
Q.22. Banks adopt different process models for retail asset products and services, to build absolute process efficiencies?
a. Centralised retail asset processing centres
b. Centralised processing for some assets only
c. Regional processing hubs
d. Stand alone processing at branches (e) Any of above
Q.23. What are the process models which commonly banks adopt for retail liability?
a. Centralised processing for opening of account/issue of PB/ Cheque book/ATM card
b. Regional processing Hubs, all above activities
c. Opening of SB A/cs at branches add issue of PB and cheque book/ ATM Cards/PIN Mailers also at the stand alone,
(d) Any of above
Q.24. In pricing of products and services is based on certain fundamental parameters. Which are those parameters?
a) Market dynamics/risk perception/return expectations/customer profile
b) Tenor/duration/resources position/asset-liability management position
c) Any of above
d) Both (a) and (b)
25. Pricing of products and services in banks is mainly driven on the basis of bases?
a. Asset Liability Management
b. Regulatory advices from RBI
c. Structured step up pricing practice
d. Both (a) and (b)
Q.26. Price structuring for products and services is attempted by banks in the following ways -
(a) Stand alone pricing for different services
(b) Special concessional quotes for high net worth depositors and retail depositors
(c) Bundled pricing/Holistic pricing based on total relationship (d) All above (e) Any of above
Q.27. Why structuring is adopted by banks in retail banking?
Offer holistic pricing across of specific bundling of services so the total price proposition becomes attractive customer
Offer holistic pricing across of specific bundling of services so the total price proposition becomes profitable to bank
Offer holistic pricing across of specific bundling of services so the total price proposition becomes attractive to high net worth clients

only d) All above
Q.28. Which category of banks adopt price bundling of product and services?
(a) Public sector banks (b) Private sector banks
(c) Foreign banks
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.29. Public sector banks (nationalised + IDBI bank + SBI and 5 associates and Bhartiya Mahilla Bank Ltd.) have price concerns as well as

rebates in
pricing structure. What is the basis of its application?
a) Volumes of transaction
b) Quantum
c) Relationship with bank d) All above
30. Banks do have structure for pricing additional models. Under it what are benefits made available to customers other than rebates of

discounts as
alternative pricing propositions?
(a) Free remittance facilities
(b) Issue of demand drafts free of charges
(c) Waiver of service or processing charges (d) All above e) Any of above
Q.31. Technology and retail banking are inseparable. Technology is the enabler for building and translating a customer data base into retail

banking business. Such data are
usable to
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a. Increase the scope for cross selling
b. Increase the scope for up-selling
c. Get due about the level to which data base is organised
d. aII above
e. Any one of above
Q.32. Distinguish retail banking with corporate banking and state which is retail banking?
a. Individuals segment/mass market/business to customer approach
b. Wholesale clients/smaller segment/business to business approach
c. High ticket size/high risk/low returns/monitoring less laborious
high deposit cost
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.33. What special features are there in retail banking compared to wholesale banking?
a) Low NPA impact
b) Cost of deposits lesser
c) Monitoring of advances less laborious
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.34. To which type of banking we get higher returns/lesser risk/cheaper cost of deposits/impact of NPA lesser/Low ticket size of loan etc.?
a. Retail Banking
b. Wholesale Banking
c. B2B Banking
(d) Corporate Banking
Q.35. What is the latest level of technology in Public Sector Banks?
ALPM
a) Single Server environment
b) Core banking solution, C) single platform environment (d) Truncation
Q.36. Which implementation model banks adopt in retail banking processes?
a. Horizontally organised model
b. Vertically organised model
c. Predominantly vertically organised model
d. Predominantly Horizontally organised model
e. Anyone of above
Q.37. When is the horizontal model adopted in retail banking?
a. Level of customer information available in a single platform
b. Offering multiple products/services
c. Offering services across assets, liabilities and other services
d. All of above
Q.38. When the vertically organised model provides functionality under retail banking?
a) Centralised Tistomer data base
b) Common informations availability to other models
c) Scope for enlarging the scope for cross-selling and up selling d )All above
Q.39. Which concept of retail banking is adopted under standard norm by PSBs in India?
a. Horizontally organised model
b. Vertically organised model
c. Predominantly vertically organised model
d. Predominantly horizontally organised model
Q.40. What are the basic structure of retail banking?
a) Retail Assets
b) Retail Liability ,c )Third Party Products, d) All above
ANSWER
1 C 2 E 3 E 4 D 5 D 6 A 7 E 8 B 9 A 10 C
11 D 12 E 13 B 14 A 15 C 16 D 17 C 18 E 19 E 20 D
21 B 22 E 23 C 24 D 25 D 26 D 27 A 28 D 29 D 30 D
31 D 32 A 33 D 34 A 35 C 36 E 37 D 38 D 39 A 40 D
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2. RETAIL BANKING – ROLE WITHIN THE BANK OPERATIONS : TEST YOURSELF
Q.41. Which segment of customers have the highest share in retail banking?
a) Mass Market
b) Max affluent and super affluent
c) High Net Worth
d) All except (c)
Q.42. Why bank customers buy the products and services, to satisfy which of their needs?
a. Physiological needs/esteem needs
b. Safety needs/social needs/self actualization needs
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Any of (a) or (b)
Q.43. For physiological needs, the retail banking covers which kinds of services?
a) Core savings accounts/personal accident cover/housing loans
b) Recurring + fixed deposits/life insurance policies/tax planning
c) Consumer/Personal/Home/Auto Loans
d) Insurance Cover/retail gold coins/health policies/mutual fund schemes
Q.44. For esteem needs of individual, what service are covered?
a) Special term deposits/second housing loans/home decor loans
b) Term insurance products/house improvement
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Any of (a) and (b)
Q.45. For self actualization needs, what products and services are covered under retail banking?
a. Pensioners loans/retirement situations/pension plans in insurance
b. Senior Citizen term deposits/reverse mortgage
c. Any of above
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.46. Discuss the expectations by the customers from the service quality of banks?
(a) Tangibles-Reliablility-Responsiveness
(b) Assurance-Empathy
(c) Courtesy-Creatibility-Security
(d)Both (a) and (b)
Q.47. Discuss the measures needed to enhance service quality in bank services with regard to savings deposits?
(a) Need to improve dress code of the staff at branch
(b) Need to improve transactions time at every branch and enhance, adequate number of channels in addressing customers needs
(c) Need to imprwe the faces of the computer operator who should be young below 30 and not above 30 years of age
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.48. Housing loan should be sanctioned and disbursed to applicant from the present ceiling of 14 days, for ideal customer
requirements?
(a) 10 working days
(b) 7 working days
(c) 5 days
(d) Should not do hurriedly
Q.49. PSBs have to enhance the service quality and for that what measure could be taken?
(a) Strengthen performance and recruit employees through trainings
(b) Enhance range of products features and customer friendly modules
(c) Customers' expectations never ends even under best performance hence no additional measures
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.50. What are the requirements of customers from banks?
(a) Right product mix for different segments
(b) Right channel mixing of both direct and e-channel
(c) Delivery of promises with regard to services on time (d) All above
(e) Only (a) and (c)
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ANSWER
41 A 42 C 43 A 44 C 45 D 46 D 47 B 48 B 49 D 50 D
3. APPLICABILITY OF RETAIL BANKING CONCEPTS : TEST YOURSELF
Q,51. Discuss the bank's product/service life cycle?
a. Introduction-growth and decline
b. Introduction-growth and maturity
c. Introduction-maturity and decline
d. Introduction-growth-maturity and decline
Q52. At which life cycle any bank should aim for keeping the product/service for larger period?
a. Maturity stage
b. Growth stage
c. Introduction stage
d. All above
Q.53. At which stage of life cycle of a product the sales volume are low and revenues are insufficient?
a) Introduction
b) Growth
c) Maturity
d) Decline
Q54. At which stage of life cycle of a product, there is likelihood of break even point and generation of profit to start?
a. Maturity
b. Introduction
c. Maturity
d. Decline
Q.55. When the sales or incomes volume are at peak in the life cycle of a product or service?
a. Introduction
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Decline
Q36. A product become less attractive for the customers due to various reasons. At which stage of life cycle of a product or service this

happens?
a. Introduction
b. Decline
c. Maturity
d. Competitions
Q.57. Some products will have an instant death immediately, at which stage?
a. Introduction phase
b. Decline phase
c. Consumer perception phase
d. Maturity phase
Q38. Product/service life cycle depends on?
a. Core service
b. Augmented product
c. Subsidiary Service
d. Both (a) and (b)
Q.59. in banks what are core products or services?
a. Internet banking and mobile banking
b. Life Insurance products selling
c. Savings /current/term deposits and group health products
d. Demand and time deposits and group health products
Q.60. Which kind of bank products and services need arises for marketing orientation?
a. Core products
b. Augmented products
c. Remittances
d. RTGS
Q.61. What are the various types of products, which a bank is required to market?
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a. Liability Product/Asset Products/Remittance Services/fee based services
b. Deposits-Products/Retail Credit Products/Deposit Services
c. Liability Product/Retail Credit Products/banassurance
d. Both (a) and (c)
Q.62, Why KYC norms have been made compulsory in banks while opening accounts?
a. Name, address of the customer and source of funds
b. Identity and genuineness address verification and risk perception
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. To know the biographical/professional personal and debt profile of the customer
Q.63 Advise an asset product which is required to be adjusted in a very short time?
a. Demand Loan
b. Bill Finance
c. Guarantees
d. Overdraft
Q64. Tick an asset product which is self liquidating?
a. Overdraft
b. 610 Finance
c. Credit Card receivables
d. Personal Loan
Q.65. Services which a bank provides under remittances?
a. Draft-bankers' cheques
b. NEFT and RTGS
c. Drafts/bankers cheques/telegraphic transfer
d. Both (c) and (b)
Q.66. What are Non-Fund Based services by the banks?
a. Letter of Guarantee and Letter of Credit
b. Sanction letters
c. Loans and advances
d. Drafts and Telegraphic Transfer
Q.67. Mark the features of a Letter of Credit?
a. No fund outlay+Liability depends upon the happening of an event
b. Accepts the liability of the customer
c. On future date the liability may not crystatise
d. Fund facility and can augment bank's income
Q.68. What are the stages in new product architecture?
a. Idea generation/idea screening/concepts testing
b. Concept testing/business analysis and market analyze /test of marketing
c. Idea screening/idea generation/test marketing and commercialisation
d. Both (b) and (c)
Q.69. There is actual products development example in PS8s in recent years called deposit cum credit linked product for women, what its
features are?
a. Opening of a recurring deposit account and availing loan in fixed multiples of R.D A/c instalment
b. Opening of a fixed deposit account for 3 years and availing loan in fixed multiples of FDR
c. Opening of a savings bank a/c vi.ith balance of Rs. 1000 and availing loan of Rs. 5000 repayable in 30 monthly instalment
d. Open any deposit account and after 3 months avail loan as per women's husband's monthly income.
Q.70. New Product/Service development is very easy, but subject to certain constraints. What are those constraints?
a. Heterogeneity of customers and product obsolescence due to technological revolution
b. Bigger product range/difficult to convert easy ideas into product development/resistance from bank employees due to increase in their

work load
c. Homogenous customers in Metros and wider competition from other banks
d. Both (a) and (b) only
Q.71. What are the generic unbranded products in banks?
a. Savings account/term deposits/current a/c
b. Demand Loans/term loans/guarantees
c. Letter of Credit/recurring deposit/issue of demand drafts
d. All above
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Q.72. in product management, the expected product/service has the incorporation features like -
a. Customer expectations
b. Banker expectations
c. Customer banker expectations
d. Competitor's product and bankers' strategies
Q.73 When any voluntary improvements are made by banks in their products in order to market them what is this called?
a. Potential Product
b. Augmented Product
c. Expected Product
d. Generic Product
Q.74. Everything that might be done to attract and hold customers under product development, is called?
a. Augmented Product
b. Generic Product
c. Expected Product
d. Potential Product
Q.75. One of the main tasks in product management is called?
a. Product Management
b. Product Development
c. Product Policy
d. Product Evolution
Q.76. What are the concepts in Product Policy?
a. Appraisal or review of product and individual products
b. Decisions on product differentiation and positioning
c.Packaging and brand decisions and new product development
d. Both (a) and (c)
e. Both (a) to (c)
Q.77. Appraisal of product line and individual products is essential, where there is change in customer's?
a. Environment/preferences
b. Change in bank's policy due to change in top management
c.Priorities
d. All above
Q.78. Decisions on product differentiation means?
a. Differentiating features of product/alongwith the unique selling proposition
b. Differentiating benefits and satisfaction to customers (c) Both (a) + (b) (d) None of above
Q.79. Unique Selling Proposition (USP) is nothing but a?
a. Value addition to the product
b. Differentiation strategy of the product
c. Higher income to the bank/vendor
d. Edge over the customers
Q.80. What is product positioning?
a. Positioning is what you do to the product
b. Positioning as the art of selecting out of a number of unique selling proposition
c. Positioning is non-understanding of prospective or existing customers mind
d. Both (a) and (b)
Q.81. In product policy marketing what is the most important?
a. Branding
b. Positioning
c. Differentiation
d. Reviews of product
Q.82. Branding is very powerful tool in marketing. Why is this important for banks?
a. Relationship Building
b. Competitive Positioning
c. Creates prospective-customer's awareness d) Both (a) + (b) only e) All (a) to (c)
17 .
Q.83. In marketing, when catchy and attractive names for the products are accorded by the bank, then what is this
called?
a) Art of selection
b) Branding for relationship building ,
c) Edge over competitors
d) Customer preferences
Q.84. What is true in product development?
a. Customers are different and their needs are different
b. Customers are different and each customer in will have different sets of need for financial services
c. Needs of customers are uniform though customer themselves are different
d. Both (a) + (b)
ANSWERS
51 D 52 A 53 A 54 C 55 C 56 B 57 C 58 D 59 C 60 A
61 A 62 C 63 D 64 B 65 D 66 A 67 A 68 B 69 A 70 D
71 D 72 A 73 B 74 B 75 C 76 E 77 A 78 C 79 A 80 B
81 A 82 E 83 B 84 B
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4. MODULE : B – RETAIL PRODUCTS
4. CUSTOMER REQUIREMENTS : TEST YOURSELF
1. The customer segment whose income level is between Rs. 10 lacs to Rs.50 lacs is referred to as
(i) Mass Affluent
(ii) Super Affluent
(iii) HNW Ans: I
2. According to Maslow's Need Hierarchy Theory, needs may be broadly classified as
(i) Physiological Needs
(ii) Safety Needs
(iii) Social Needs
(iv) Esteem Needs
(v) Self Actualisation Needs
(vi) All the above. Ans: VI
3. Customers' expectations of service quality mainly depend on the following :
(i) Tangibility in services.
(ii) Reliability.
(iii) Responsiveness.
(iv) Assurance
(v) Empathy.
(vi) All the above. Ans: VI
5. PRODUCT DEVELOPMENT PROCESS : TEST YOUR-SELF
State whether the following is true :
(i) Customers are different.
(ii) Needs of the customers are different
(iii) Each customer will have different sets of need for financial services.
(iv) i and ii are true
(v.) i and iii are true
(vi) i, ii and iii are true Ans: VI
2. Statement 1 - In the introduction' stage of a product, the sales volume will be low and revenue
from the products will not be sufficient to cover the cost of producing, marketing and servicing it.
Statement 2 - In the 'growth' stage, which is the second stage in the product life cycle, the sales volumes remains stagnant.
(i) Statement 1 is true
(ii) Statement 2 is true
(iii) Statement 1 and 2 are true Ans: I
3. Product architecture consists of the following component/s
(i) The Generic Product - the core product.
(ii) The Expected Product - adding additional features.
(iii) The Augmented Product- adding value in addition to features.
(iv) The Potential Product - futuristic features in anticipation.
(v) All the above Ans: V
6. CREDIT SCORING : TEST YOURSELF
85. What do you mean by Credit Score?
a. Risk Perception
b. Assessing Credit Worthiness
c. Snap shot of consumer's credit report
d. All above
Q.86. Credit score is a credit report and turns the information with 3-digit number representing the amount of risk to a particular
transaction. What is that 3-digit score?
a) 300
19 .
b) 600
c) 900
d) 990
Q.87. What kinds of risk are common in retail banking?
a. Credit risk, business risk, market-risk, operational risk
b. Solvency risk/Technical risk/Country risk/Contingency risk
c. Liquidity risk/interest rate risk/foreign exchange risk/commodity price and equity price risks
d. Environmental risk/contingency risk/concept risk
Q.88. Credit Risk means?
a) Loosing money due to wrong selection
b) Change in market price of products
c) Customer decline/fails to pay
d) Processing failures and frauds
Q.89. Market risk means risk arising from the adverse changes in the market variables. What are those variables are?
a. Interest rates/foreign exchange rates/equity price
b. Liquidity/commodity price
c. Funding risk/time risk/call risk
d. Both (a) + (b) only
Q.90. Deregulation of interest rate has exposed the banks in the adverse impact of interest rate risk may take the firm of?
a) Gap or mismatch in off balance sheet items/basis risk/embedded option risk
b) Operational risk/solvency risk/technical risk
c) Country risk/environmental risk/contingency risk
d) Both (b) and (c)
Q 91 What strategies are adopted by banks for managing risk and profitability?
a. Guidelines on delegation of power and accountability
b. Strengthening of credit appraisal mechanism/risk of wilful default be checked by presanction inspections and verification of
antecedents.
c. Meaningful post-disbursal monitoring for early identification of
signs of incipient sickness.
d. All above
e. Only (b) and (c)
Q.92. In credit scoring. Credit information bureaus what highest weightage is given to which item?
a) Payment history
b) Amount owed
c) Length of credit history
d) Types of credit in use
Q.93. In credit scoring, model used by CIBIL-Trans Union what attributes are used?
a. Credit utilisation by customer
b. Payment history, whether any defaults made
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Craving for credit enhancement
Q.94. For a good credit score which indicators should be seen?
a) Proof of financial discipline/longer period credit history
b) Whether defaulted reasons beyond control
c) None of above
d) Both (a) + (b)
Q.95. Discuss the warning signals in credit score?
a. Craving for credit/frequent and unnecessary shopping for credit
b. Several requests for loan or additional limits/mix of credit facilities conversative
c. Both (a) + (b)
d. The above are not warning signals at all
Q.96. Credit information bureau of India Ltd. is owned by?
(a) Dun and Brad street +5.B. India +HDFC bank +Trans union international Inc.
(b) Bank of India +HSBC+ICICI Bank+Central Bank of India
20 .
(c)Syndicate Bank + Bank of Baroda + Citi Bank + Allahabad Bank
(d)Both (a) and (b) only
Q.97. What is the purpose of credit scoring for banks?
a. Price for the risk + speed up credit decisions and disbursement
b. Prepare customer information reports
c. To know the reason about differentiation in rates of interest
d. Any person can access his/her credit report directly
Q.98. Set out the mistakes as occur in credit scoring?
a) Confusion in names due to similarity in names
b) Human input error/identity theft which are exploited
c) Both (a) + .(b)
d) No mistakes in credit scoring occur
Q.99. When one feels chances of error in credit scoring, then what steps could be taken for clarification in the credit report?
a) Ask the bank who declined credit, to provide the control number of 9 digit for the credit report
b) Call for help on CIBIL website www.cibil.com and inform the exact nature of discrepancies as pointed out by bank
c) If bank is in-cooperative then lodge a complaint in the bank's website and on failure to receive any answer within 15
days, lodge a complaint with Banking Ombudsman
d) All above
e) Only (a) + (b)
Q 100. Define the eligibility norms for availing housing loans?
f) Individual/group of individual/members of residential co-op.
society
g) Should not be enjoying credit facility elsewhere and should not
be defaulter in any other credit facility
h) Should has regular income from salary or business. Salaried
class hould have minimum 3 years confirmed service. Applicant's age should not be more than 55 to 60 years at the
time of loan application
i) All above
Q.101. For what purposes housing loan can be sanctioned by banks?
j) Purchase of new house/old house or flat and for extension of owned house.
k) Old house is age should not be more than 5 to 20 years Purchase of new flat/house/land and/or extension of house/
construction of new house/flat
l) Both (a) + (b)
m) None of above
Q.102. How much loan amount and period can be sanctioned under housing loan to a middle class family's individuals who is aged 25 years?
a) Loan upto 75 lakhs and upto 30 years
b) Loan upto 150 lakhs and period upto 20 years
c) Loan upto 500 lakhs and period upto 25 years
d) Both (b) + (c)
Q.103. Considering floating interest rate @10.5% on housing loan, how the loan quantum is decided by banks?
n) Age of applicant and repaying capacity based on total earnings minus 60% monthly.
o) Age of applicant and repaying capacity based on total earning minus under the ceiling of total deductions of 40%
including housing loan proposed instalment
p) Age of applicant and repaying capacity based on total earning and total deductions
q) Age immaterial and loans upto any limit to High Net Worth individuals
Q.104. What is the security taken by banks, under Housing loan proposals?
r) First legal mortgage of the housing property financed
s) Equitable mortgage of the housing property financed, which should be in the name of applicant or jointly with co-obligant,
with clear title
t) Power of attorney issued to the bank by the applicant under clear title of the property
u) All above
Q.105. How the housing loan is disbursed when the already completed property is purchased?
a) Loan amount is disbursed in one go based on the agreement
to sale and its registration with registrar of assurance completion in the name of buyer of flat/house.
21 .
b) Total purchase price reduced by margin paid by the applicant, becomes loan amount which is disbursed in one go by bank based on
the agreement to sale and after its registration with Registrar of assurances, completed in the name of the buyer of the flat/hOuse
c) Balance amount after margin payment, loan amount which is disbursed by the bank in installments
d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.106. Is there any moratorium period under housing loan?
e) Holiday period upto 24 months for construction completion
f) Holiday period upto 3 months for purchase of completed flats/house
g) Both (a) and (b)
h) No Holiday period
Q.107. What is the minimum margin under housing loan the applicant has to maintain?
i) 25%
j) 20%
k) Both (a) + (b)
l) No margin
Q.108. What are the purposes for which house improvement loans can be availed for?
m) Major Repair/renovation/upgradation/painting and other repairs
n) Major Repair/upgradation/other repairs
o) Repairs/renovation/painting
p) Renovation/painting/other reports
Q.109. The margins under house improvement loans are different than housing purchase loans, which is?
q) Margin 25% to 50%
r) Margin 20% to 30%
s) Margin 50% to 60%
t) Full loan granted
Q.110. What are the securities which can be given by any borrower house improvement loans, to banks and financial institutions?
u) Equitable mortgage of house property under repair/renovation
v) Legal mortgage of house property under repairs/renovation
(c ) English mortgage of house property (d) Any other encumbered immovable property
Q.111. Repayment of repair/renovation housing loans can be made in?
a) 5 years maximum , b) 5 to 10 years c) 20 years , d) Within 2 years
Q.112. Passenger Bus loans require the following eligibility norms to be complied by an applicant?
w) Individual in conformed service in Govt./PSU/reputed private sector organisation
x) Individual unemployed and possessing heavy duty vehicle driving licence
y) Individual having licensed-driving of 3 years experience, who will drive the bus for the applicant
z) Any Individual who is an atleast graduate, unmarried and not employed anywhere.
Q.113. Loan for 3 wheeler, autorickshaw require certain eligibility norms, such as?
aa) Individual who possess driving licence for driving public transport for at least 3 years and having batch number and
bb) minimum gross monthly income 6,000
cc) Business people who run giving of autorickshaws on rent
dd) Individual, who are minimum graduate and posses driving licence
ee) Limited companies having shareholders who possess driving licence and minimum experience of driving 5 years
Q.114. Car loans from banks can be availed by observing the eligibility norms as below?
ff) Individual in confirmed service of Govt./PSUs/reputed private organisations and minimum income 10,000 p.m.
gg) Individual who are professionals and self employed/persons during their business
hh) Individual employed in any service or during business but preserving driving licence for minimum period of one year
ii) Individual possessing driving licence and aged unto 70 years
jj) Both (a) (b)
Q.115. For can loan, what security can be granted by applicant to the bank?
a. Hypothecation of the vehicle (car) to be purchased out of loan
b. Hypothecation of any vehicle, whether old or new
c. Pledge of car to be purchased out of loan
d. Mortgage of new car to be purchased out of loan
Q.116. While availing any vehicle loan (autorickshaw/ passenger/Jeep/Car/Taxi) how much period of moratorium is granted by
bank?
a. 6 months
22 .
b. No moratorium, repayment starts one month after vehicle's possession
c. 3 months
d. Moratorium at the discretion of the bank
Q.117. Discuss the maximum repayment period given for two wheelers, four wheelers and passenger bus which are allowed by
banks in providing loans?
kk) Two Wheelers - 60 months Four Wheelers - 84 months Old Cars/Jeep - 60 months
ll) Two Wheelers - 36 months Four Wheelers - 60 months Old Cars - 48 months
mm) Two Wheelers - 48 months Four Wheelers - 84 months Old Cars/bus - 60 months
nn) Discretion of the bank and reputation of the borrower
Q.118. While granting vehicle loans by the bank, to the applicant, what is the security eventually required other then the vehicle?
oo) Personal security of the spouse
pp) Personal security of third party with good net worth
qq) Security of the life insurance policy of the applicant (d) Both (a) + (b)
Q.119. For retail loans do the banks charge any processing fee from the applicant? What are its minimum and maximum
ceiling? a ) Home loans - 0.50% maximum ceiling 12500 and minimum 500
Vehicle loans - 0.50% maximum ceiling 12500 and minimum 500
b) Home loans - 1.00% maximum ceiling z 12500 and minimum 1,000
Vehicle loans - 1.00% maximum ceiling 12500 and minimum 1,000
c) Home loans - 2.00% maximum ceiling 12500 and minimum 2,000
Vehicle loans - 2.00% maximum ceiling z 12500 and minimum 2,000
d) Fixed amount of 5000 for Housing loan
Fixed amount of 3000 for Vehicle loan
Fixed amount of 1000 for Wheeler loan
Q.120. Can you tell us the margin range under vehicle loans for two wheelers and four-wheelers?
rr) Minimum 10% cost price for two wheelers and 15% on four wheelers 25% for old cars
ss) Nil margin for two wheelers an 30% margin for 4 wheelers 50% for old cars
tt) Margins vary as per loan quantum. Bigger the loan, bigger the margin, lower the loan lower the margins
uu) For two-wheelers and 4 wheelers margin @20% of cost of vehicle
Q.121. How to define personal loans granted by bank?
vv) Loans granted on the personal security (goodwill) of the borrower.
ww) Loans granted are backed by personal guarantees of the lender
xx) Loans granted by borrower to lender on the image of the borrower
yy) Both (a) (b)
Q.122. Personal Loans are kinds ofzz)
Big Ticket and small ticket
aaa)Medium Ticket and Big Ticket
bbb)Large and small loans
ccc) Micro and Macro loans
Q.123. Discuss the grounds of eligibility for availing personal loans by any applicant, from the bank, are
ddd)Any confirmed employee of public or private sector
eee) For any social/financial commitment/with personal guarantee of the applicant and repayment in 36 to 60 months
fff) For any social/financial purposes under personal guarantee of the applicant with repayment ranging beyond 60 EMIs
ggg) Both (a) and (b)
Q.124. Define big ticket personal loans?
An unsecured loan given for any social/financial purpose in the
a) average range of one lakh and above.
b) A secured personal loan given for social/financial commitment of the borrower in the average range of 2 lakhs and above.
c) An unsecured loan given to any borrower as personal loan in the range of 0.75 lakhs to 5 lakhs and below
d) Loans given to High Net Worth Customers only
Q.125. What types of students are eligible under Education Loans?
a. Students intending for purpose higher studies specialisation in India and abroad, like IIM/IIT
b. Students above the age of 18 and intend to pursue higher studies, post graduation in Arts/Science/Commerce
c. Students below 18 years of age with parents as co-obligent can avail loans for studies like MBA/CA/Medical/B.A (Music) in India
d. Students of foreign origin, desiring to study in India in specialisation courses
23 .
Q.126. What are the ceiling for loan amount in education for studies in India and abroad?
a) 10.00 lakhs (India) 20 lakhs (for abroad) with parents as guardian
b) 10.00 lakhs (India) 20 lakhs (for abroad) with students guarantee alone
c) 7.50 lakhs (India) with one personal guarantor, collateral 15 lakhs (abroad) with are personal guarantor, collateral
d) 7.50 lakhs (India) for SC/ST students only 15 lakhs (abroad) for SC/ST students only
127. What is the limit of amount of education loan upto which no collateral security is required except the parents as co-obligent?
a) 7..50 lakhs
b) 5.00akhs
c) Collateral is a must for all 4 fakhs
Q.128. Is there any retail loan in banks where simple interest rate charged by banks?
(a) Housing Loan
(b) Car Loan
(c) Education Loan
(d) Personal Loan
Q.129. If the housing loan is granted above Rs. 7.50 lakhs but upto Rs. 10 lakh in India. How it is going to be secured?
a. Tangible asset to cover 100% Security like NSC/KVP/Bonds
b. Two personal guarantors with double the amount of loan
c. Only are guarantor with worth over 10 lakhs
d. No guarantor required
Q.130. What kinds of loans under retail banking are disbursed in stages?
a) House under construction/education loan
b) Vehicle loan and personal loan
c) Personal loan and education loan
d) House under construction loan and personnel loan
Q.131. Retail loan Processing Centres of banks are designed to?
a. Source retail asset business
b. Process retail loans
c. Valuation work/Legal opinion work
d. Release the loan either at centre's end or advise sanction to branches
Q.132. Processing of retail loans the models available are
a) Stand alone and centralised
b) Loan factory and loan hub
c) Asset Processing model
d) Branches. model
Q.133. Stand alone model for retail loan processing means?
a. Processing independently at branch level
b. Sanction at branch level as per eligibility/obtaining of necessary documents/valuation and legal opinion
c. Both (a) + (b)
d. Processing and sanction done at central level
Q.134. Centralised model for retail loans processing refers to at -
a) Centralised place
b) Loan hub
c) Loan Factory
d) Head Office
Q.135. Write the full form of RLPC?
a. Reliance Licence Production Centre
b. Regional Level Primary Centre
c. Retail Loan Processing Centre
d. Retail Liquid Product Corporation
24 .
ANSWER
85 D 86 C 87 A 88 C 89 D 90 A 91 B 92 A 93 C 94 D
95 C 96 D 97 A 98 C 99 D 100 D 101 A 102 A 103 B 104 B
105 B 10 C 107 C 108 A 109 A 110 A 111 B 112 B 113 A 114 E
115 A 116 B 117 A 118 D 119 A 120 A 121 A 122 A 123 D 124 A
125 A 126 C 127 A 128 C 129 A 130 A 131 D 132 A 133 C 134 A
135 C
7. IMPORTANT RETAIL ASSETS PRODUCTS : Test Yourself
8.
1. Home Loans are sanctioned by Banks for the following purposes:
(i) Purchase/Construction of House.
(ii) Purchase/Construction of Flat
, (iii) Purchase of land and construction
(iv) Additions to the existing house
(v) All the above. Ans: v
2. Auto Loans are given by banks for the following purposes:
(i) Purchase of New Car
(ii) Purchase of Used Car
(iii) Purchase of Two Wheelers
(iv) All the above.Ans: iv
3. Personal Loans are sanctioned by banks based on
(i) Salary in case of employees
(ii) Monthly/Annual Income in case of business
(iii) Number of years of service/in business
(iv) All the above. Ans: iv
4. Retail Loan Processing Centres of banks are designed to
(i) Source retail asset business
(ii) Process retail loans
(iii) Do the valuation/legal opinion wherever necessary
(iv) Release the loan either at their end or advise sanction to branches. Ans: iv
8. Credit & Debit Card : TEST YOURSELF
Q.136.What is a credit card? A plastic card which
a. Contains identification information
b. Authorises named person to charge purchases/services
c. Charges for which person will be billed periodically
d. All above
Q.137. Identification informations on credit card can be read by?
a) ATMs
b) Point of Sales Terminals
c) Both (a) + (b)
d) Branch Manager
Q.138. The concept behind a credit card is -
a. Use now, debit later
b. Buy now, pay later , c. Pay now, get credit later
(d) Lend now and do not reimburse
Q.139. Which are the main issuers of credit cards in the world and in India?
(a) Visa and Master Card
(b) Amex and Intenational (c) RTGS and NSS
(d) Visa, Master and Amex cards
25 .
Q.140. Features of credit card is/are
(a) Key to opening of bank accounts for daily payments (b) Substitute
of cash
c) Issuing bank/financial institution knows the creditworth new of customer
d) All above
Q.141. Credit card has the benefit to bank, its advantages are
a. Increase the credit and its reputation with public
b. Growth of interest income
c. Earns commission from business establishment
d. All above
Q.142. What are the advantage of card holder?
a) Sanction of credit limit by bank
b) Outstanding overdraft of period between 25 to 27 days
c) Does not require cash carrying and its risk of loss
d) Both (a) + (b)
Q.143. Discuss the types of credit cards in India
e) Charge Card/Smart Card/Restructued card/ATM card/Kissan credit card
f) Debit card/chip card/Member card/whitelabel card (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of above
Q.144. The difference between credit and debit cards is
g) Account gets debited on use of credit card immediately
h) Account gets debited on use, of debit card immediately
i) Account does not gets debited immediately on use of debit card
j) None of above
Q.145. From credit card, credit risk to the bank is high from
k) Credit card holder
l) Debit card holder
m)Both (a) and (b)
n) None of above
Q.146. The bank which pays the merchant for the transactions is called
o) Issuer bank
p) Clearing bank
q) Acquirer bank
r) None of above
Q.147. Name the credit card wherein transactions by the cardholders are accumulated over a month, is called
s) Smart Card
t) Charge Card
u) Member Card
v) Chip Card
Q.148. What is the difference between a credit and charge card? In charge card requirements are -
w)Amount becomes payable on debit to account
x) Charge Card holder would warrant, a account in concerned bank
y) Both (a) + (b)
z) Any of (a) and (b)
Q.149. What is Debit card?
aa) It is a mobile purse
bb) Automatically debits card holder's account
cc)Allows withdrawal upto credit balance in the account
dd) All above
Q.150. Difference between Debit and cards are there. Credit cards are superior to debit cards in -
ee) Higher borrowing power on the bank upto your credit worthiness
ff) Bigger social status since one avails credit
gg) Both (a) + (b)
hh) Only (a)
26 .
Q.151. Are three advantage of credit card to the member establishment?
Increase in sales due to increased purchasing power of card holders
ii) No direct credit to customers/systematic accounting
jj) No advertising and promotional activities required/assured and immediate settlement payments
kk) All above
ll) Only (a) + (b)
Q.152. Which plastic cards has got the advantages of giving cash back on purchases and discounts at retail outlets?
mm)Debit card
nn) Credit card
oo) Both (a) + (b)
pp) ATM card
Q.153. Payments of credit cards is done by banks under
qq) RTGS
rr) ECS
ss)CBS
tt) None
Q.154. Out of Debit and Credit Cards which are is more attractive to a customer for availing facilities of-No charges/No service
tax/replaces ATM card
uu) Debit card
vv)Credit card
ww) ATM card
xx)Smart card
Q.155. What are the requirement for Debit Cards by RBI?
yy) Barred from tying up with no bank entities to withdraw cash/make deposits
zz)Monitoring of SLR/CRR on creation of deposits through cards
aaa) Both (a) + (b)
bbb)None of above
Q.156. Salient features of credit cards are -
ccc) Accepted globally through affiliation with visa/master/amex cards/ issued with credit/up to upper limit/regular billing cycle and

billing
date/personal accident insurance cover available to customer
ddd)Rewards points are awarded for card holder having classes of silver/gold/platinum/titanium/reward points are redeemable/ cash book offer
between 2% to 10% but under a ceiling/add on facility available/liability for card holder in case of loss of cards limited to

1000andthebalance by
misusancecompany online purchases possible through every time new password
eee) Both (a) + (b)
fff)Some features..of (a) and some of (b) only
Q.157. In the account opening form for issue of credit card, when the customer is already credit cardholder with other institution,
what details and outstanding balance declaration are required?
ggg) Optional-details of other credit cards and outstanding balances therein
hhh)Compulsory-details of other credit cards and outstanding balances there is -
iii) Company details of the credit cards but outstanding balance, optimal
jjj) Optimal-details of other credit cards
Q.158. Nomination details, after the death of cardholder are required to be given, while submitting credit card application form.
This is essential for purpose of?
kkk) To pay credit card dues by nominee
lll) To get insurance cover as nominee
mmm) To reimburse loss by insurance company after the loss of card, as nominee
nnn)Not required
Q.159. Various parameters are judged by the card issuer for higher credit card scoring. Name such parameters
a) Age between 31-45 years/professional or postgraduate/serving in government organisation or PSU/self employed or owner/ length of service

5 yrs. and
above in profession or business
b) Lesser number of dependents/self owned house/selfed owned car/income upto 2 Iakhs yearly/spouse income below
5 lakhs/no card holder earlier
c) Integrity/character/conduct satisfactory bank experience deposit upto 1 Iakh with bank/banking with bank upto 6 months/owning two

wheelers/residing in
rented house
d) Application between 45-49 years/ever under graduate/serving with public Ltd./Length of service between lyr. to 2 years/happy family of 5

persons
27 .
Q.160. Ordinarily there are only two kinds of cards (plastic money) viz. Credit cards and debit cards. It there is any other card to be

given as gift and issued by
corporates?
ooo)Smart Card
ppp)Pre Loaded Cards
qqq)Prepaid Cards
rrr) Both (b) (c)
Q.161. Credit cards issued by banks, to award cash back points is/are called
sss) Titanium/Platinum/Gold/Silver Card
ttt) Platinum/Gold/Silver Card'
uuu)Platinum/Gold Card
vvv) Gold and Silver Card
Q.162. Payments default risk is embedded in which type of cards?
www) Debit card
xxx) Credit card
yyy) Both (a) + (b)
zzz) None
Q.163. Banks charges levied for which kind of services on the card holders are -
aaaa) Finance charges, where part amount paid of the total payment
bbbb) Minimum amount due means one debits/previous unpaid payments and other charges
cccc) Annualised percentage rate-monthly interest when annualised
dddd) Only (b) + (c)
eeee) All (a) to (c)
Q.164. What is meant by other charges levied by banks to card holders?
(a) Cash advance transaction fees/card replacement (lost, reissue) charges
(b) Overdue penalty-late payment fee-over limit penalty/cheque dishonour fees
(c) Both (a) + (b)
(d) Card replacement/overdue penalty/over limit penalty only
Q.165. Forex cards are issued by banks to substitutea)
Foreign currency notes
b) Travellers cheques
c) Indian currency Notes
d) Both (a) + (b)
Q.166. Demerits of Credit Cards are -
a) High membership fees and annual fees
b) High rate of interest for delayed payments and extension of time
c) (C) Tempt the cardholders for add-on members
d) Both (a) + (b)
Q.167. Demerits to issuers of credit cards
a. High cost of local made plastic card
b. High cost of imported plastic card/maketing cost
c. High cost of credit checks on applicants
d. Both (a) + (c)
e. Both (b) + (c)
Q.168. Default rate in credit cards has gone up high in recent due to-
(a) Use of debit card
(b) Use of Amex card
(c) Non utilisation or under utilisation of credit card
(d) Both (b) + (c)
(e) Use of multiple credit cards
28 .
ANSWER
136 D 137 C 138 B 139 D 140 D 141 D 142 D 143 A 144 D 145 A
146 C 147 B 148 C 149 D 150 C 151 D 152 A 153 B 154 A 155 A
156 C 157 A 158 B 159 A 160 D 161 A 162 B 163 E 164 C 165 D
166 D 167 E 168 E
9. REMITTANCE PRODUCTS : TEST YOURSELF
Q.169. Remittance Products in the retail banking are -
a) Demand draft/Pay orders/telegraphic transfer b) Real time gross settlement/National Electronic Fund Transfer/ EFT
c) Both (a) + (b), d) Only (a)
Q.170. The objective of NEFT area)
Efficient/secure/economical, funds transfe
b) Reliable/expeditions/economical/secure/efficient funds transfer
c) Relieve stress of paper based transfer and clearing system
d) Both (b) + (c)
Q.171. NEFT, the parties to the system are
a. Sending bank/sending service centre/NEFT clearing centre/ receiving service centre/beneficiary branch
b. Sending bank/sending service centre/receiving service centre/ beneficiary branch
c. Sending bank/receiving bank
d. Both (a) + (b)
Q.172. The essential elements of beneficiary identification under NEFT are -
a. Beneficiary name/branch name/bank name/account type/ account number
b. Beneficiary name/branch name/bank name/account type/ account number/branch IFSC
c. Both (a) + (b)
d. Only Beneficiary name - account number-bank branch name
Q.173. Payment to the beneficiary under NEFT is done
a) Instantly same day b) Latest on next working day by credit to account (c) Credit effected on value dated basis wherever possible
(d) All above
Q.174. What are the rights of a customer under NEFF where there is delay in completion of funds transfer
(a) Payment of delayed interest at current FDR rate (b) Payment
of delayed interest @ Bank rate @ Base rate c) No interest payable
Q.175. Whether under NEFT any compensation and/or penalty is payable to the sender in delay in completion of funds transfer
which may be decided bya)
RBI
b) Ombudsman, on complaint lodged
c) Both (a) + (b)
d) Sender bank's board of Directors
Q.176. In international remittance from NRIs what are fastest modes of remittance?
(a) Demand Draft (b) SWIFT
(c) Link, Western Union
(d) Both (b) + (c)
Q177. RTGS has replaced
a) High Value Clearing
b) Telegraphic Transfer
c) Mail Transfer
d) Both (b) -F
Q.178. The procedure for remittance through RTGS is are -
a) Request from customer for debit of account
b) Creation of structured manage
c) Communication of message after authentication/routed through central hub/credited to beneficiary account
d) All above
29 .
Q.179. The transactions carried out by RIGS is are -
a. Inter bank transactions/customer payment transactions/ delivery vs. payment transactions
b. Inter bank transactions/securities settlement transactions/ customer payment transactions
c. Customer payment transactions/delivery vs paymenttransactions
d. Customer payment transactions
Q.180. Inter bank payments and transactions mainly arise out ofa.
Treasury operations
b. RBI's securities settlement (c) Foreign currency transactions (d) e-hanking
Q.181. What is Electronic Clearing Service?
a. Mechanism to effect payments
b. Mandate favouring the beneficiary
c. Mandate favouring the account holder d) Both (a) + (b)
Q.182. Advantages of ECS
a. No need for issuing cheque for each payment
b. No payment defaults of sufficient balance available
c. No follow-up needed by the beneficiary since payment received automatically
d. All above
Q.183. Define the process flow of ECS
a) Issuing of mandate by account holder favouring beneficiary
b) It is registered with clearing house by the beneficiary
c) Proceeds are credited to the a/c of beneficiary
d) It is registered with clearing house by the account holder (e) All a+b+c
Q.184. RIGS transactions are processed
a. Instantaneously
b. Every 2 hours c) Before the business hour d) Next working day
Q.185. What are the obligations of banks under NEFF?
a) Maintain security/integrity and efficiency of system
b) After execution of payment instruction those are irrevocable
c) Payment of interest at bank rate, if delayed payment d) All above
Q.186. The characterisation of RIGS are -
a) Remittance and funds transfer are transmitted through a series of process inputs
b) Remittance are communicated through structured messaging process, and are credited on a dynamic basis
alongwith its settlement
c) Settlement for the message made on a gross basis from the liquidity maintained by the sender bank
d) All above
Q.187. RIGS applicability in retail banking is -
a) Limited
b) Unlimited
c) Partially limited d) No applicability
Q.188. RIGS has made a jump in value and numbers of transactions
a) Volume
b) Value
c) Both volumes and value d) Length and breadth
ANSWER
169 C 170 D 171 A 172 B 173 D 174 B 175 C 176 D 177 A 178 D
179 A 180 A 181 A 182 D 183 E 184 A 185 D 186 D 187 A 188 C
30 .
5.MODULE – C : MARKETING IN RETAIL BANKING
10. MARKETING IN RETAIL BANKING
TEST YOURSELF
Q,189. Marketing in retail banking means
a. Identifying needs of customers and developing appropriate product or service
b. Providing efficient delivery channels to make them avail the products continuously
c. Both (a) + (b)
d. Creations and delivery of customer satisfying services
Q.190. What are the 7Ps, ingredients for effective marketing?
a) Product/Price/Promotion/Place/People/Process/Physical evidence
b) Patronage/Perception/Profitability/Perfection/Preface/ Performance/Periodically
c) Permanently/Persist/Personalize/Permissiveness/Pertinent/ Phenomena l/Physiological
d) Some of (b) and some of (c)
Q.191. Product or service can be defined
(a) Capacity to provide satisfaction
(b) Capacity to provide use and return
(c) Both (a) + (b)
(d) None
Q.192. Price in marketing refers to the rate of interest fora.
Resultant transaction cost
b. Born by the customer
c. An availing product or service
d. Both (a) + (b)
Q.193. Promotion of the product refers to the efforts of the banks to reach the customers through -
(a) Personnel Selling and Publicity
(b) Advertisement and Sales Promotion
(c) Both (a) + (b)
(d) Other promotional measures
Q.194. Place in marketing of retail banking refers to -
a) Branch
b) Online ATMs/Internet banking/mobile banking
c) Both (a) + (b)
d) Road show
Q.195. People in marketing refers to -
a. Banker
b. Customer
c. Banker and Customer
d. Public in general
Q.196. Process in retail banking marketing is -
(a) Organisational activities
(b) For marketing of final product to customers
(c)Through delivery channels
(d)All above
Q.197. Physical evidence is one of the fundamental ingredients in effective retail banking in banks, Define
a. Developing tangibility in intangibility concept
b. Developing efficient support services like ATM card, Debit card/personalised cheque book
c. Presence of employees in the branch
d. Both (a) + (b)
31 .
Q.198, How the effectiveness can be measured in retail banking?
a) Response from customers and satisfied customer
b) Repeated purchases or availment of services
c) Both (a) + (b)
d) Think about the competitors
Q.199. Bank marketing of retail banking services refer to -
(a) Identifying the most profitable markets/assessing needs of customers/adapting to changing environment
(b) Adapting to changing environment/setting development goals and plan to achieve them
(c) None of above
(d) Both (a) + (b)
Q.200. Marketing mix means
a. Product-Price-People-Place
b. Patronage-Perception-profitability-performance
c. Personalise-Pertinent-Preferance-Perfection
d. Physiological-Permanently-Periodically-physical evidence
Q.201. Seven Ps in Marketing-mix contribute substantially to the effectiveness of -
a. Delivery Channels
b. Marketing mix
c. Employees to work hard
d. Profitability of the bank
Q.202. Corporate banking is not driven bya)
Number of customers
b) More customers more profitability
c) Smaller client base
d) None of above ANSWER
189 C 190 A 191 C 192 D 193 C 194 C 195 C 196 D 197 D 198 C
199 A 200 A 201 B 202 D
11. DELIVERY CHANNELS : TEST YOURSELF
Q.203. ATM are various types -
a) On site ATMs
b) Off site ATMs
c) Infi net ATM
d) Both (a) (b)
Q.204. Delivery channels in retail banking preferred by young and savy customer are -
(a) Nearest branch-extension counters-big size branch
(b) ATMs-Internet mobile banking
(c) Both (a) + (b)
(d) Do not incline to avail banking services
205. Which Delivery channels in retail banking is preferred by a conservation/pensioner/home sick customers?
a. ATMs/Internet banking
b. Mobile and internet banking
c. Nearest branch and extension counters
d. Distant big branches
Q.206. Reasons for direct channels preference by customers are-
(a) Branch tangibilises intangible service/direct contact with employees/better understanding due to
communication with staff
(b) Physically seeing the brick and mortar branch/better explanation to customers by bank staff/layout and
ambience of the branch enhance feel good factor
(c) Both (a) + (b)
(d) Human factor is absent
32 .
Q.207. Branch layout refers to -
(a) Arrangement of all physical components
(b) Provide maximum effectiveness and co-ordination
(c) Efficient and attractive ambience unit
(d) All above
Q.208. The ambience of the branch increases
a) Comfort factor
b) Status factor
c) Rescue from hot air outside
d) VIP treatment
Q209. Advantages of good branch layout are -
a. Efficiency intime benefit to internal communication effectiveness increases /provides comfortable and original
work environment for morale booster
b. Image building minimising efficiencies for cost increase subdued
c. Both (a) + (b)
d. None
Q.210. The concept of counters with corporate colour scheme has replaced the traditionally counters, how?
(a) Total automation of branches and implementation of core banking solutions
(b) Single window concept
(c) Both (a) + (b)
(d) Modern delivery system has reached to rural and semi-urban branches
Q.211. Specialised branches are those branches which are called
a. Corporate/SSI/Agri. Finance/Personal Banking
b. One stop shop for all
c. Professional and business communities
d. Both (b) + (c)
Q.212. Personal banking branches are opened for
a) Wholesale customers
b) Retail banking customers
c) Professional and speedy turn around time
d) Provides services at home of customers
Q.213. Extension counters mean
e) Counters which are extended or increased in branches to give better service
f) Extension of branch to specified location for serving rspecified group
g) Counters which are allowed to provide services mainly in asset side
h) Counters which are allowed deal exclusively for the serving of corporate-employees only
Q.214. Remote delivery channel means
i) Electronic method channel
j) Remote area service providing
k) Banking to customers who are faroff 30 km.
l) Services provided to Adivasi Customers .
Q.215. On site automated teller machines mean -
m) Services at the branch premises
n) Services situated away from the branch premises
o) Cash dealing services provided at the site of the builders
p) Cash withdrawals done at distant places by putting cheque with ATM
Q.216. Off-Site ATMs mean -
q) ATMs designed to be situated away from the branches
r) ATMs situated within the premises of the branch
s) ATMs where it is compulsion for customers to visit the branch
33 .
t) ATM installed at places in the branch area to reduce the service cost.
Q.217. Off-Site-ATM customers have restrictions like
u) Use of ATMs by customers who are maintaining their accounts with that bank
v) No use of ATMs of other banks
w) Both (a) (b)
x) None
Q.218. Freedom in withdrawal of cash on use of any other bank's ATM are -
y) Withdrawal 5 times in a months without charges and cash
z) withdrawal 10,000 maximum per transaction
aa) Withdrawal 4 times free of charge and 20,000 maximum per transaction, in a calendar month
bb) No restrictions about number of transactions per month but amount can be 50,000 maximum per day
cc) None of above
Q.219. The important components of an ATM are -
dd) Card Reader/Cash dispenser/Key board
ee) Touch screen/Receipt printer/display unit
ff) \Cash withdrawal mode/balance enquiry mode
gg) Both (a) + (b)
Q.220. While withdrawing cash from ATM card recognition is done by -
hh) Card Reader
ii) Personal identification number
jj) Card recognition
kk) Card holder
Q.221. ATM are operative through PIN if the serve are not entered correctly, then after when the card be confiscated?
ll) First attempt
mm) Two attempt
nn) Three attempt
oo) Not confiscated at all
Q.222. ATMs cards are confiscated otherwise then putting incorrect PIN
pp) Reported Lost
qq) Stolen
rr) Both (a) + (b)
ss) Other a or b only
Q.223. Uses of Mobile banking to customers are -
tt) Facility for use from anywhere/Instructions carried out by self
option to pay utility- bills
uu) Transfer funds in any bank/facility for sending alerts for debits
balance enquiries/shopping and paying
vv) Both (a) + (b)
ww)Some of (a) and some of (b)
Q.224. The benefits of mobile banking to banks -
xx) Most acceptable channel/cost effective composed to ATM/lesser transaction costs/tool to attract young and new
generation
yy) Tool to attract young and next generation/lesser transaction costs compared to other channels/easy and cost acceptable
situation compared to ATMs
zz) Cost effective as compared to Internet banking/anywhere and anytime banking/large number of active users of mobile
numbering 54.86 crores
aaa)No benefit to banks on the contrary workload increase
Q.225. What major 5 services are provided under mobile banking to customer?
bbb) Fundstransfer in the same bank branches/bills payment/ corporate fund transfer/stop payment of
cheques/request for loans
ccc) Statement of last 9 transactions/balance enquiry/fee payments/ request for cheque book/request for new account or
34 .
fixed deposits
ddd) Airline-mobile ticketing/mobile recharge/temple donations/cheque status/hotlist debit cards
eee) Some from (b) and some from (c)
Q.226. Procedure for registration for mobile banking services is done -
fff) Customer to insert credit card and enter the PIN number/select
others menu option and select "mobile payment" on screen select "unmobile" and then select registration/give mobile
number and confirm for registration
ggg)Customer to insert debit-card and enter the debit card PIN
number rest as in (a) above
hhh) Customer to insert ATM card, and enter the PIN number rest
as in (a) above
(d) Customer to insert Smart card and enter the PIN number. Rest as in (a) above
Q.227. Full form of GPRS
iii) Great Packet Rational System
jjj) General Packet Radio Service
kkk)General Prior Release Service
lll) Great Packet Radio Service
Q.228. The levels of banking services offered through Internet are -
mmm) Basic Level Service
nnn) Simple Transactional Websites
ooo) Fully Transactional Websites
ppp) All above
Q.229. Basic Level service is the bank's websites which
(a) Disseminate information on product and service
(b) Submission of customer instructions and applications for different services
(c) Operate on their accounts for transfer/payment to/subscribing to products
(d) Banks which may not have any physical presence
Q.230. Fully transactional Websites mean
a. Customers may be allowed to operate on their accounts
b. Banks are allowed to operate on account transfer/payment of bills
c. Disseminate information on different services
d. Allow customers to submit their instructions, queries on their account balances
Q.231. Distinct features of internet banking is/are
(a) Could reach out to customers of different countries/new dimension to different kinds of risks/public domain not
subject to control by any single authority
(b) Strategic risk of loss of business to those who do not respond in time/emerging of new form of competition with
existing players/internet in a private domain and is subject to control by group of users
( c ) Internet may impact monetary policy when substitution of money done by e-cheque/digital signatures/digital coins. Cost of
delivery of banking service is several times costlier to other modes
(d) Some of (a) and some of (b) features
Q.232. The retail banking services the services of (i) viewing recurring deposit and loan accounts (ii) payment of indirect and
direct taxes and (iii) purchase of units of mutual funds is possible under -
(a) Mobile banking
(b) Phone banking
(c) Internet banking
(d) Core banking
Q.233. Who can not operate in internet banking accounts?
a) Individual and corporate customers
b) Proprietary concerns
c) Individuals account with joint operation
d) Partnership firm/society/association
Q.234. State the procedure for registering the internet bankinga.
Registration through website of bank/each individual possesses login ID/submission of form to branch for
35 .
registration/generation of 4-digit PIN number
b. Online registration/individuals possesses login ID/gel ieration of 4-digit PIN number/customer should memorise the
number
c. Customer having account in more than one branch they can register all the accounts by submitting forms to respective
branches
d. Both (a) + (c)
Q.235. Virtual banking means
(a) Need for bank and mortar branch
(b) No need for brick and mortar branch
(c) Creates 3-dimensional environment on a computer
(d) Both (a) + (c)
Q.236. Advantages of e-banking
a. Any where and any time banking through wide area network (WAN)
b. Creates financial discipline by recording all transactions at lower the risk but higher security to customers
c. Enhance the cost to banking to the customers/online purchase of goods and services
d. Both (a) + (b)
Q. 237.Advantages to a banker are -
a)Competitive advantage/better customer relationship and retaining customers
b) Competitive advantage/better customer relationship and attracts new customers/unlimited network/risk of
overdrawal by customers is eliminated
c) DoeS not reduce customers visit to branches/load on the branches reduced/bank's potentiality increases
d) Both (a) + (b)
Q. 238.Disadvantages of e-banking are
a)Low customer's acceptance due to psychological factors Higher cost of technology to bank, beyond the paying
b)capacity of middle class customers/security threat from unauthorised accesses
c) Both (a) + (b)
d) Lack of preparedness on the part of banks and unawareness of changes
Q.239. Under ATM card, before the approval of a withdrawal transactions, what is last and final stage under system
to be verified -
(a) Details of amounts to be withdrawn
(b) Cash withdrawal mode
(C) Sufficiency of funds in account
(d) Personal Identification Number
Q.240. In an ATM transaction, how the cardholder comes to know that how much amount has been debited to
his/her account
a. Transaction receipt obtained
b. Display on Screen
c. Amount received in cash
d. Through the Passbook/Statement of account
Q.241. Can we get the cash from ATM, currency in the same denomination as requested?
a) Yes
b) No-since predetermined by the system
c) No-since highest denomination notes are inserted by banks only
d) Yes-in any denomination as requested
Q.242. Whether under ATM, the customer may know any other information, other than cash withdrawal?
a. None
b. Yes-order for new cheque book
c. Yes-for balance enquiry
d. All other services as given in the branch
Q.243. Point of sale terminals (POS) facilitate -
a) Payment through debit/credit cards at member establishments
b) Payment through debit cards only at on site ATMs
36 .
c) Payment through credit cards only at off site ATMs
d) A link between branches of the bank
Q.244. Which are the parties those involved in POS?
a. Payment company/master or visa card
b. Bank that owns POS/payment company/Master or visa card/Place where P05 located
c. Member establishment/Master or visa card/Owner of POS, bank
d. None of above
Q.245. For restricting the computer misuse, crimes, computer related offences, unlawful use of computers, which is the law
available in India?
(a) Anti-money laundering Act, 2002
(b) Cyber Law Information Technology Act, 2002
(c) Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881
(d) Banker's Book evidence act
Q.246. Mobile banking works on -
a. SMS
b. GPRS
c. J2ME
d. All above
Q.247. Issues and problems of ATMs faced by banks -
a) Complaint prone due to breakdowns and cashout/reputation risk of banks
b) Negative publicity, due to breakdown irritations/inefficiency of banks in predicting withdrawal pattern
c) Both (a) (b)
d) Some of (a) and some of (b)
ANSWER
203 D 204 B 205 C 206 C 207 D 208 A 209 A 210 C 211 A 212 B
213 B 214 A 215 A 216 A 217 D 218 A 219 D 220 B 221 C 222 D
223 C 224 A 225 A 226 A 227 B 228 D 229 A 230 A 231 A 232 C
233 C 234 D 235 D 236 D 237 D 238 C 239 C 240 A 241 B 242 C
243 A 244 B 245 B 246 B 247 C
12. DELIVERY MODELS - TEST YOURSELF
2.48. Human Interventions in physical channels is essential. Such channels are -
a. Bank-staff/specialied marketing personnel/direct selling agents
b. Dedicated marketing personnel/Internal customer
c. Direct selling agents/educational institutions
d. Both (b) and (c)
Q.249. Bank staff play a crucial role in delivery system. They are responsible for -
(a). End to End service delivery
(b) Deficiency in delivery
(c) Effective delivery of service
(d) All above
Q.250. When a customer of the bank gets dissatisfaction?
a) Deficiency in delivery
b) Cross selling the product matched to requirements
c) Post sales service follow-up •
d) Customer empathy
Q.251. The expectations from the specialised marketing personnel are -
a. Potential sourcing/product and service delivery presentation
b. Sales conversions/compliance of promises made/market intelligence
c. Both (a) + (b)
d. Some of (a) and some of (b)
Q.252. Which banks, first introduced Direct-selling agents in banks?
37 .
a) Public Sector Banks
b) Foreign Banks
c) Private Sector Banks
d) Co-operative banks
Q.253. • DSAs are primarily engaged in retail banking in sourcing-
(a) Credit cards and retail loans
(b) Credit cards and corporate loans
(c) For business of opening new deposit accounts (d) For opening new demat accounts
Q.254. The deficiencies of DSAs facility are -
a. Physically appearance not upto mark
b. They chase for new customers but make them angry
c. Missell credit card products and customers fall into a debt trap by misusing the credit cards
d. Pricing for loans are unknown to them
Q.255. DSAs achieve business volumes for private sector banks but is there any risk factor to them?
a) Make false promises in turn around time
b) Reputation risk due to pure selling rather than effective marketing
c) Both (a) + (b)
d) No risk factor any where
Q.256. Tie-ups are entered by banks for bulk sale of assets of
(a) Loans to builders
(b) Auto loans to customers
(c) Loans to educational institutions
(d) All above
Q.257. While tieing-up with auto dealers, under retail banking-what is the important feature for such tie-up?
(a) Preferred financier
(b) Auto buyer referred to bank staff in the branch by dealer
(c) (c) Customer referred to the bank staff who had set up desk in the dealers showroom
(d) Auto dealer refers to NBFC for financing
Q.258. Under tie-up arrangement personal loans are given by banks under conditions of -
(a) Group of employees and repayment undertaken by employer
(b) Loans to individuals but without undertaking any repayment by employer
(c) Loans to minimum 5 individuals and repayment under post dated cheques
(d) Both (b) + (c)
Q.259. Service levels through delivery channels are gauged bya)
Behaviour of customers
b) Loyalty factor of customers
c) Expectation of customers d) Both (a) + (b)
Q.260. Compensation for DSAs depend on -
a) Number of cases referred to
b) Volumes of business sourced
c) Loyalty and accountability by DSA
d) Service delivery presentations by DSA
Q.261. The types of customers under delivery models are
a. Internal customer
b. External customer
c. Both of above
d. No such categories
Q.262. Customers are users of products/services in banking, The users of such services can be -
38 .
(a) Account holders
(b) Employees
(c) Both (a) (b)
(d) Only individuals who come to bank and have dealings
ANSWER
248 A 249 D 250 A 251 C 252 B 253 A 254 C 255 C 256 B 257 C
258 A 259 C 260 B 261 C 262 C
13. CUSTOMER RELATIONSHIP MANAGEMENT IN RETAIL BANKING : TEST YOURSELF
Q.263. The benefit, that came out of implementing CRM area.
Greater empowerment of users. Lower cost of service delivery by shifting centre interactions to self-service and
chat
b. Better visibility across service, delivery channels. Gains in customer communication, accountability and improved
organisational efficiency
c. Any of above
d. Both (a) + (c)
Q.264. The objective of good customer relationship management are aimed at
a) Build long term profitable relationship
b) Better understanding in order to develop close relationship
c) Achieve lifetime value from customers
d) All above
Q.265. What are the various stages involved in a CRM?
a. Capturing customer's profile/dissecting profiles into common information buckets
b. Designing suitable products and services/offering/services to targeted segment of customer/tracking th
customer information are dynamic basis to design new products
c. Both (a) + (b)
d. Customer optimisation the essence
Q.266. CRM provides a mechanism for banks for being -
a) Proactive in addressing customer needs/predict customer profitability
b) Analysing information and data sources for banks profitability
c) Both (a) + (b)
d) Some of (a) and some of (b)
Q.267. Customer optimisation is the essence of CRM and can be addressed through -
a. Acquisition of new customers/retention of existing ones/ expansion of customer relationship and shifting less profitable to
lower cost channels
b. Retention of existing customer/expansion of customer relationship with the bank encouraging more purchases
c. Expansion of customer relationship with the bank encouraging
more purchases and shifting less profitable customers to lower cost delivery channels
d. All above
Q.268. What the banks needs for implementation of CRM programme?
a) Increase operational efficiencies/drive more value from employees increase competition/increase fee based income
b) Delivery channel efficiency/technology application + all as in (a)
c) Explore new frontiers in product development
d) Increase customer loyalty and brand equity
39 .
Q.269. Need to increase operational efficiencies in CRM for implementation programme for this, the bank is required to do -
(a) Direct delivery in branch to delivery through ATMs
(b) Shifting from manual to electronic and remote channels
(c) Both (b) + (c)
(d) All above
Q.270. How to derive move value from employee under CRM?
a) Improve employees productivity
b) Aggressiveness in technology implementation with reduced
manpower
c) Deploying employees in marketing and cross-selling
(d) All above
Q.271. For increasing competition in retail banking, what the banks are supposed to do, when customer orientation is their
top priority?
(a) Product development/process efficiencies/delivery channels
b) Pricing and value additions/good CRM programme
(c) Both (a) + (b)
Q272. Solution for rising non-performing assets in retail banking is -
a) Effective monitoring
b) Stern action under loan
c) CRM to rack customers and follow up for recovery
d) Both (a) + (b)
Q.273. Fee based income importance has increased in retail banking in view of pressure on net interest margins such
action are -
a) Marketing of insurance products/mutual funds/gold coins
b) Some of above
c) None of above
d) More issue of letter of guarantee/letter of credit
Q.274. Which delivery channel can be better solution for enhancing customer satisfaction?
a. Direct Channels
b. Remote channels
c. Blend of channels
d. None of these
Q.275. Banks have to leverage technology for
(a) Optimise profits
(b) Maximise business
(c) Both (a) + (b)
(d) Technology separatable from retail banking
Q.276. Backbone of CRM ties in the robustness of customer's
a. Data warehouse and data mining
b. Seamless flow from core banking solutions
c. Accuracy of data
d. All above
Q.277. What are the implementation process of CRM in banks?
a) To determine the nature of products
b) To analyse the existing informations
c) Re enforcement rather than replacement of information and its integration of the systems
d) None of above
e) All above
Q.278. Key issues in implementation of CRM by banks
a. Business processes
b. Information processes
40 .
c. Information systems and integration of systems
d. All combined
Q.279. Inform the stages through which CRM can be implemented in banks
(a) Identification of customers for data base
(b) Classification of customers under different perspective/focus and attention-interaction with most valued
customers-customisation of products and services
(c) Both (a) + (b)
(d) None
Q.280. Discuss the benefits of CRMa.
Improves customer satisfaction/increased share of wallet from customer/enhance operational efficiency of
banks
b. Take on competition for more customers and retention/ understanding life time value of customer/improves
customer service through integration of remote delivery channels
c. None of above
d. Both (a) (b)
Q.281CRM is useful tool for customer's
a) Segmentation and re-design
b) Offer relevant products and services for targeted segments
c) Dwindles the customer value
d) None
Q.282. Better relationship in marketing is possible under
a) Core banking solution
b) Customer Relationship Management
c) Satisfied Employees
d) All above
Q.283. What is first required for CRM?
a. Needs for banks
b. Implementation by banks
c. Expectations of customers
d. Expectations by banks
ANSWER
263 D 264 D 265 C 266 D 267 A 268 B 269 A 270 D 271 C 272 C
273 A 274 C 275 C 276 D 277 E 278 D 279 C 280 D 281 B 282 B
283 A
14. SERVICE STANDARDS FOR RETAIL BANKING : TEST YOURSELF
Q.284. Banking codes and standards Board of India (BCSBI) is an independent semi-regulatory orgnisation. It is implemented
from 1st July 2007. It is a -
a. Voluntary code of conduct of banks for individuals
b. For compliance of promises made by banks under retail banking to customers
c. Statutory authority for punishing banks
d. Both (a) + (b)
Q.285. BCSBI is a voluntary code such as -
a) Minimum standards of banking practices for banks to follow
b) Maximum standards of banking practices their meaning universally
c) Statutory authority for punishing banks
d) Both (a) + (b)
Q.286. BCSBI is bound to comply the code for -
(a) Corporate customers
(b) Individual customers
(c) Individual and Corporate customers
(d) Not bound
41 .
Q.287. BCSBI has been constituted to -
(a) Promote good and fair banking practices under minimum standards
(b) Increase transparency for reasonable expectancy under service
(c) Promote a fair and cordial relationship between Individual customers and bank
(d) All above
Q.288. The code covers the commitment of the bank and applies to all who provide services/products to customers
(a) Branches/Subsidiaries/Agents
(b) Branches/across the counter/Over phone/By post/e-devices/ internet
(c) Both (a) + (b)
(d) All above
Q.289. There are 43 various commitments which are made by banks and coded under BCSBI. Some of the major services over
which code applicable are -
(a) Current/Savings/Term/cumulative deposits
(b) Credit card/Debit card/ATM card and loans and overdrafts
(c) Third Party insurance and investment products
(d) Both (a) + (b)
(e) All above
Q.290. Bank's main commitment towards customers-
(a) Making all transactions transparent and justifiable (b) Making
available to customers and all about their products and services
(c) Complaints, grievances and feed back (d) Both (a) + (c)
Q.291. Deposit accounts centre opened in the style of -
a. Single/Joint with maximum 3 persons and joint with either or, survivor/former of survivor
b. Individual/Institutional authority under single operation of joint operation
c. Minors/Minors with guardian as Operator minors above 13 years of age independently and minors below 13 years with
guardian
d. All above
Q.292 Before opening any deposit account -
(a) Observances of Know your customer guidelines
(b) Observances of Know about your customer guidelines
(c) Observances of Know about your new customer guidelines
(d) Observances of Know your corporation guidelines
Q.293. Customer wants to close the operative savings/current account instructions are given by customer in writing to bank,
account can be closed maximum upto
a) Immediate
b) Next working day
c) Within 3 working days
d) Within 3 days
Q.294. Sidhant want to transfer his account to another branch at Kolkata, When the account would be operative in Kolkata
br.?
(a) Within 2 weeks of request
(b) Within 1 weeks of request
(c) At the least in 3 weeks
(d) Depends on the work load at new branch at Kolkata
Q.295. The saving bank a/c of Shreya Govil at Bank of India Goregaon Mumbai was requested for transfer to hew new place
of posting at Karol Bagh, New Delhi on 7.5.2011. The account at new branch could only be opened, due to lethargic attitude of
new branch on 29.06.2011. She compliined to bank for this delay and demanded compensation from bank. What the bank cad
do?
a. Say sorry for delay
b. Refund any charges received from account holder on account of transfer
42 .
c. Pay compensation of t 500 for under delay, minimum
d. No refund of any charges already debited to account holder
Q.296. How much minimum balance is to be maintained in any deposit account, when to be informed or made known to the
customer?
e. Inform orally to all depositors
f. Inform in writing to depositors
g. Displayed in the branch
h. Inform in local newspaper
Q.297. Bank wants to amend the minimum balance required in deposit accounts when can bank change this by notice period of -
i. 30 days in advance
j. Immediate effect
k. 7 days notice
l. Can implement without any notice period
Q.298. HDFC Bank Ltd., had given concession on lifetime credit card issued. After 2 years of issue and its validity they want to withdraw
this concession. Can the bank do it?
m. Yes-Can do so
n. Concession can not be withdrawn
o. Yes-Can do it one any changes are made in Service charges schedule
p. No-cannot do it in the interest of customer
Q.299. Shrikant Govil has a term deposit with ICICI Bank Ltd, Provisions of Income Tax Act 1961 as applicable to interest income
accruing he wants to Know. Whose responsibility is it?
q. Bank will advise to provisions for exemption from TDS
r. Bank not bound to do, it is customer's own responsibility
s. Bank legally bound as per BCSBI
t. Bank are bound to point such rules on the receipt of term of deposits.
Q.300. What do you mean by No Frill Account" or Basic Banking Account? Define its features?
u. Very low or nil minimum balance/maximum balance is stated
v. Only for illiterate and poor customers
w. Cannot comply with KYC Norms fully but introduced by bank's customer
x. Both (a) + (c)
Q.301. Dormant or in operative accounts mean -
(a) 2 years or more period during which no continuous operation expect credit of half yearly interest on savings account
(b) 3 years or more period and thereof as in (a)
(c) 2 years or more period during which credit of term deposits quarterly interest in operative savings/current account is made
(d) 10 years or more period, and the rest as in (a)
Q.302. What is the regulation in BCSBI, as to the information to customers about the notice period, before
classification of accounts as dormant or inoperative a/c.
y. 30 days
z. 90 days
aa. 3 months
bb. No notice period
Q.303. Is any bank authorised under BCSBI to close any customer's account of its own?
cc. Not authorised
dd. Improper conduct of account but with 30 days notice
ee. Improper conduct of account but without any notice
ff. Customer's account can only be closed by customer only
Q.304. If any amount under ATM Card transaction is wrongly
debited to customer account without any delivery of cash, then upto what maximum period bank is bound
(of which the ATM card belongs) to reimburse the amount?
gg. 3 working days
hh. 7 working days
ii. 12 working days
43 .
jj. Immediate on receipt of compliant
Q.305. If there is any delay or failure in executing the direct debits ECS/standing instructions resulting in financial loss
on additional cost then -
kk. Bank will compensate
ll. Will not compensately if small loss suffered
mm. Will not compensate even through customer has suffered any loss
nn. Both (b) + (c)
Q.306. What is default in retail loans?
oo. Occurrence of an event which happens due to non payment of agreed installments
pp. Non adherence to repayment schedule as per commitments of agreed installments
qq. Both (a) + (b)
rr. Customers not willing to pay the loan
Q.307. Rescheduling of the loan happens -
ss. Increase in EMI
tt. Earlier fixed EMI under extended period
uu. It happens in long term loans only
vv. All above
Q.308. A default is called genuine default when -
ww.Customer fails to repay the EMI due to personal set backs/job losses/unforeseen medical expenses
xx. Customer deliberately fails to pay the EMIs
yy. Both (a) + (b)
zz. Intentions of borrowers are malafide
Q.309. A wilful default is called, when customer -
aaa.Deliberately fails to pay
bbb. Fails to pay due to job losses and unforeseen expenses
ccc. Attitude of the borrower negative
ddd. Both (a) + (c)
Q310. Recovery policy of the bank's is based oneee.
Dignity and respect to customers/fair-persuasion and courtesy to customer/fostering customer confidence and long term
relationship
fff. Expectation of bank customer to adhere to repayment schedule
ggg. Recognition of fairness and transparency in repossession /valuation and realization of security
hhh. All above
Q.311. Bank's recovery staff and debt recovery agents have to follow certain guidelines in recovery -
a) Borrower to be contracted by telephone at place of residence or place of business during 7am to 9 am only excluding hours
which are requested by borrowers not to make calls
b) Privacy of borrower to be respected/when personally visiting at residence or office discussion or demand of recovery should
not be in the presence of other persons
c) Identification and authority to collect EMIs should be with the DRA
d) All above
Q.312. A movable property say, two wheelers, has been repossessed by the DRA. As per bank's policy document what are the
chances of the borrower to get back the security after that?
iii. Where all overdues are paid by the borrower
jjj. Depriving the borrower of the two wheeler is not the intention of the creditor/even before concluding the sale of two
wheeler to third part by the bank if all the dues are paid by borrower
kkk. Both (a) + (b)
lll. No chance for getting back the two wheeler
Q.313. What consideration the banks are required to take into account before engaging recovery agents?
mmm. Due diligence process/due notice and appropriate authorisation
nnn. Up-to-date details of recovery agency/disposal of complaints against recovery agents, bank should disposed of
themselves
ooo. Some of (a) and some of (b)
ppp. Both (a) + (b)
44 .
Q.314. Other ways of recovery of loans to banks are -
qqq. Lok adalats
rrr. Debt Recovery Tribunals
sss. Recovery under SARFAESI Act, 2002
ttt. Any of above
Q.315. When the method of recovery of Lok Ada lat be adopted by banks?
uuu. Due upto 7 5 lakhs
vvv. Due less than 10 lakhs
www. Due upto 1 lakhs
xxx. Due upto any amount of personal loans or housing loans/credit card loans
Q.316. Debt Recovery Tribunals is a useful method of recovery for bankyyy.
Loans extended by financial institutions
zzz. Recovery of bad debts quickly and efficiently under the provision of Recovery of Debts due to Banks and Financial
Institutions Act, 1993
aaaa. Care hear cross suits/counter claims and other set offs (d) All above
Q.317. DRT cases pass comprehensive orders like in- (a) Civil court
bbbb. Criminal court
cccc. Magistrate First Class
dddd. All above
Q.318. DRT can do bank caseseeee.
Appoint Receivers/commissioners
ffff. Pass exparte orders/interim orders
gggg. Reviews own decisions/ hear appeals against orders of recovery officers
hhhh. All above
Q.319. Recovery officers of DRT has powers of -
a. Judicial
b. Non-Judicial
c. Criminal
d. Civil
Q.320. What kind of evidence examination is allowed to a DRT?
a) Examination
b) Cross examination
c) Frivolous cross examination
d) Any of (a) and (b)
Q.321. The purpose of SARFAESI Act is -
(a) Take possession of securities
(b) Take possession of securities and sell them
(c) Bank executive of Asstt. General Manager to work as a judicial magistrate (d) None of above
ANSWER
284 D 285 A 286 B 287 D 288 D 289 D 290 D 291 D 292 A 293 C
294 A 295 D 296 C 297 A 298 B 299 A 300 D 301 A 302 C 303 B
304 C 305 A 306 A 307 D 308 A 309 D 310 D 311 D 312 C 313 D
314 D 315 B 316 D 317 A 318 D 319 A 320 D 321 B
15. TECHNOLOGY IN RETAIL BANKING : TEST YOURSELF
Q.435. It is possible to do, anywhere anytime banking in India without personal computer?
a.Internet , b. Mobile c. Telenet d. Intranet
Q.436. How many bowling business models are available in mobile banking?
a. Bank focused, b. Bank Led c. Non-bank Led, d.Multi Model, e. Above (a+b+c)
Q.437. Which banking business is useful for existing traditional customers?
45 .
a. Bank focused, b. Bank Led, c. Multi Model, d.Non-bank Led
Q.438. What is distrinctive feature of bank led Model under mobile banking?
(a) Customer conducts financial transactions at a whole range of retail agentgs instead of bank branches
(b) Use of non-traditional low-cost delivery channel
(c) Bank does not come into picture
(d) Above (a) + (c)
Q.439. How does internet banking and mobile banking differ?
(a) Mobile banking uses cellular technology and GSM net works
(b) Internet is based on sharing of standardization and automation
(c) Mobile transaction assists of your/mobile device and mobile transaction providers
(d) Both (a) + (c) only
Q440. In mobile transaction, what processes are needed for performance?
(a) Identification/authentication/secure performance
(b) GSM/GPRS/EDGE
(c) LAN/WAN/MAN
(d) WWW/e-mail/Telnet
Q.441. Mobile banking password is used for
(a) Locking the mobile
(b) Opening the mobile
(c) Both (a) + (b)
(d) No password is needed
Q.442. Discuss the advantages of Mobile Banking
(a) Cuts down the costs
(b) Ability to cross sell other banking products and service + (a)
(c) Avoids credit card frauds due to receipt of SMS by the account holders + (b)
(d) Flashes balance of account every hour
Q.443. What are the various services which are provided by mobile banking to the customers?
(a) Stop cheque payment/issue of new cheque book/presentation of bills and its date of presentation.
(b) Remind the due dates of loans of vehicle/housing/consumer loan accounts
(c) Every debit or credit transactions SMS on the same day above 10,000 when made through account.
(d) All above (a) to (c)
Q.444. What information can be obtained by mobile-banking?
(a) Mini-statement and checking of account of history/alerts on account activity/monitoring of term deposits
(b) Access to loan statement/card statements/mutual funds, equity statements/insurance policies
management/pensions, plan management.
(c) Weather up-to-dates/new loyalty related offers/location based, services + (a) + (b)
(d) Status of requests for credit including remortgage information/ insurance coverage + (c) above.
ANSWER
435 B 436 E 437 A 438 A 439 D 440 A 441 C 442 C 443 D 444 D
46 .
6. Module D : Other Issue Related to Banking
UNIT -17 : TEST YOURSELF
Q.322. What is securitisation?
(a) Process of converting and breaking definable asset classes into tradeable units
(b) Process of pooling of individual long term loans which are packed and solid to various investors
(c) Both (a) + (b)
(d) It is a structured process and effected only for standard assets and rated to enable the buyers to take a call on investing on
the PTCs.
Q.323. Asset backed securitisation is -
(a) Backed by retail loans
(b) Backed by retail loans other than housing loans
(c) Both (a) + (b)
(d) None
Q.324. What is the formula for calculation of EMI?
(a) Principal x Rate of interest x time
100 x 12
(b) p x rx (1+r) / [(1+r)-1]
c)Both (a) + (b), d)None
Q.325. Securitisation process involves -
a) Lender selects the assets for securitisation
b) Issuer (SPV) make payment of lender
c) Assets are converted into a pool of securities by issuer for issuing
pass through certificates which are sold to other investors d) All above
Q.326. Who can securitise?
a) Banks and financial institutions only by unlocking the blocked loan funds
b) Securitisation can be only one type of assets of similar maturity which are transferred to SPV to act as intermediary
c) Securitisation issued by special purpose vehicle are known as pass through certificate, it is an alternative to corporate debt
or equity for meeting originator's fund requirements.
d) all above
Q.327. Who can be investors to pass though certificates?
a) Banks, mutual funds, other financial institutions i.e customer
b) Government and semi-government bodies
c) Qualified institutional buyers only/provident funds
d) Both (a) + (c)
Q.328. Special types of securitisation includes -
a) Master trust to handle revolving credit card balances/issurance Trust credit card backed securities/grantor trust-for
automobile backed securities/owner trust-both interest and principal due to subordinate securities used for payment to
senior securities
b) Mater Trust and Insurance Trust
c) Owner Trust and Insurance Trust
d) Both (a) + (b)
Q.329. Advantages of securitisation to issuer are
a) Reduce, funding costs/asset liability mismatch/lower capital needs/locking in profits
b) Transfer of risks/off-balance sheet derivatives/boost earnings/ admissibility of future surpluses/availability of immediate
liquidity
c) Both (a) + (b)
d) Large size structuring and (a) all above
Q.330. Advantages to investors of securitisation are -
a) Potentially earning a higher rate of return/portfolio diversification/Isolation of credit risk from parent entity (originating)
b) Portfolio diversification/liquidity availability/early amortisation
47 .
c) Isolation of credit risk from parent entity/fluctuations in interest rates does not effect fixed rate
d) Both (b) + (c)
e)
Q.331. There are various risks to investors under securitisation as
a) Reduces portfolio quality/expensive/large size structuring/risks of impairment
b) Liquidity risk/early amortisation/currency interest ratefluctuation temptation to markup prices/servicer becoming insolvent
c) Reduces portfolio quality/liquidity risk/expensive/early amortisation
d) Both (a) + (c)
Q.332. Public offer and listing of Securities Debt Instruments (SDI) Regulations have been passed for regulations in 2008 who has
passed it
a) RBI
b) SEBI
c) Special purpose vehicle (SPV)
d) Parliament
Q.333. Who are the main players under new regulatory environment of listing of securitised/debt instruments?
a) Originator/obligor/sponsor
b) Originator/special purpose distinct entity (SPDE) trustee/service provider
c) Isolation of credit risk from parent entity/fluctuations in interest rates does not effect fixed rate
d) Both (b) + (c)
Q.334. Under SDI the procedure of cash flow streams originatesa)
Originator is the original owner of cashflow from mortgage/ NPA/ inventory receivables-Originator transfer it to SPDE, a
registered Trust-Trustees are registered with SEBI as recognised intermediaries
b) The contract assigning cash flows between originator and trustees/trustees sign contracts for services in behalf of
investor/for ensuring that cash flows are properly received and distributed
c) This includes liquidity provider for correcting shortfall in cashflows/credit enhancer improves credit of asset pool
d) All above
Q.335. What is the nature of business of the public listed securities debt instrument (SDI)? It enables -
a) Transfer cash flows and replaced them by cash by selling the assets pool to-investors
b) Banks to concentrate on core business/large investors have chance to invest with reasonable returns
c) Both (a) + (b)
d) Some of (a) and some of (b)
Q.336. Need for securitistion is -
a) Funds for new housing loans to next 5 years plan
b) Long term lending for housing for 15 years
c) Liquidity of Pass through certificates
d) All above
Q.337. Mortgage backed securitisation (MBS) features are -
a) Pool of receivables sold to SPV supported by mortgaged home loans
b) Passing of cash flows from payments to investors
c) Third party guarantees investment
d) All above
Q.338. Basic Methods of securitisation are -
a) Originator does not actually sell the assets to SPV/There is agreement to assign with trustee hence only
beneficial interest in the receivable held
b) The originator sells the assets to SPV. SPV becomes legal owner of the assets and it issue certificates in the form
of promissory notes
c) Both (a) + (b)
d) Originator issues receipt which are negotiable
Q.339. The conditions for development of secondary market mortgage backed securitisation are -
a) Risk identification/rating of mortgage pool/off balance sheet item/Tax treatment and tax incidence amongst the
originatorSPV and investors
b) Effective foreclosure systems/reduction in stamp duty on transfer/standardisation in under writing
practices/declaration of investment as approved under insurance-banking and provident fund Acts.
c) Some of (a) and (b)
48 .
d) Both (a) + (b)
Q.340. Name asset reconstruction and securitisation companies which are registered with RBI since, 2003
a) ASCIL/ASREC (India) Ltd./Assets Care Enterprises Ltd. (ACE)/ Pegasus Reconstruction Co. Ltd./International ARC Pvt. Ltd.
b) Alchemist ARC Ltd./Pridhvi ARC Co. Ltd./JM financial ARC Pvt. Ltd./Invent ARC Pvt. Ltd/Phonix ARC Pvt. Ltd.
c) Reliance ARC Ltd./India SME ARC Ltd./Edelweiss ARC
d) All above
Q.341. Which asset reconstruction Co. is the biggest in India and in its market share?
(a) ARCIL-50%
(b) ASREC (India) Ltd. -5%
(c) Asset Care Enterprises Ltd. (ACE)-4%
(d) Pegasus Reconstruction Co. Ltd. - 80%
Q.342. Key strengths of Asset Reconstruction Co. of India Ltd. (ARCIL) are -
(a) First to operate in area of acquisition and resolution of stressed financial assets
(b) Largest ARC in terms of assets under management (AUMs) capital and profitability
(c) Managed 11.879 crore of AUMs with total dues of 47375 crores/Arcil generated net IRR of 81% on existed cares. Overall
IRR net of 14%
(d) All above
Q.343. ARCH. is sponsored by
(a) SBI, ICICI bank, IDBI Bank and Punjab National Bank
(b) SBI, Bank of India, Indian Bank, HSBC
(c) HSBC Bank, ICICI Bank, Bank of Baroda, Central Bank of India
(d) Indian Overseas Bank/Allahabad Bank/HDFC/ICICI Bank
Q.344. In asset backed securitisation the assets included are-
(a) Commercial vehicles/cars/construction equipments
(b) Small and medium Enterprises loans/tractor loan/two-three vehicle loans/gold loans
(c) Some of (a) and some of (b)
(d) All above
Q.345. In equated monthly installments at the initial period the features would be -
(a) Principal component is less and interest more
(b) Principal component is more and interest less
(c) Principal component and interest reduces
(d) Both (b) (c)
ANSWER
322 B 323 A 324 B 325 D 326 D 327 D 328 A 329 C 330 A 331-B
332 B 333 C 334 D 335 C 336 D 337 D 338 C 339 D 340 D 341-A
342 D 343 A 344 D 345 A
UNIT -18TEST YOURSELF
Q.346. Entire financial needs of a customer extends to -
(a) Insurance
(b) Mutual Funds
(c) Demat accounts/broking services and wealth management solutions
(d) All above
Q.347. Banks are prohibited to offer other products as banks own products then how the banks are offering insurance/mutual
funds and wealth management services?
(a) Through agency arrangements
(b) As NBFC
(c) As subsidiary
(d) Both (a) + (d)
Q.348. How the banks may enter mutual fund business? What are its terms and conditions stipulated by RBI?
(a) Act as agent of customers and at customer's risk
(b) Not acquiring of units of mutual funds from secondary market/ no buy back to units
(c) Loan/credit facility against unit of mutual funds as per RBI guidelines/retailing of units of mutual funds be confined to
certain select branches
(d) All above
Q.349. For undertaking insurance business, banks are permitted to set up joint venture company. The eligibility criteria for Al
49 .
participation are -
(a) Bank's networth not less than 500 crores/CRAR Not less than 10 percent/maximum equity participation in JV be 50% of
paidup-ca pita l
(b) Reasonable level of NPAs/Net profit is the last 3 consenstive years/track record of performance of subsidiary if any should
be satisfactory
(c) Bank can make investment upto 10% of networth of the bank or 50 crores
(d) Indian Overseas Bank/Allahabad Bank/HDFC/ICICI Bank
Q.350. Third party products distributed by banks are
a) Life insurance policies/Not life insurance policies
b) Mutual funds/demat and broking services
c) Hotel and travel booking
d) All above
Q.351. Distribution of insurance policies through bank-braches is termed as -
a) Securitisation
b) Bancassurance
c) Third Party product
d) Innovative banking
Q.352. Bancassurance meansa)
Package of financial services of both banking and insurance
b) Bonanza in terms of reduced price a single point
c) Increased return on assets
d) All above
Q.353. Advantages of Bancassurance are -
a) Cost effective channels for distribution
b) Widening of area for insurance companies, under rural areas
c) Optimum utilisation for existing customer relationship
d) All above
Q.354. Features of corporate agency model for distribution of products are -
a) Distributes the regular premium life policies
b) Distribute Hybrid combination of life policies
c) Banks receive commission for single premium policies @ 2% while for regular premium policies varies between 15 to 25%
d) All above
Q.355. Important features of group insurance products offered by banks are -
a) Value addition to bank products/group insurance is offered to cover the life of bank customers who have availed banks products
b) Such covers are fixed covers on death or accidental death and amount is fixed/other is dynamic cover to borrowal
accounts on reducing basis with the repayment of loan
c) Bank offer such insurance as tagged facility/banks are reimbi'esed with marketing expenses of about 10% to 15% of the
premium mobilised.
d) All above
Q.356. Non-IA insurance cover includes the features of -
a) Cover to building/machinery/stocks which are either mortgaged or hypothecated to banks
b) Generate fee based income ranging from 10 to 15%
c) Health policies are offered by banks on floaters basis covering the account holder and the family member (self+spouse+2
children) and also parents on additional payment of premium)
d) All above
Q.357. For mutual fund's wait sales PROPAGATE model is considered best for banks. What does this stands for?
a) PRO-Professional, PA-People appetite GATE-place or Door
b) Product-Risk-opportunities-people Appetite-GeographyAttributes-Training Education (All first word combined)
c) Potential-Reliance-Opportunities-Product Assurance-GenerosityAttention-Truth Endurance
d) None of above
Q358. In propagate model of mutual fund units distribution, let us see the relevance of each elementa)
Product-of different mutual funds on customer segments and time preference /Risk-mutual funds do not guarantee minimum returns/opportunities

-
Mutual funds create wealth. Products which offer better returns over period, will increase returns
b) People - People relate other employees of bank and external customers. Selection of marketing staff with right aptitude is

needed/Appitite
- the penchant of risk taking varies with customers across/Geography of the bank is the foremost advantage for the banks.
50 .
c) Attribute - Attributes and their impact should be effectively communicated to the investing public.
a. Training - It is the axle on which the entire mutual fund distribution revolves.
b. Education - It is the duty of the staff of the bank to educate and guide the investing public. d) all above
Q.359. Demat account in banks and insurance companies, one of the very important components offered. It- is a process ofa)
Converting physical shares and life policies into electronic form
b) Dematerialised form
c) Paperless form
d) All above
Q.360. How to open a demat account?
a) Choose depositor participant /fill account opening form with DP/ sign agreement/submit-any document either
(photograph-proof of residence-passport copy -telephone bill) Proof of identitypassport-photo driving licence
/voter ID card /PAN card
b) DP provides unique account number/demat account cannot be payable to either or survivor/transfer of demat
account from one DP to another possible/demat account can be frozen for desired period.
c) Dematerialised securities are fungible assets - hence interchangeable /rematerialisation possible
d) All above
Q.361. Key function areas in wealth management are -
a) Financial planning/Portfolio strategy definition/asset allocation strategy a implementation
b) Portfolio management administration- performance evaluation and analytics/strategy review and modification
c) 'Both (a) + (b)
d) Some of (a) and some of (b)
Q.362. Advantages of wealth management to customers are -
a) Proper-tax planning for high networth income population/proper selection of investment strategy/Proper estate
management and proper forward planning
b) Only tax planning/investment strategy/estate management (c) Only tax planning and estate management
d)Investment strategy and forward planning
Q.363. Key challenges to wealth management companies area)
Highly personalised and customised services/evolving client profile/limited leveraging capabilities of technology
b) Intricate knowledge of cross functional domain
c) Both (a) + (b)
d) Some of (a) and some of (b)
Q.364. In wealth Management, wealth manager offers services like
(a) Advisory role/investment processing /custody-safekeeping and asset servicing/end to end investment life cycle
management
(b) Investment decisions/investment planning and decision /
execution/mandated to make financial planning throughout life
(c) Both (a) + (b)
(d) Wealth manager taps the mass affluent and super affluent
Q.365. Para-banking refers to -
(a) Distribution of life/non life insurance/mutual fund schemes
(b) Corporate agents for life insurance/Non-life-insurance and mutual funds
(c) Responsibility of banks under risk factor for life/Nonlife insurance and mutual fund units
(d) Both (b) + (c)
Q.366. As a corporate agent banks distribute following types of products - insurance -
(a) Life insurer and non - life insurer one each
(b) Life insurer one and non - life insurer two
(c) Any number of life insurer and non-life insurer
(d) None of above
Q.367. The number of mutual funds that a bank can distribute as a corporate a gent-
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Five
(d) No limit
Q.368. Cross selling refers to .
51 .
(a) Selling additional products/services to existing customer
(b) Selling additional products/services to new customer
(c) Both (a) + (b)
(d) Selling bank products in exchange of other products
Q.369. Demat refers to-
(a) Converting physical shares in to electric form
(b) Physical shares after concession become fungible assets after demat have interchangeable identical
(c) Rematerialisation converts shares into demat
(d) Both (a) + (b)
ANSWER
346 D 347 A 348 D 349 D 350 D 351 B 352 A 353 D 354 D 355 D
356 D 357 B 358 D 359 D 360 D 361 C 362 A 367 D 368 A 369 B
UNIT -16: TEST YOURSELF
Q.370. From which stage of loan, the appraisal process begin?
a. From application form
b. Receipt of application form duly filled in
c. From the time application is processed
d. When applicant is interviewed
Q,371, What documents are to be submitted to bank for availing home loan?
a. Proof of Identity/proof of residence/proof of business address
b. Agreement of sale copy/statement of bank a/c or Passbook
c. Copy of approved plan/commencement of construction permission from local body/valuation of property in case of
purchase under resale/search report/non-encumbrance certificate from bank's advocate for the last 30 years
d. All above
Q.372. Appraisal of Loan comprises -
a. Validation of information submitted by applicant
b. Processing of loan application
c. Checking of information against risk management practices
d. Both (b) and (c)
Q.373. There are different types of documentation, such area.
Security documents
b. Property documents
c. Second Mortgage document
d. Any of above
Q.374. Banks obtain documents prior to disburseMent of loana.
DP Note and term loan agreement/guarantee agreement from guarantors
b. Stamped Memorandum of equitable mortgage for deposit of title deeds in favour of bank or registered mortgage or
power of attorney in favour of bank.
c. Valuation report from registered valuer when property is a second sale or old property authorising the bank to get opinion on
the borrower's credits from CIBIL/Experian/Equifax,
d. All above
Q.375. List of documents to be obtained in case of second mortgagea.
Letter from the borrower to prospective mortgagee bank for extending the earlier mortgage to secure the loan/letter from
prior mortgagee to the subsequent mortgagee, stating that existing mortgage charge will submit and will rank prior to
proposed charge.
b. Exchange of Pari Passu letter/inter se pari passu agreement/ letter from second charge holder bank to first charge holder on
the fixed assets
c. Some of (a) and some of (b)
d. All a+b
Q.376. Monitoring of advances relate to -
a) Post sanction activities/ensure proper end use of funds
b) Periodical inspection /follow up for recovery/restructuring of loan
52 .
c) Both (a) + (b)
d) None
Q.377. Home loans have to be restructured when -
a) Delay turn into defaults
b) Willingness to repay the loan is established in the borrower
c) Cash flows are inadequate to pay as per set EMI but enough to pay the loan over a longer period of time
d) All above
Q.378. Other circumstances when restructure of loan may be considered when -
a) Unforeseen/major illness/social functions requiring significant outlay of funds in the family of the borrowers/death or disability of
borrower
b) Increase of salaried class borrowers are on LOSS OF PAY due to lock out/strike/disciplinary action/delayed payment of salary by
employers/delayed completion of housing project
(c )Both (a) + (b) (d) Some of (a) and some of (b)
Q.379. Parameters for credit Rating require annual review of loana)
Repayment record of past 12 months/documentation as outstanding loan sanctioned terms/percentage of security coverage of outstanding
loan
b) Land value as percentage of total properly value/improvement in income level as per income tax assessment/plus including rental income at
post sanction stage/liquidity of borrower in terms of deposits, to cover certain minimum number of EMIs
c) Repayment record in past 12 months/improvement in income level/liquidity of borrower
d) Both (a) + (b)
Q.380. Closure of any loan account can be -
a)Repayment of schedule EMIs
b)Repayment of outstanding loan balance alongwith due interest/servicing charges etc.
b) Both (a) + (b)
c) Any of a or b
Q.381. After the closure of loan account, the bank has to -
a) Cancel the charge on moveable or immovables properties
b) Return the documents of the property and or execution of deed of conveyance for registered mortgage, already done
c)Any of above
d) Both (a) + (b)
Q.382. Power of Attorney means and includes -
a) Formal instrument by which authority is conferred on an agent
b) Any instrument empowering a specified person to act for and in the name of person executing it.
c) Any of above
d)Both (a) + (b)
Q.383. Power of Attorney can be either -
a) Revocable/General
b) Special/Irrevocable /even after death of executant
c) Both (a) + (b)
d)Any of (a) or (b)
Q.384. Documents for Power of attorney are required to be registered under Registration Act and the
executant has to be present for registration. Are there any exceptions to it?
a) Bodily infirmity of serious inconvenience to appear
b) In jail/exempt by law from personal appearance
c) Sale of immovable property by court or by revenue officer arise out of operation of law
d) Any of above
Q.385. Visit to borrowers charges received by banks, under housing loan should be credited to -
a) Commission a/c
e) Interest a/c
f) Current a/c
g) Sundry recoveries a/c
Q.386. To consider the loan under Housing loan, which or the following statements would be proper?
a) Property singly held but spouse becomes co-borrower
b) Property purchased in joint name with spouse but the regular income from all sources insufficient
53 .
c) Flat owned by parents and son/daughter having steady income joins as guarantor
d) Flat to be purchased is for rental income. Rental income, after taxes would meet out only 50% of EMI
Q.387. Harish Goyal approached a bank in Mathura (UP) for in principle sanction, for purchase of a 3
storied house for 15 lakhs. This sanction would be valid for -
a) One Month
b) 3 month
c) 2 months
d) One year
Q.388. Who can be a co-applicant in any Housing Loan?
a) Property owned by such applicant alognwith others
b) Property owned by one person but bank wants additional person for regular repayment
c) Property stands in the name of a trust and trustee becomes guarantor to it
d) Both (a) + (b)
Q.389. A repayment holiday may be allowed for a home loan when house/flat is under construction the payment to builder is
done in installment. Such holiday is calleda)
Check off
b) EMI Reset
c) Moratorium
d) Parri Passu
Q.390. What is mortgage?
a) Transfer of interest in specific immovable property for security
b) For the payment of money advanced an existing or future debt
c) Both (a) + (b)
d) None
Q.391. Kinds of mortgages are -
a) Simple or registered
b) Equitable mortgage/English
c) Conditional sale/usfructury mortgage
d) All above
Q.392. Which kind of mortgages are generally used, in housing loan?
a) Simple
b) Registered
c) Deposit of Title Deeds
d) Any of above
Q.393. Registration of mortgage must be done, from the date of execution within -
a) 1 month
b) 2 months
c) 3 months
d) 4 months
Q.394. In a registered mortgage whether there is any requirement for witnesses and if so what is the minimum
number of such witnesses?
a) Yes - essential -2 witnesses
b) Yes-essential 3 - witnesses
c) Not required
d) Not required since it is t.o be registered
Q.395. The essential requirements of mortgage under deposit of the deeds are -
a) Existing debt or future Title deeds of immovable property
b) Deposit be in notified town/district
c) All above
Q.396. The expression title-deeds mean
a) Registered saledeed in original
b) Probated will
c) Certificate of sale, issued by court
54 .
d) Any of above
Q.397. A receipt for payment of revenue may be proof of ownership?
a) May not be conclusive proof of ownership
b) May be proof of ownership
c) Falls within certificate of sale issued by court hence proof of ownership
d) After payment of necessary stamp duty to court
Q.398. Right of foreclosure is available to -
a) Mortgagor in mortgage by conditional sale
b) Mortgagee in case of equitable mortgage
c) Mortgagee when mortgagor fails to pay on due date
d) None
Q.399. Mortgagor has right to redemption or mortgage toa)
Subsequent mortgagee
b) Bank which is not going to mortgage
c) Sub-mortgagee
d) Any of a + b
Q.400. Margin in any loan means -
a) Share of borrower in total amount of loan
b) Share of lender in total amount of loan
c) Share of guarantor in total amount of loan
d) Share of profit
Q.401. Tenure of Land means
a) Freehold
b) Leasehold
c) State owned
d) Any of above
Q.402. Documents of title does not include -
a) Original title deeds
b) Certified copies of title deeds issued by Registrar of assurances
c) Xerox copies of title deeds
d) Certificate of sale issued by court
Q.403. Valuation of any property can be done by -
a) Price paid at prevailing rate for similar property
b) Present market trend
c) Registered Valuer's valuation of property
d) Certificate issued by CIBIL/Experian
Q,404. A building, when it ceases to yield desired income the
property has to be replaced or built, for further period. Life of a building varies between 40 to 100 years. The amount set
aside for the purpose of recovering the original funds is called -
a) Maintenance Fund
b) Sinking Fund
c) Reserve Fund
d) Depreciation Fund
Q.405. What is a retail banking?
a) Banking targeted at corporates
b) Banking focused towards class market
c) Banking deal with individuals and lends them money
d) Banking deals with wholesalers for deposits source
e) Both (a) and (c)
Q.406. Discuss characteristics of retail banking?
a) Targeted at individual customers, and mass market segment
b) Offer various liability, asset and service products to individuals
55 .
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Delivery model of ATMs/internet and mobile banking
e) Both (a) (b) and (d)
Q.407. What are the advantages of retail banking?
a) Spread of risk across customers/ customers loyalty and attractive interest spreads
b) Spread of credit risk to diversified customers and lesser volatility in demand and credit cycle
c) Large number of customers with selection possibility by scoring system
d) Both (a) and (c)
e) Both (d) and (b)
Q.408. Mark the problems in retail banking?
a) Managing large number of customers and /or rapid evolution of service
b) Costs of maintaining low value transactions, high
c) Higher delinquencies is unsecured retail loans and credit card receivables
d) All of above
e) Both (a) and (c)
Q.409. Reasons for retail banking in India are :-
a) Growing urban population/higher disposable income/increase
in mass affluent space and explosion of service economy
b) Foreign banks and private sector banks seriously looking at the
bottom of customers alongwith credit and debit card receivables
c) Despite credit and deposits growth, banking access remains
limited to few sections of the population
d) All above
Q.410. For what purposes,housing loan can be sanctioned by banks?
a) Purchase of new house/old house or flat and for extension of
owned house. Old house is age should not be more than 5 to 20 years
b) Purchase of new flat/house/land and/or extension of house/
construction of new house/flat
c) Both (a) (b)
d) None of above
Q.411. How much loan amount and period can be sanctioned under housing loan to a middle class family's
individuals who is aged 25 years?
a) Loan upto 75 lakhs and upto .30 years
b) Loan upto 50 lakhs and period upto 20 years
c) Loan upto 100 lakhs and period upto 25 years
d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.412. Considering floating interest rate @10.150/0 on housing loan, how the loan quantum is decided by
banks?
a) Age of applicant and repaying capacity based on total earnings
minus 60% for monthly expenses
b) Age of applicant and repaying capacity based on total earnings
minus under the ceiling of total deductions of 40% including housing loan proposed instalment
c) Age of applicant and repaying capacity based on total earnings and total deduction.
d) Age immaterial and loans upto 5 crones to High Net Worth individuals
Q.413. What is the security taken by banks, under Housing loan proposals?
a) First legal mortgage of the housing property financed
b) Equitable mortgage of the housing property financed, which should be in the name of the applicant of jointly with coobligant,
with clear title
c) Power of attorney issued to the bank by the applicant under clear title of the property
d) All above
Q.414. Define the process flow of ECS?
a) Issuing of mandate by account holder favouring beneficiary
b) It is registered with clearing house by the beneficiary
56 .
c) Proceeds are credited to the a/c of beneficiary
d) It is registered with clearing house by the account holder
e) All a+b+c
Q.415. RTGS above 2.5 lakhs transactions are processed
a) Instantaneously
b) Every 2 hours
c) Before the business hour
d) Next working day
Q.416. What are the obligations of banks under HEFT?
a) Maintain security/integrity and efficiency of system
b) After execution of payment instruction those are irrevocable
c) Payment of interest at bank rate, if delayed payment
d) All above
Q.417. The characterisation of RTGS are -
a) Remittance and funds transfer are transmitted through a series of process inputs
b) Remittance are communicated through structured messaging process, and are credited on a dynamic basis along with its
settlement.
c) Settlement for the message made on a gross basis from the liquidity maintained by the sender bank.
d) All above
Q.418. RTGS applicability in retail banking is
a) Limited
b) Unlimited
c) Partially limited
d) No applicability
Q.419. RTGS has made a jump in transactions?
a) Volume
b) Value
c) Both volumes and value
d) Length and Breadth
Q.420. For esteem needs of individual, what service are covered?
a) Special term deposits /second housing loans/home decor loans
b) Term insurance products/house improvement
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Any of (a) and (b)
Q.421. For self actualization needs, what products and services are covered under retail banking?
a) Pensioners loans/retirement situations/pension plans in insurance
b) Senior citizen saving scheme /reverse mortgage
c) Any of above
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.422. Discuss the expectations by the customers from the service quality of banks?
a. Tangibles-Relability-Responsiveness
b. Assurance-Empathy ..
c. Courtesy-Credibility-Security
d. Both (a) and (b)
Q.423. Discuss the measures needed to enhance service quality in bank services, with regard to savings deposits?
a. Need to improve dress code of the staff at branch
b. Need to improve transactions time at every branch and enhance, adequate number of channels in addressing customers needs
c. (c )Need to improve the faces of the computer operator who should be young below 30 and not above 30 years of age.
d. Both (a) and (b)
57 .
Q.424. Housing loan should be sanctioned and disbursed to applicant from the present ceiling of 14 days, for ideal customer
requirements?
a) 10 working days
b) 7 working days
c) 5 days
d) Should not do hurriedly
Q.425. PSBs have to enhance the service quality and for that what measures could be taken?
a) Strengthen performance and recruit employees through training
b) Enhance range of products features and Customer friendly modules
c) Customer's expectations never ends even under best performance hence no additional measures
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.426. The development of RTGS system is fora)
Need for sound risk management
b) sound risk management in large value funds
c) sound risk management in small and large value funds
d) Faster funds transfer of small value funds
Q.427. Inter bank funds transfer systematic can be classified as :-
a. Net settlement system
b. Gross settlement system
c. Both (a) + (b)
d. SWIFT Settlement
Q.428. How the net position in RTGS is calculated?
(a) Bilateral or multilateral basis
(b) Sum of value of all transfer received minus the sum of value
of all transfer sent
(c) Position at settlement time
(d) All of above
Q.429. Define Internet Banking
(a) Network adopting a common proprietary standard
(b) Worldwide website for larger heterogeneous computers
(c) Worldwide network of networks with various operating systems
able to communicate with each other
(d) A quite and easy exchange of information
Q.430. Internet is accessible through-
(a) Modem over telephone lines
(b) Terminals over personal computer
(c) Improvement over a lovely accessible private networks
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Q.431. Advantages of interest are-
(a) Convenience to significant bank accountholders other than at bank branches
(b) Every transaction one can change password for subsequent transactions
(c) Most users surf internet on smartphones rather than on fixed broadband
(d) Above (a) + (b)
Q.432. What is eventuality in Internet banking, for multiple purposes?
(a) Net neutrality
(b) Safety against hackers
(c) Change of password after every transaction
(d) Use of fixed broadband
58 .
Q.433. Name the institution which does the work of money transfer business through 31000 transactions centres in 26 states
(a) NEFT
(b) RIGS
(c) FINO
(d) TCP
Q.434. Disadvantages of Internet in India are-
(a) Surfing on smart phones
(b) Misutilisation of passwords, when given to other person
(c) Safety broken by hackers and absence of net neutrality d) All above
ANSWER
370 A 371 D 372 A 373 D 374 D 375 D 376 A 377 D 378 C 379 D
380 C 381 C 382 C 383 D 384 D 385 D 386 C 387 D 388 A 389 C
390 C 391 D 392 D 393 D 394 A 395 D 396 D 397 A 398 A 399 D
400 A 401 B 402 C 403 D 404 B 405 C 406 C 407 B 408 D 409 A
410 C 411 B 412 A 413 B 414 B 415 B 416 A 417 A 418 D 419 B
420 A 421 A 422 A 423 B 424 B 425 B 426 B 427 C 428 D 429 C
430 A 431 D 432 A 433 C 434 D
59 .
PRACTICE TEST PAPERS
(BASED ON IIBF TEST PATTERN)
PRACTICE TEST PAPER NO.1 ( TEST YOUR SELF )
01. Which of the following is not true about- Credit cards?
a. Different Types of Credit Cards are offered by different banks.
b. Card Limit varies with individuals.
c. Free Credit Period is not allowed and payment is instantaneous.
d. Allows purchases at one point and payment to be made subsequently.
e. None of these
02. Which of the following is not true about Debit cards?
a. All banks offer a standard type of Debit Card either with Visa or MasterCard.
b. Purchase and payment are happening at the same time.
c. No customerwise limit prescribed as drawing is from the existing balance in the account.
d. Free Credit Period is allowed., e) None of these
03 The application for NEFT could be submitted in which of the following forms?
a. Physical form
b. Electronic form
c. Either of (a) or (b) d) None of these
04 Which of the following are the essential elements of beneficiary's identification in NEFT
a. Beneficiary's Name; BankName; Beneficiary's Account No; Beneficiary's
Branch IFSC
b. Beneficiary's Name; AccountType; Beneficiary's Account No; Beneficiary's
Branch IFSC
c. Beneficiary's Name; Branch Name; Account Type; Beneficiary's Account No;
Beneficiary's Branch IFSC
d. Beneficiary's Name; Branch Name; Bank Name; Account Type; Beneficiary's Account No; Beneficiary's Branch IFSC
05 As per NEFT, the beneficiary branches would make payment to the beneficiaries by crediting the specified account of the beneficiary or
otherwise placing funds at the disposal of the beneficiary. The time within which payment should be made is:
a) within 24 hours of the remittance. b) within 12 hours of the remittance
c) 0 within two hours of batch settlement time d) None of the above
06 In NEFT, the settlement of transactions is done in batches. How many batches are held on weekdays and Saturdays?
6 batches on weekdays and 3 batches on Saturdays.
11 hourly batches on weekdays and 5 hourly batches on Saturdays.
5 batches on weekdays and 2 batches on Saturdays
None of these
07 What are the timings of first and last settlement on weekdays and Saturdays?
a. 9.00 AM & 19.00 PM; 9.00 AM & 13.00 PM
b. 9.30 AM & 19.30 PM; 9.30 AM & 13.30 PM
c. 10.00 AM & 17.00 PM; 10.00 AM & 12.00 PM
d. 9.00 AM & 17.00 PM; 9.00 AM & 12.00 PM
08 What are the limits on minimum and maximum amount that can be remitted through NEFT?
Minimum 10,000; Maximum Rs 100,000
No minimum but maximum is Rs 100,000
No minimum but maximum is Rs 200,000
No minimum and no maximum
60 .
09 Which of the following processing charges for outward remittances under NEFT is not correct?
Upto Rs 1 lac: Rs 5
More than Rs 1 lac up to Rs 2 lac: Rs 15
More than Rs 2 lac: Rs 25
More than Rs 5 lac: Rs 50
10 How much charges are levied for inward remittances under NEFT?
Upto Rs 1 lad: Rs 1
More than Rs 1 lac up to Rs 2 lac: Rs 5
More than Rs 2 lac: Rs 10
More than Rs 5 lac: Rs 25
None of these as there no inward remittance charges.
11 Which of the following is not correct regarding NEFT?
The system is neither centre specific nor has any geographical restriction inside the country.
NEFT system can be used only for remitting Indian Rupee among the participating banks within the country.
NEFT works on Net settlement basis.
None of these
12 RTGS is a remittance system. The full form of G is:
Good b) Gross c) Graded d) Granular
13 In RTGS system of remittance, transfer of money_ takes place from one bank to another on which basis?
Real Time basis b) Gross Basis c) Net Basis d) Both (a) and (b) e) Both (a) and (c)
14 Which of the following is the fastest possible money transfer system through the banking channel?
NEFT b) RTGS c) Telegraphic Transfer d) SFMS
15 RTGS helps in preventing which type of risks?
Systemic and Settlement Risks
Liquidity and Settlement Risk
Credit and Market Risk
Reputation Risk
16 Which of the following has been replaced by introduction of RTGS?
Electronic Fund Transter
Electronic clearing service
High Value clearing
None of these
17 What are the limits on minimum and maximum amount that can be remitted through RIGS?
The minimum amount to be remitted through RTGS is Rs.2 lakh. There is no upper ceiling for RIGS transactions.
The minimum amount to be remitted through RTGS is Rs.1 lakh . There is no upper ceiling for RIGS transactions
The minimum amount to be remitted through RIGS is Rs.2 lakh and upper ceiling per transaction is Rs 10 crore.
None of these
18 How much time is taken in RIGS for effecting funds transfer from one account to another?
The beneficiary bank has to credit the beneficiary's account within two hours of receiving the funds transfer message.
The beneficiary bank has to credit the beneficiary's account within one hour of receiving the funds transfer message.
The beneficiary bank has to credit the beneficiary's account within two hours of the settlement time of the batch. d)None of these
19 What are the timings under RIGS for Customer's transactions on week days and
on Saturdays?
a)9.30 hours to 16.30 hours; 9.30 hours to 12.30 noon.
b) 9.00 hours to 16.00 hours; 9.00 hours to 13.00 noon.
c) 9.00 hours to 16.30 hours; 9.00 hours to 13.30 noon.d) None of these
20.What are the timings under RTGS for Inter Bank transactions on week days and on Saturdays?
a) 9.30 hours to 18.30 hours; 9.30 hours to 13.30 noon.
b)9.00 hours to 18.00 hours; 9.00 hours to 15.00 noon.
c) 9.00 hours to 18.00 hours; 9.00 hours to 15.00 noon d) None of these
21.Which of the following processing charges for outward remittances under RIGS is not correct?
Upto Rs 2 to 5 lac: Not exceeding Rs 25 c) More than Rs 5 lac up to Rs 10 lac: d) Rs 50 More than Rs 5 lac: e) Not exceeding Rs 50 None of
61 .
these
22.Which of the following is not correct regarding transactions handled through RTGS?
a) Inter Bank transactions are used to settle the participant bank's financial obligations on their own account.
b) Delivery versus Payment transactions arise out of RBI's Securities Settlement System and is settled in the RTGS as a separate

transaction.
c) Inter Bank Payments Transactions arise mainly out of treasury operations such as money and debt market deals and forex
transactions.
d) Own account transactions relate to the transfer of funds from the bank's one RBI account to another done by the treasury department of

banks
to maintain liquidity limits prescribed by RBI.
e) None of these
ECS (Credit) is used for which of the following?
affording credit to a large number of beneficiaries by raising a single debit to an account.
for payment of dividend, interest or salary payment.
for raising debits to a number of accounts of consumers/ account holders for crediting a particular institution.
Both (a) and (b)
24 ECS (Debit) is used for which of the following?
affording credit to a large number of beneficiaries by raising a single debit to an account.
for payment of dividend, interest or salary payment.
for raising debits to a number of accounts of consumers/ account holders for crediting a particular institution.
Both (a) and (b)
25 Which of the following is not an advantage of ECS (Debit)?
The process is flexible as the mandate can be changed also in case of debit to another account or debit of higher amount etc.
Beneficiary need not go to the collection centres/banks and no need to stand in long 'Q's for payment.
The ECS user saves on administrative machinery for --collecting the cheques, monitoring their realisation and reconciliation; Better cash

management;
Avoids chances of frauds due to fraudulent access to the paper instruments and encashment.
Realise the payments on different dates instead of a single date. e) None of these
26 In the context of Retail Banking, which of the following is incorrect about marketing?
Identifying the most profitable markets now and in the future.
Assessing only the present needs of customers.
Setting business development goals and making plans to meet them.
Adapting to a changing environment in the market place. e) None of these
27 In marketing all the activities have to be focussed towards which of the following?
Identifying the customers' needs.
Developing appropriate products to satisfy their needs.
Providing customers with efficient delivery channels for availing the products.
Making customers avail the products continuously.
All of these
28 Which of the following is not an ingredient of an effective marketing mix in retail banking?
Product and Price b) Promotion and Place c) People and Process
d) Physical evidence e) None of these
29. A bank product can be defined as anything that:
a)is desired by the customer for his day to day activities of business.
b) provides delight to customer both in terms of price and service.
c)has the capacity to provide the satisfaction, use, and return desired by the customer None of these
d)All of these
30.In the context of Marketing mix, price means which of the following?
a) Charges charged by bank to the customer.
b) Charges paid by bank to the customer.
c) Transaction cost to be borne by the banker or the customer depending upon the product offered or availed.
d) None of these.
31. In the case of deposit products, 'Price' refers to which of the following?
a) The interest rate offered by the banker to the customer.
b) The interest rate offered by the banker to the customer minus charges debited to customer for various services provided.
c) The interest rate offered by the banker to the customer plus free services allowed to customer.
62 .
d) None of these
32.Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding pricing of products?
a) In asset products, 'price' refers to the interest the bank is quoting to the borrower customer for offering the loan product to the

customer.
b) In case of other services, price refers to the fee/charges the bank is charging for offering the different services.
c) In asset products, 'price' refers to the interest the bank is paying to depositor customer.
d) Both (a) and (b)
e) Both (b) and (c)
33. Which of the following can not be called as Promotion activity as part of Marketing Mix?
a) Personal Selling
b) Advertisement
c) Sales promotions
d) Good ambience of the branch
e) None of these
34. Which of the following is not correct regarding ?lace' as a part of Marketing Mix?
a)'Place' in retail banking generally refers to the place where the Bank is offering its product. B)'Place' is limited to the location of

Branch.
c)Technology has shifted the place from the brick and mortar format to e format and has reached the customer in his place through
Internet banking and mobile banking. d) None of these
35 'People' concept in Marketing refers to which of the following?
The people who are doing the marketing strategies.
The 'people' who are the beneficiaries of the marketing strategies.
People delivering the product. d) Both (a) and (c) only e ) All of these
36 In the context of marketing, Physical evidence means adding tangible aspects to even otherwise intangible nature of banking services.

Which
of the following can be considered as part of physical evidence?
Debit Card and ATM Card
Personalised Cheque Book
Both (a) and (b) e) None of these
37 For delivering banking services, banks generally use how many channels?
Only one b) Only two c) Multi channels d) None of these
38 Remote channels for delivery of banking services are preferred by which of the following?
conservative customer so that he can maintain regular records.
Young and tech savvy customers as they feel convenience in using this channel.
Senior Citizens as they find it difficult to visit branches frequently_
Both (a) and (b) only e) All of these
39 Which of the following is not a remote channel for delivery of banking services?
Mobile Banking
Internet Banking c) ATM d) Branch , e) None of these
40 Despite flexibility with all the remote channels, the preference for the brick and mortar format has been maximum. Which of the
following is a reason for the same?
Branch converts the tangible nature of banking services to intangible.
The service at branches is much better than through remote channels.
The transactions carried out in the branch premises infuse a sense of confidence in the minds of the customers. d) None of these
Which of the following is not an advantage of good branch layout?
It promotes efficiency as it will ensure smooth flow of services.
Internal communicationeffectiveness increases facilitating better customer service.
It helps in reducing cost d) None of these
The main objectives of banks to set up ATMs are:
To offer convenience to customers an additional choice to withdraw money during any time of the day according to their will and pleasure.
To move the customers away from the counters as service cost is comparatively less through ATMs than across the counter at the branch.
To solve the problems of small receipts at branches.
Both (a) and (b) e) All of these
Customers can withdraw from other banks' ATMs also. For that purpose, a common networking arrangement has been initiated for ATM
operations. This arrangement is called:
63 .
Structured Financial Messaging System
Very Small Aperture Terminal
National Financial Switch
National Payment System
The facility of cash withdrawal through other bank's ATM without paying any charge is available to which of the following?
Saving Bank customers without any limit on number of withdrawals.
Current account customers subject to maximum five withdrawals in a month up to Rs 10000 per transaction.
Saving Bank Customers subject to maximum five withdrawals in a month up to Rs 10000 per transaction.
None of these
Every ATM has certain components and the entire package is bundled in the ATM machine. Which of the following is not a part of
these components?
Card Reader
Cash Dispenser
Key Board/Display Unit/Touch Screen Receipt Printer
Signature verifier.
How many attempts are allowed to customer to enter the correct PIN and if the same is not entered correctly in all these attempts, the card

is
confiscated.
Two b) Three c) Four d) Five e) None of these
47 ATMS are always complaint prone because of the break downs and cash out situations. These two faults would result in which type of risk

for the
bank?
Legal risk
Liquidity Risk
Settlement Risk.
Reputation Risk
48 In case of failed ATM transaction, bank is required to credit the customer's account within how many days?
Within 12 days from the date of receipt of complaint by the bank.
Within 12 working days from the date of receipt of complaint by the bank.
Within 7 days from the date of transaction.
Within 7 working days from the date of receipt of complaint by the bank.
49 In case of failed ATM transaction, if bank does not credit the customer's account within 7 working days from the date of receipt of

complaint by
the bank, the bank is required to pay compensation at which rate?
Rs 100 per day for the period of delay with a maximum equal to the amount of transaction.
Rs 100 per day for the period of delay.
Rs 100 per working day for the period of delay.
Rs 100 per working day for the period of delay provided customer makes a claim for the same.
50 Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has allowed cash to be withdrawn from any merchant establishment with a POS terminal with a ceiling
of a day on withdrawal of cash
at merchant outlets using debit cards. The charges to be levied are decided by banks themselves which is generally nominal and anywhere

between
free and Rs 20.
Rs 1000
Rs 2000
Rs 5000 d) None of these
51 The rationale behind RBI allowing cash withdrawal through Point of Sales terminal is:
to reduce pressure on ATMs
to reduce pressure on branches
to enhance financial inclusion.
All of these
52 Ernest. T. Parkins, has suggested that movement of banking services to electronic delivery would bring about certain changes. Which of

the
following changes have not been highlighted by him?
reduction of geographic barriers
commoditization of banking products
new competitive strategies deployed by banks
All of these , e)None of these
64 .
53. Which of the following are the important human interventions in physical channels for delivery of banking services?
a) Internal Customer - Staff of the Branch Specialised Marketing Personnel
b) Direct Selling Associates (DSAs)
c) Both (b) and (c) only
d) All of these
54. In public sector banks, even without a strategic focus to retail banking, the service delivery is generally more personalised and

caring. Which of
the following is/are reasons for the same?
a) loyalty factor of public sector bank customers.
b) better personal understanding of the customers' profile by the staff in PSBs.
c) Both (a) and (b) , d) None of these
55. Which of the following is not a requirement for efficient delivery of banking services?
A) Understanding the customer, his income level, his financial profile, his needs, his requirements of financial products and his life

stage.
b) Cross selling the right products to match their requirements.
c) Post sales service follow up for customer satisfaction.
d) Attitude for customer service and the concept of team in customer delivery., e) None of these
56.Customer Empathy means which of the following?
a) Sympathising with customer for delay in service.
b) Counselling the customer for repayment of loans in time.
C) Making attempts for financial inclusion.
d) Putting oneself in the shoes of the customer and looking the service level from customer' perspective.
57. Foreign and private banks, engaged external agencies to carry out marketing and customer acquisitions for which of the
following reason(s)?
a) External agencies are extremely professional compared to bank's own staff.
External agencies have large database.
There was mismatch with their retail banking objectives and the human resources available to achieve the objectives. d) None of these
58 The concept of Direct Selling Agents (DSAs) was pioneered by:
new private sector banks.,b) foreign banks., c) private sector banks, d) None of these
59 Which of the following is not correct regarding Direct Selling agents?
DSAs are primarily engaged in sourcing Credit Cards and Retail Loans.
The appointed DSA appoints field personnel and supplemented by tele callers, start the marketing process and follow up to meet the customers

and
convert them into sales.
The scrutiny and KYC formalities are done by Direct Selling agents.
Both (a) and (b) , e) None of these
60 What have been disadvantages of appointing Direct Selling agents?
DSAs focus on pure selling by pushing the products than effective marketing after verifying the needs of the customers and their
actual requirements.
Misselling by DSAs have been rampant especially in the credit card space which make the customers fall into a debt trap by misusing
the cards.
By appointing DSAs, the cost of delivery of service would increase substantially.
Both (a) and (b) only , e) All of these
61 Which of the following risk is mainly faced by banks by appointing Direct Selling Agents?
Market Risk
Legal Risk
Reputational Risk
Both (b) and (c) only e) All of these
62 Bulk sale through tie up is an option to expand retail assets. Banks enter into tie ups with which , of the following for extending

different types of
loans?
Builders
Auto Dealers
Employers of large companies
Educational Institutions e) All of these
63 In the context of Customer Relationship Management, which of the following represent the meaning of Relationship?
a)The service quality of the bank should match the customer expectations in total and result in total satisfaction of the customer
65 .
b)The total need spectrum of the customers should be addressed
c)Service delivery should result in absolute satisfaction for the customer.
d)Both (a) and (c) only, e) All of these
64. Which of the following is not a feature of Customer Relationship Management (CRM)?
a) CRM means having 180 degree view of the customers and their profile.
b) dynamically tracking customers' requriements and offering matching products and services.
c) cross selling relevant products to customer's changing needs and keeping him happy for ever.
d) None of these
65. Which type of transactions are not carried out in RTGS?
a) Inter-Bank transactions
b) Customer transactions
c) Delivery versus Payment transactions
d) Own account transfer transactions , e) None of these
66.BCSBI stands for which of the following?
a) Board for Codes and Standards in Banks in India
b)Banking Commitments and Standards Board of India
c)Banking Codes and Standards Board of India , d) None of these
67. Code for Banking Services is a
a) Statutory Code , b) Voluntary Code , c)Regulatory Code , d) RBI Code
68. Banking Services Code sets standards o f b a n k i n g p r a c t i c e s f o r b a n k s t o f o l l o w w h e n t h e y a r e
d e a l i n g w i t h i n d i v i d u a l c u s t o m e r s . A ) M i n i m u m
b ) D e s i r a b l e , c ) M a x i m u m , d ) E x p e c t e d
69. Which of the following statements is/are true about Banking Services Code?
a) The Code does not replace or supersede regulatory or supervisory instructions of the Reserve Bank of India., b) Provisions of the
Code may set higher standards than what is indicated in the regulatory instructions and such higher standards will prevail as the Code

represents
best practices voluntarily agreed to by banks.
Provisions of the Code can not set higher standards than what is indicated in the regulatory instructions.
Both (a) and (b) only e) Both (a) and (c) only
70 Which of the following is not the objective Banking Services Code?
Promote good and fair banking practices by setting minimum standards in dealing with customers.
Increase transparency so that customer can have a better understanding of what customer can reasonably expect of the services.
Encourage market forces, through
competition, to achieve higher operating standards.
Provide a separate mechanism for settlement of disputes between banks
None of these
71 Banking Services Code does not apply to which of the following services?
Current accounts, savings accounts, term deposits, recurring deposits, PPE accounts and all other deposit accounts.
Payment services such as pension, payment orders, remittances by way of Demand Drafts, wire transfers and all electronic transactions e.g.
RIGS, EFT, NEFT
Banking services related to Government transactions
Third party insurance and investment products sold through bank's branches.
None of these
72 Banking Services Code does not apply to which of the following services?
Demat accounts, equity, Government bonds.
Indian currency notes exchange facility
Collection of cheques, safe custody services, safe deposit locker facility
Loans, overdrafts and guarantees e) None of these
73 Banking Services Code does not apply the products and services provided by branches or subsidiaries, agents acting on behalf of the bank

through
which of the following means?
across the counter, b) over the phone or by post c) through internet
d) through interactive electronic devices e) None of these
74 As per Banking Services Code, changes in interest rates and changes in the reference rate to which the floating rate of interest is

linked will be
66 .
informed to the customer through which of the following?
Notice at the branches b) Letters c) Website d) All the above e) Any one or more of the above
75. As per Banking Services Code, if bank increases any of charges or introduce a new
charge, it will be notified prior to the revised charges being levied / becoming effective.
7 days b) 15 days c) 10 days d) one month e) None of these
76.As per Banking Services Code, if any change in terms and conditions is made without notice, bank will notify the change within days. If
such change is to customer's
disadvantage, customer may within days and without notice, close
account or switch it without having to pay any extra charges or interest.
a) 15 days, 30 days
b) 15 days, 45 days
c) 30 days, 60 days
d) 30 days, 45 days
77.As per Banking Services Code, for the purpose of recovery, normally Bank's representatives will contact customer between
and unless the special circumstances of customer's business or occupation require otherwise.
a) 0800 hrs and 1800 hrs
b) 0700 hrs and 1900 hrs
c) 0900 hrs and 1900 hrs
d) 0700 hrs and 2000 hrs
78. As per Banking Services Code, Bank will acknowledge the receipt of customer's nomination details and record the fact of nomination on

the
passbook/ Account Statement/ FDRs. Bank will also indicate the name of the nominee thereon in which of the following case?
a) At the request of customer
b) Even without request of customer
c) Even if customer does not agree for the same
d) None of these
79. If customer is not happy about choice of current / savings account, within of making first payment into the account, the Bank will help
the customer switch to another account or Bank will give customer's money back with any interest it may have earned.
a) 7 days, b) 10 days, c) 14 days, d) None of these
80 The minimum balance to be maintained in the Savings Bank account is required to be displayed in the branches. Bank will inform
of any change in minimum balance to be maintained days in advance.
10 days b) 15 days c) 30 days d) None of these
81 Under normal circumstances, Bank will not close customer's account without giving customer at
least_____________days' notice
30 days b) 15 days c) 10 days d) None of these
82 If Bank plan to close branch or if Bank moves its branch, Bank should give notice of months
if there is no other branch of any bank functioning at customer's centre and notice of months, if
there is a branch of any other bank functioning at customer's centre.
3 months, 2 months b) 2 months, 1 months c) 6 months, 3 months d) None of these
83 Bank should settle the claims in respect of deceased depositors and release payments to survivor(s) I nominee(s) within a period
not exceeding days from the date of receipt of the claim subject to the production of proof of death of the depositor and suitable

identification
of the claim(s).
30 days b) 15 days c) 10 days d) None of these
84 Which of the following is not correct?
Bank will invariably provide customer with an acknowledgement of customer's loan application. Bank shall make every endeavour to indicate on
customer's application the period within which customer can expect to receive a decision on customer's request for loan.
Bank will give customer the Most Important Terms and Conditions (MITC) governing the loan / credit facility customer have availed.
Bank will provide customer the sanction letter detailing particulars of amount sanctioned, terms and conditions, customer's responsibilities

as well
as the bank's, etc
None of these
85 Bank will return to customer all the securities I documents/title deeds to mortgaged property
Within days of the repayment of all dues agreed to or contracted
7 days b) 10 days c) 15 days d) None of these
67 .
86 Which of the following is not correct regarding loan documents?
Bank is not bound to supply authenticated copies of the loan documents executed by customer at Bank's cost.
Bank will give written receipt for all documents to title taken as security/ collateral for any loan as well as for dated/undated cheques

received
from customer.
Both (a) and (b) , d) None of these
87 Bank will process request for transfer of borrowal account, either from the borrower or from a bank/financial institution, in the normal
course and convey its concurrence or otherwise within days of receipt of request.
10 days, b) 15 days, c) 21 days , d) 30 days
88 Which of the following is correct regarding offering of credit facilities by a bank?
Bank will not offer any unsolicited pre-approved credit facility in any form, including enhancement of credit card limit and top up of

personal loan
limits.
In case, Bank offers/approves a credit facility over the telephone, Bank will credit customer's account with the amount sanctioned only

after
receiving customer's acceptance in writing.
Both- (a) and (b) , d) None of these
89. Which of the following is not a characteristic of stand alone model for processing of retail loans?
a) Retail Loans are only one part of the multiple activities.
Difference in quality of appraisal based on the' branch and its personnel.
Processing time may differ based on the priorities of the branches and importance of the customers/proposals.
Based on documents only.
None of these
90 The concept behind Credit Card is:
Buy Now, Pay Later b) Buy Now, Pay Now. c) Buy Now, Pay tomorrow.
d) Pay Now, Buy Later e) None of these
91 Which of the following banks were the pioneers in the Indian credit card market in the 1980s?
Standard Chartered Bank b) State Bank of India c) Citibank and HSBC d) None of these
92.For issue of credit card, which of the
following banks were the early starters among the public sector banks in India?
Andhra Bank, Bank of Baroda. b) State Bank of India, PNB
c) Band of Baroda and Bank of India d) Andhra Bank and Vijaya Bank
93. What is the feature of credit cards issued in the proprietary format?
Banks issue the card in different brand names like Classic, Silver, Gold, Platinum, Titanium etc.
Credit limits, cash withdrawal limits and other facilities will depend on the type of card.
Banks tie up with service providers like Hotels, Oil Companies, Airline Companies etc
Both (a) and (b) only
All of these
94. What is the feature of credit cards issued in the Co branded format?
Banks issue the card in different brand names like Classic, Silver, Gold, Platinum, Titanium etc.
Credit limits, cash withdrawal limits and other facilities will depend on the type of card.
Banks tie up with service providers like Hotels, Oil Companies, Airline Companies etc
None of these
95. Which of the following is correct about credit cards issued in Co branded format?
Banks offer the cards as a co branded product with the brand name of the company with whom there is tie up also embossed in the card.
Co branded cards enable brand recall.
Co branded cards result in better utilization of the products offered by the tied up product.
(a) and (b) only. e) All of these
96. When finance charges are levied in the case of a credit card?
When the amount is overdue or delay in payment of charges under the card.
When withdrawals from the card are more than the limit sanctioned.
When card member deposits part of the Total Payment or the Minimum Amount Due.
None of these
97.The concept behind Debit Card is:
Buy Now, Pay Later b) Buy Now, Pay Now. c) Buy Now, Pay tomorrow.
68 .
d) Pay Now, Buy Later e) None of these
98. Debit card can be used for which of the
following purpoSes? The card can be used for any operations like payment of purchases, cash withdrawal (subject to per day limit) through

ATMs,
Utility Payments etc
Payment of purchases b) Cash withdrawals through ATMs c) Utility Payments
d) (a) and (b) only e) All of these
99 What is the objective of introducing NEFT by RBI?
To facilitate an efficient, secure, economical, reliable and expeditious system of funds transfer throughout India.
To relieve the stress on the existing paper based funds transfer and clearing system.
To facilitate clearing in the banking sector in India.
Both (a) and (b) only
All of these
100 Which of the following are parties in an NEFT system?
The sending bank, the sending Service Centre, the NEFT Clearing Centre, the receiving Service Centre and the beneficiary branch.
The sending bank, the sending Service Centre, the receiving Service Centre and the beneficiary branch.
The sending bank, the NEFT Clearing Centre, and the beneficiary branch.
The sending bank, the sending Service Centre, the WEFT Clearing Centre, and the beneficiary branch
ANSWER
1 C 2 D 3 C 4 D 5 C 6 B 7 A 8 D 9 D 10 E
11 D 12 B 13 D 14 B 15 A 16 C 17 A 18 A 19 C 20 C
21 B 22 E 23 D 24 C 25 D 26 B 27 E 28 E 29 C 30 C
31 A 32 D 33 D 34 B 35 E 36 C 37 C 38 B 39 D 40 C
41 D 42 D 43 C 44 C 45 E 46 B 47 D 48 D 49 C 50 A
51 C 52 E 53 E 54 C 55 E 56 D 57 C 58 B 59 C 60 D
61 C 62 E 63 E 64 A 65 E 66 C 67 B 68 A 69 D 70 D
71 E 72 E 73 E 74 E 75 D 76 C 77 B 78 A 79 C 80 C
81 A 82 A 83 B 84 D 85 C 86 A 87 C 88 C 89 D 90 A
91 C 92 A 93 D 94 C 95 E 96 C 97 B 98 E 99 E 100 A
69 .
PRACTICE TEST PAPER NO. 2 ( TEST YOUR SELF )
1 Mr. Satish Kumar working as a Senior Gazetted Officer in a Government Department having 20 years left over service was recently

transferred to
Hyderabad. He approached a branch and requested that he is in pursuit of a good house or apartment in Hyderabad for immediate purchase and

he
requires in principle sanction. Whether the Bank accede to his request? If so, it is valid for how many months?
No. We cannot accede to such request
Yes, it is valid for one month
valid for three months
Yes, it is valid for six months
2 If the house property is bought purely from investment angle, expecting appreciation of value over a period, the loan should be considered

as:
risky and dealt with differently by tightening norms relating to margin, security and guarantee.
just like any other housing loan because security is similar.
risky or like any other housing loan depending on bank's relationship with customer.
None of these
03 The business model followed by Banks for retail banking are
Strategic Business Unit (SBD) Approach b) Departmental Approach
c) Integrated Approach d) Anyone of the above
04 What was done by Foreign banks like BNP Paribus, which entered in retail banking activities very aggressively, but were not able
to achieve the business, objectives?
They continued with their business in spite of not being profitable to keep their presence in market.
They moved out of the business. c) They changed their focus with some strategic changes.
d) None of the above
05 The" implementation models followed by banks for retail banking are
Horizontally Organised Model b) Vertically Organised Model
c) Prredominantly Vertically Organised Model d) Predominantly Horizontally Organised Model
e) Anyone of the above.
06 Price structuring for products and services is attempted by banks in which of the following ways?
Stand alone pricing for different products and services.
Special quotes for high value deposits and retail assets.
Bundled pricing/Holistic pricing based on total relationship.
All the above.
07 The customer segment whose income level is between Rs.10 lacs to Rs.50 lacs is referred to as:
Mass Market b) Super Affluent c) HNW d) Mass Affluent
08 According to Maslow's Need Hierarchy Theory, needs are classified in five categories. These include physiological need, Safety Needs,

Social Needs.
Which are two other needs as identified by Maslow?
Esteem Needs and Self Actualisation Needs
Esteem Needs and Power Needs
Power Needs and Self Actualisation Needs
Existence Needs and Self Actualisation Needs
ustomers' expectations of service quality does not depend on which of the following:
Tangibility in services and Reliability. b) Responsiveness. c) Assurance
d) Empathy. e) None of these
10 Given below are certain statements about customers. Which of these statements are true (1) Customers are different. (2) Needs of the
customers are different (3) Each customer will have different sets of need for financial services.
1 and 2 are true b) 1 and 3 are true c) 2 and 3 are true d) 1,2,3 are
11 Which of the following statements are true?
In the 'Introduction' stage of a product, the sales- volume will be low and revenue from the products will not be sufficient to cover the

cost of producing,
marketing and servicing it.
In the 'growth' stage, which is the second stage in the product life cycle, the . sales volumes remains stagnant.
Both (a) and (b) are true d) Neither (a) nor (b) is true.
70 .
12 Product architecture of various types of products is given below. Which of the following combinations is/are correct?
The Generic Product - the core product.
The Expected Product - adding additional features.
The Augmented Product- adding value in addition to features.
The Potential Product - futuristic features in anticipation. e) All the above.
13 Credit Scoring Models are based on which of the following details of applicants?
Family Size b) Income Levels c) Occupation/Business d) Repayment History on earlier loans
e) All the above.
14 The most common mistakes in credit score will be due to which of the following?
Confusion of names b) Human Input Error c) Identity Theft d) All the above
15 Home Loans are sanctioned by Banks for which of the following purposes?
Purchase/Construction of House. b) Purchase/Construction of Flat
c) Purchase of land and construction d) Additions to the existing house
e) All the above.
16 Auto Loans are given by banks for which of the following purposes:
Purchase of New Car b) Purchase of Used Car
c) Purchase of Two Wheelers d) All the above.
17 Personal Loans are sanctioned by banks based on which of the following features?
Salary in case of employees b) Monthly/Annual Income in case of business
c) Number of years of service/in business d) All the above.
18 Retail Loan Processing Centres of banks are designed for which of the following?
Source retail asset business b) Process retail loan applications.
c) Do the valuation/legal opinion wherever necessary. d) Release the loan either at their end or advise sanction to branches. e)
Both (b) and (d)
19 Types of credit cards issued by banks in general does not include which of the following?
Silver Card and Gold Card. b) Super Card c) Platinum Card
d) Titanium Card e) None of these
20 Which of the following features are not available in all types of cards?
Facility for payment of purchases.
Facility to withdraw cash from ATMs upto a fixed limit.
Reward Points for usage of cards.
Cash Back offers upto a certain limit for purchases made. e) None of these
21 Which of the following characteristics are available in a Debit Card?
Payments for purchases are directly debited into the account.
Cash Withdrawals through ATMs are debited to the account immediately.
Payments made for purchases/usage will be debited subsequently after a certain period.
Both (a) and (b)
22 Payment Default Risk (chances of failure to pay the card dues) is embedded in which of the following?
Debit Cards b) Credit Cards c) Both a and b. d) None of these
23 Which of the following are the objects of the NEFT System?
to establish an Electronic Funds Transfer System_ to facilitate an efficient, secure, economical, reliable and expeditious system of funds

transfer and
clearing in the banking sector throughout India.
to relieve the stress on the existing paper based funds transfer and clearing system.
Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
24 Which of the following is not the characteristics of RTGS?
Remittances and Funds Transfers are transmitted through a series of process inputs and travel from the customer end to the
beneficiary end.
Remittances are communicated through a structured messaging process.
Settlement for the message is made on a gross basis from the liquidity maintained by the sender bank with the settlement bank.
Remittances are credited on a dynamic basis and settlement also made on a dynamic basis.
None of these.
25 Which of the following are the advantages of ECS payments?
71 .
No need for issuing any cheque to the beneficiary.
Payment defaults will not happen if there is sufficient balance in the account.
No follow up needed by the beneficiary as payment will be received automatically based on the mandate obtained.
Hassle free for the mandate issuer, as it saves time for him for issuing cheques for each payment. e) All the above.
26 Which of the following does not reflect an aspect of Bank Marketing?
only now but not in the future.
Assessing the present and future needs of customers.
Setting business development goals and making plans to meet them.
Adapting to a changing environment in the market place.
None of these
27 Marketing Mix refers to which of the following?
Product & Price b) Promotion &Place c) People & Process & Physical evidence
d) All the above
28 Which of the following can not be called as Human intervention in the delivery of services?
internal Customer - Staff of the Branch b) Specialised Marketing Personnel
c) Direct Selling Associates (DSAs) d) Internet Banking e) None of these
29 The requirements for delivering effective service to the customers include which of the following?
Understanding the customer, his income level, his financial profile, his needs, his requirements of financial products and his life
stage.
Selling and Cross selling the right products to match their requirements c) Post sales service follow up for customer satisfaction. d)

Customer
Empathy e) All the above.
30 Tie ups are entered into by banks for bulk sale of retail assets. In which of the following assets these tie ups do not take place?
Home Loans b) Auto Loans c) Personal Loans d) Education Loans e) None of these.
31 Why Customer Relationship Management is given importance in banks?
Need to increase operational efficiencies and to derive more value from employees.
Increasing Competition in retail banking and Increasing Importance of Fee Based Income.
Delivery Channel Efficacy and application of technology.
Both (a) and (b) only e) All the above
32 Stages involved in a 'CRM initiative are: a) Capturing the customers' profile and
dissecting the profiles into common information buckets.
b)Designing suitable products and services to cater to the different information buckets. c) Offering the products and services to the

targeted and
segmented customers from the information buckets with the right pricing and providing the right sales and service processes to achieve total
customer satisfaction.
d) Tracking the customer information on a dynamic basis to design new products and services.
e) All the above.
33. Which of the following is not the benefit of Customer Relationship Management?
Improves the customer satisfaction and cross selling potential for the banks.
Helps the banks to derive increased share of wallet from the customer.
Helps to understand Customer Lifetime Value.
Helps to manage multi delivery channels in a better way.
None of these
34. Banking Codes and Standards of India is aimed at which of the following?
a) promote good and fair banking practices by setting minimum standards increase transparency in services.
b) encourage market forces, through competition, to achieve higher operating standards.
c) promote a fair and cordial relationship between the customer and their bank.
d) All the above.
35. Commitments to customers under BCSBI does not cover which of the following?
a) Savings Accounts b) Loan Accounts c) Remittances
d) Credit Cards & Mobile Banking e) None of these
36. Process models in retail banking are structured as
a) Horizontally Organised Model where individual process platform supports one product only.
b) Vertically Organised Model where functionality is provided across all products. Predominantly c) Horizontally Organised Model with some
modularization within a product oriented feed back.
72 .
d) Predominantly Vertically Organised Model is a hybrid model that offers common information for most of the related services.
e) Any one of the above.
37 The technology models adopted by banks are
Fully outsourced model b) Partially outsourced model
c) In house model d) Anyone of the above
38 Default in repayment in Credit Cards and Personal Loan segments is mainly due to
Genuine Defaults due to reasons beyond the borrowers' control.
Willful defaults where the default is intentional.
Anyone of the above. d) Both the above.
39 As per Supreme Court and RBI, banks should use forum of Lok Adalats for recovery of loans upto:
Rs. 2 lacs b) Rs. 5 lacs c) Rs.10 lacs d) None of the above
40 The terms and conditions for repossession as per the recovery policy should contain certain provisions. Which of the following provisions

is not
required in this regard?
notice period before taking possession
circumstances under which the notice period can be waived.
the procedure for taking possession of the security.
a provision regarding final chance to be given to the borrower for repayment of loan before the sale/auction of the property
None of these
41 Securitisation Process involves the following:
The lender first selects the assets they want to securities.
The issuer (Special Purpose Vehicle) makes payment to the lender for the loans securitised.
The assets are converted into a pool of securities by the issuer for the purpose of issuing Pass Through Certificate (PTC).
The PTCs are sold to other investors who are willing to invest.
All the above.
42 The factors which are not to be taken into account for calculation of Equated Monthly Installment(EMI) is/are:
Principal b) No. of years of repayment c) Rate of Interest
d) Type of security e) All the above.
43 Para banking refers to which of the following?
a) Distribution of life insurance policies b) Distribution of non life insurance policies
c) Distribution of mutual fund schemes d) All the above.
44 Banks distribute the following types of products in life and non life insurance business
Regular Premium Individual Policies b) Single Premium Individual Policies
c) Group Insurance Policies d) (a) and (b) only e) All the above.
45 As a Corporate Agent ,Banks can distribute the products of
One Life insurer b) One Non Life (general) insurer
c) One Life Insurer and One Non Life insurer d) Anyone of the above.
46 The maximum number of Mutual Funds that can be distributed by Banks as a Corporate Agent is
One b) Two c) Five d) No Limit
47 Cross Selling refers to
Selling additional products/services to the existing customers.
Selling products/services to new customers.
Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
48 Which of the following is/are features of Dematerialisation?
process of converting physical shares (shares certificates) into an electronic form.
Once converted, the shares are held in a Demat account.
The shares will become fungible assets after demat.
The shares are interchangeable and identical after demat. .
All the above
49 Prepayments charges collected by branches should be credited to which account?
Interest A/c) b) Commission A/c) c) Exchange No d) Current No
50 To consider the loan amount under housing loan scheme which of the following statements are true?
73 .
the property is jointly held with the spouse and the spouse is co-borrower or the property is held in single name and the spouse
stands as a guarantor.
the borrower's son or daughter who has a steady income, the salary is routed through
Bank account and joins as a co-borrower
expected rental less taxes, cess, etc., in case the house/flat being purchased is proposed to be rented
Regular income from all Sources can be considered to arrive at total eligible loan amount.
All the above
511 In the securitization process, the assets are converted into a pool of securities by the issuer for the purpose of
creating a security. b) sale to investors c) issuing Pass Through Certificate (PTC) d) None of these
52 In the securitization process, the PTCs are sold to which of the following?
investors who are willing to invest b) banks only c) large corporates only d) none of these
53 In the securitization process, the recoveries from the original borrowers are collected by:
a) Special Purpose Vehicle b) the original lender who passes the same to the SPV who in turn passes the recoveries to the
investors. c) Investors in Pass Through Certificates directly from borrowers. d) None of these
.54 In Equated Monthly insalment (EMI), which of the following is correct?
The principal component will be more during the initial months and the interest component will be less. b) The principal
component and interest component can be more or less during the initial months. c) The principal component will be less
during the initial months and the interest component will be more. d) None of these
55 In EMI model of repayment, the loan is repaid in full in monthly installments spread over the repayment period.
a) Uniform b) Variable c) Instalments containing equally distributed principal and interest on the outstanding.
d) None of these
56In EMI system, as the repayment progresses, the principal component of instalment will increase and the interest
component will reduce. What is the reason for the same?
As the repayment progresses, the principal will get reduced and hence interest charges also will decrease.
As the repayment progresses, the principal will get reduced and hence interest charges will increase.
As the repayment progresses, the interest will decrease and principal will increase. d) None of these
57 If p = principal (amount of loan), r = rate of interest per month, and n the time, the formula for calculation of EMI is
P x r x (i+r)n divided by [ (l+r)n -1] b) P x r x (l+r)n multiplied by [ (1+r)" -1]
c) P x r x [ (l+r)n -1] divided by (l+r)n d) P x r x[ (1+r)n -1] multiplied by (1+r)n
58 The concept of selling products other than banking products is called
Cross Selling b) Universal Banking c) Narrow banking d) Para Banking
59 Banks provide services like insurance, mutual funds, dematerialization etc, to its customers for which of the following reasons? a)
To improve asset liability management b) To increase interest margin. c) To improve fee based income d) All of these e) None of
these
60 Which of the following is not correct regarding Mutual Fund business by banks?
Bank-sponsored mutual funds should comply with guidelines issued by SEBI from time to time.
Prior approval of the RBI should be obtained by banks before undertaking mutual fund business.
Prior approval of the RBI need not be be obtained by banks before undertaking mutual fund business. However, approval from SEBI
is required. d) Both (a) and (b)
61 Which of the following is correct regarding use of bank's name with bank sponsored mutual funds?
The bank-sponsored mutual funds can use the name of the sponsoring bank as part of their name.
The bank-sponsored mutual funds should not use the name of the sponsoring bank as part of their name.
c) The bank-sponsored mutual funds can use the name of the sponsoring bank as part of their name with the permission of RBI. d) None
of these
62 Where a bank's name has been associated with a mutual fund, then which of the following is correct?
A suitable disclaimer clause should be inserted while publicising new schemes that the bank is not liable or responsible for any loss
or shortfall resulting from the operations of the scheme.
Bank will be liable for any loss resulting from the operations of the scheme even if disclaimer clause has been inserted.
Bank will be liable for vicarious liability of Mutual Fund sponsored by the bank. d) None of these
63 If a Bank enter into agreements with mutual funds for marketing the mutual fund units, then
Banks should only act as an agent of the customers, forwarding the investors'
applications for purchase / sale of MF units to the Mutual Funds/ the Registrars / the transfer agents.
The purchase of units should be at the customers' risk and without the bank guaranteeing any assured return.
74 .
The bank can guarantee assured return if counter assurance is given by mutual fund.
Both (a) and (b) e) Both (a) and (c)
64 Which of the following is correct about Mutual Fund business by banks?
Banks can acquire units of Mutual Funds from the secondary market.
Banks should not buy back units of Mutual Funds from their customers.
If a bank proposes to extend any credit facility to individuals against the security of units of Mutual Funds, it should be as per
guidelines of RBI on advances against shares / debentures and units of mutual funds.
Banks holding custody of MF units on behalf of their customers, should ensure that their own investments and investments made by
/ belonging to their customers are kept distinct from each other. e) None of these
65 What are RBI guidelines relating to retailing of units of mutual funds by banks?
Retailing of units of mutual funds by banks can be only through administrative offices.
Retailing of units of mutual funds by banks may be confined to certain select branches of a bank.
Retailing of units of mutual funds by banks may be confined only to large corporate branches of the bank.
Retailing of units of mutual funds by banks should be allowed through all branches of the bank.
661nsurarice` has been notified as a permissible form of business that could be undertaken by banks under which of the following
Acts?
Banking Regulation Act, 1949 b) Reserve Bank of India Act c) Negotiable Instruments Act d) None of these
67 Banks can undertake insurance business in which of the following ways?
as agents of Insurance companies only. b) on Risk Participation basis c) Either of these d) None of these
68 Banks can undertake insurance business in which of the following forms of organization? will not be permitted to be
undertaken departmentally by the banks
Departmentally b) By having separate subsidiary c) Either of these d) None of these
69 Which of the following is not correct regarding conduct of insurance business by banks on agency or referral basis?
Scheduled commercial banks are permitted to undertake insurance business as agent of insurance companies on fee basis, without
any risk participation.
Scheduled commercial banks can engage in referral arrangement without any risk participation.
The subsidiaries of banks will also be allowed to undertake distribution of insurance product on agency basis
The banks should obtain prior approval of the RBI for engaging in insurance agency business or referral arrangement without any risk
participation. e) None of these
70 As a step towards enhancing transparency, RBI has advised banks to disclose in the 'Notes to Accounts', from the year ending
March 31, 2010, which of the following in respect of the bancassurance business undertaken by them?
the details of fees / remuneration received. b) the name of insurance companies for whom bank is acting as agent.
c) Total business undertaken by the bank during the financial year. d) Both (a) and (b) only e) All of these
71 Which of the following is incorrect regarding insurance business undertaken by banks on agency/referral basis?
The participation by a bank's customer in insurance products is purely on a voluntary basis.
Bank should clearly state in all publicity _material distributed by the bank in a prominent way that participation by customer is
purely voluntary.
There should be no 'linkage' either direct or indirect between the provision of banking services offered by the bank to its
customers and use of the insurance products. d) None of these
72 The bank desirous of entering into referral arrangement, besides complying with IRDA regulations, should also enter into an
agreement with the insurance company concerned for allowing use of its premises and making use of the existing infrastructure
of the bank. The agreement should be for a period not exceeding years at the first instance and the bank should have the
discretion to renegotiate the terms depending on its satisfaction with the service or _replace it by another agreement after the
initial period. Thereafter, the bank will be free to sign a longer term contract with the approval of its Board in the case of a private
sector bank and with the approval of Government of India in respect of a public sector bank. a) 1 year b) 2 year c) 3 year d) 5
year e) None of these
73 Banks can undertake insurance business on commission basis very successfully and can earn good amount of fee based
income because:
Bank can make it precondition for all its depositors to take life insurance policy of a particular company referred by the bank.
Bank can make it precondition for all its borrowers to take general insurance policy for insurance of goods or vehicle etc only from
company for which bank is an agent.
Bank can leverage large customer base for marketing of insurance product though without adopting any restrictive practice of
forcing its customers to go in only for a particular insurance company in respect of assets financed by the bank. d) None of
75 .
these
74 A bank entering into insurance business on risk participation basis should have minimum net worth of _
Rs 100 crore b) As 200 crore c) As 300 crore d) Rs 500 crore e) Rs 1000 crore
75 All banks entering into insurance business on basis will be required to obtain prior approval of the Reserve Bank.
Agency basis i.e. Distribution of products on commission basis. b) Referral basis.
c) Risk participation basis. d) All of these
76 Banks which satisfy the eligibility criteria for entering insurance business on risk participation basis will be permitted to
set up a joint venture company for undertaking insurance business with risk participation. The maximum equity such a
bank can hold in the joint venture company will normally be per cent of the paid-up capital of the insurance company.
26% b) 49% c) 51% d) 50%
77.1n cases where a foreign partner contributes 26 per cent of the equity with the approval of Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority/Foreign Investment Promotion Board in an insurance venture on risk participation basis,
how many banks may be allowed to participate in the equity of the insurance joint venture.
only one bank b) maximum two banks c) more than one bank d) maximum three banks
78. For a bank which wants to enter into insurance business on risk participation basis, the level of
non-performing assets should be__________.
a) Below 5% b) Below 7% c) Below 10% d) At reasonable level
79 If a bank undertakes insurance business on risk participation basis, then it should ensure that:
bank provides support for risk entertained by the insurance company.
risks involved in insurance business do not get transferred to the bank, that the banking business does not get contaminated by
any risks which may arise from insurance business and there should be 'arms length' relationship between the bank and the
insurance outfit.
There should be close relationship between the bank and the insurance outfit.
Both (a) and (c) e) None of these
80 A bank entering into insurance business on risk participation basis should have minimum
capital adequacy ratio of _________
8% , b. 9% c. 10% d. 12%
81 For a bank entering into insurance business on risk participation basis, the track record of the performance of the subsidiaries, if
any, of the
concerned bank should be___________
satisfactory b) good c) very good d) excellent
82 Banks which are not eligible as joint venture participant in an insurance business, can make investments up to in the insurance
company for providing infrastructure and services support.
20% of thei r net wor th or Rs 100 crore
whichever is lower.
10% of their networth or Rs.50 crore, whichever is lower.
10% of their networth or Rs.50 crore, whichever is higher.
10% of their networth or Rs.100 crore, whichever is lower
83 A bank entering into insurance business on risk participation basis should have net profit for
last three consecutive years. b) last three years. c) last five years. d) None of these
84 Banks which are not eligible as joint venture participant in an insurance business, can make investments in the insurance
company for providing infrastructure and services support. Such banks are required to satisfy which of the following condition?
Minimum net worth Rs 200 crore. b) Minimum capital adequacy ratio 10% c) Net profit for at least two consecutive years. d)
Performance of subsidiaries should be good. e) Net NPA level of less than 10%
85 The concept of distribution of insurance policies through the branches of banks is termed as
Bancassurance b) Referral arrangement c) Bancinsurance d) Bankunderwriting
86 Bankassurance is useful for both insurance companies and banks in which of the following ways?.
By using the network of bank branches to reach their customers for selling different insurance policies, the insurance companies
can reach to large number of customers.
Banks will be able to derive more fee-based income with little risk participation.
Banks will be able to derive more fee-based income without risk participation.
Both (a) and (b) e) Both (a) and (c)
76 .
87 Which of the following is correct regarding adopting a model in technology?
Horizontally organized model is best among all models.
Predominantly horizontally organized model is best among all models.
Predominantly vertically organized model is best among all models.
All the four models achieve a certain degree of standardization and each model has to be suitably adapted to individual bank's
requirements
88 Banks market group insurance products based on definite group of customers like deposit holders and different loan customers.
What are the guidelines in this regard?
a) In group products, the group should be clearly defined and Bank will be the purchaser of the
policy on behalf of the defined group.
There should not be any deviation in the defined group for which group policy is purchased by the Bank from the insurers.
There can be deviation in the defined group for which group policy is purchased by the Bank from the insurers but its intimation
should be given immediately to the insurer. d) Both (a) and (b)
e) Both (a) and (c)
89 Banks can take the Corporate Agency of
one life insurer or one non life insurer b) one life insurer and one non life insurer only
c) More than one life insurer provided agency of non life insurer is not taken.
d) More than one non life insurer provided agency of life insurer is not taken
90 In case of regular premium policies, the commission income of banks normally varies
between_________to_____approximately.
15% to 25% b) 10% to 20% c) 5% to 10% d) None of these
91 What is the special feature of Pure term policies?
In pure Term Plan, the policy benefits cover only the death of the policyholder and the premiums are very low.
In pure Term Plan, the policy benefits cover death as well as serious illness of the policyholder and the premiums are slightly
higher.
In pure Term Plan, the policy benefits cover only accidental death and the premiums are very low.
None of these
92 The commission banks receive for mobilization of single premium policies is:
slightly less than regular premium policies as the amount of premium of single policy is high.
very low as the amount of premium of single policy is high. c) very low as for them the service cost is less. d) None of these
93 What strategy is adopted by banks and insurance companies for marketing of products through banks?
The leads for sales are generated by the bank through data base marketing and customer contacts and then pass on the leads to the
insurers for following up.
The insurers extend hand holding support for marketing by deploying their sales personnel across the banks' branches with the
banks' personnel for better conversion.
The marketing process is done jointly by banks and insurers. d) All of these
94. Insurance sector was deregulated in 1999 and foreign insurers were allowed to enter with a cap on equity being : a) 26% , b)
49%, c) 50%, d) 51%
95 In the PROPAGATE model in respect of mutual funds "0" and "G" stands for which of the following? refers to which of the
following? Product, Risk, (Returns), People, Appetite, (Place), Attributes, Training& Education.
Occasions, Geography b) Opportunities; Gains c) Opportunities; Geography d) None of these
96 If the bank is able to sell an asset product (housing/car/educational loan) to a
savings/current deposit account holder successfully, then it is called
universal banking b) cross selling. c) extension banking d) more selling
97 A research study has indicated that selling three products to a customer who already holds
one increases profitability by up to________
100% b) 200% c) 300% d) 500%
98 Which of the following is/are the features of Cross Selling?.
Cross selling is selling one or more additional products to the existing customer base.
The purpose of cross selling is to generate more business and profit per customer.
Cross selling involvesgenerating new/additional retail asset(s) from a liability.
Both (a) and (b) only e) All of these
99 Earlier cross selling was happening mostly on the liability side by marketing a high-cost term deposit product to a
77 .
savings/current account holder. What was its impact?
It increased profit per customer. b) It increased number of customers. c) It resulted in additional cost.
e) None of these
100 Which of the following is not an advantage of Cross Selling?
Cross selling an asset/additional asset product to an existing customer improves the profits, in general, and profits per customer, in
particular.
It results in reduction of cost per customer. c) Cross selling fosters brand loyalty. d) Cross selling does not help bank in
customer relationship management programmes (CIRM) e) None of these
ANSWER
1 C 2 A 3 D 4 B 5 E 6 D 7 D 8 A 9 E 10 D
11 A 12 E 13 E 14 D 15 E 16 D 17 D 18 E 19 B 20 E
21 D 22 D 23 C 24 E 25 E 26 A 27 D 28 D 29 E 30 E
31 E 32 E 33 E 34 D 35 E 36 E 37 D 38 C 39 C 40 E
41 E 42 D 43 D 44 E 45 C 46 D 47 A 48 E 49 A 50 E
51 C 52 A 53 B 54 C 55 A 56 A 57 A 58 D 59 C 60 C
61 B 62 A 63 D 64 A 65 B 66 A 67 C 68 C 69 D 70 A
71 D 72 C 73 C 74 D 75 C 76 D 77 C 78 D 79 B 80 C
81 A 82 B 83 A 84 B 85 A 86 E 87 D 88 D 89 B 90 A
91 A 92 C 93 D 94 A 95 C 96 B 97 D 98 E 99 C 100 D
78 .
PRACTICE TEST PAPER NO. 3 ( TEST YOUR SELF )
01 Which of the following is not correct regarding implementation of technology in banks?
New generation private sector banks started with technology advantage of a single server environment.
Technology enables a bank to speed up the operations but does not build and translate a customer data base into retail banking
business.
The levels of technology implementation in PSBs started from stand alone Automated Ledger Posting Machines (ALPMs) in 1980s
d) None of these
02 The implementation of core banking will help banks in which of the following ways?
It will directly increase the chances of availability of customer data base across products.
It will increase the scope for cross selling and up selling.
Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
03 In terms of processes for integration of technology in retail banking retail banks are using different approaches to standardise their

processes.
Which of the following approaches is not being adopted by banks?
Horizontally Organised Model b) Vertically Organised Model
c) Predominantly Horizontally Organised Model d) Diagonally Organised Model e) None of these
04 Which of the following is not a feature of Horizontally Organised Model in technology?
Individual process platform supports one product only.
The sub data in the model are not shared with other products and product platform. '
Functionality is provided across all products. d) None of these
05 Which of the following is a feature of Vertically Organised Model in technology?
Functionality is provided across all products. b) Customer information is centralised.
c) Centralised customer information builds common origination and servicing processes across all its retail banking products. d) All of

these
06 Which of the following is not a feature of Predominantly Horizontally Organised Model?
Some modularization within a product oriented feed back.
Customer data integration is available to a certain extent for other products.
It is a hybrid model that offers common information for most of the related services. d) None of these
07 Which of the following is not a feature of Predominantly Vertically Organised Model?
Customer data integration is available to a certain extent for other products.
It is a hybrid model that offers common information for most of the related services.
The basic information is available across products for common services to the various products
None of these
08 If a bank effectively transforms its process, it can reduce its unit costs between and completely changing its competitive
position.
between 20% and 40% b) between 10% and 20% c) between 15% and 30%, d) None of these
09 Technology helps a bank in which of the following aspects?
In enabling the employees to have a single view of the customers.
It helps in having complete view of the customer's accounts rather than of only current account balance.
It helps employees understand how important is a customer based on the portfolio of products.
Both (a) and (b) only e) All of these
10 Large Banks in the United States spend approximately how much per cent of non interest expense on information technology?
10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 25% e) None of these
11 The Technological innovation in the retail banking industry will help bank in which of the following ways?
Developing new distribution channel systems
To provide customers more ways to access their accounts so that the customer share can be increased.
Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
12 In respect of technology processes what is the status of public sector banks?
PSBs are generally more vertically organized in the process model with various levels of horizontal position across banks.
PSBs are generally more horizontally organized in the process model with various levels of vertical position across banks.
PSBs are horizontally organized in the process model. d) None of these
79 .
13 How Technology integration with the business model will help banks?
a) It will enable the banks to design their marketing strategies which can be sold to the targeted customer base through an integrated CRM
solution.
b) It will enable banks to reduce pressure on the working of staff.
c) It will enable banks to meet regulatory requirements more effectively.
d) Both (a) and (c) only e) All of these
14 With regard to implementation of technological processes, what approach has been adopted by Foreign banks in India?
They have implemented their own software developed for global operations.
They have sourced it end to end from external vendors for their requirements
They have developed their own models as per local requirements.
Either (a) or (b) e) All of these
15 Technology Process Models adopted in Public sector banks
is same in all banks b) differed among banks. c) is related to the size of the bank
d) Both (a) and (b) only e) All of these
16 In public sector banks, while adopting Technology Process Model, which of the following approach was adopted?
Some banks developed their proprietary model and in house software for implementation in branches in a phased manner.
The banks which developed proprietary model had to use the services of an external vendor for certain applications and integrated
it with their systems.
The banks which developed proprietary model had to completely outsource to keep pace with the technology developments in
retail banking.
Both (a) and (b) only e) Both (a) and (c) only.
17 In technological processes, in the retail liabilities and asset side, the software is developed to capture which of the following
information?
Only Static Information like Account Opening, Basic Loan Origination Data etc.
Static Information as well as Updated Information like Income Details at different frequencies.
Static Information, Updated Information as well as Transaction Information.
Static Information, Updated Information, Transaction Information as well as Analytics and Alerts.
18 In technological process, which of the following statements is not correct?
Static information means details regarding Account Opening, Basic Loan Origination Data etc.
Updated Information means Income Details etc at different frequencies.
Transaction Information means information from disbursement to final settlement in loan
accounts and operation details in liability accounts. d) None of these
19 Advizor, does not help banks in which of the following ways?
It empowers banks to deliver products and services through a fully assisted self service channel.
The product provides banking customers real-time access to their relationships with the bank, such as account inquiries, fund
transfers, remittances, credit card and mutual fund payments.
It enables them to make payments through channels like the Internet, kiosk_
It empowers banks to alert end users about events recorded by the bank's diverse business systems.
None of these
20 Which of the following functions is performed by Alerts Software?
_a). It empowers banks to deliver products and services through a fully assisted self service channel.
The product provides banking customers real-time access to their relationships with the bank, such as account inquiries, fund
transfers, remittances, credit card and mutual fund payments.
It enables them to make payments through channels like the Internet, kiosk.
It empowers banks to alert end users about events recorded by the bank's diverse business systems.
None of these
21 Alerts Software does not help a bank in which of the following functions?
In addition to alerting corporate and retail customers of the bank, the solution provides alerts for the bank's internal users as well.
Banks can define alert categories to control access to various alerts
It also supports addition of branding messages as part of notifications. d) None of these
22 How Customer Analytics software solution provides help to banks?
It provides complete customer analytics for banks through business reports and statistical models.
It results in business benefits, enhanced customer value.
It results in improved decision making support, reduced time to market and low total cost of ownership.
80 .
All of these e) None of these
23 Which of the following is not the features of Wealth Management Solutions?
a) These are integrated core banking and investment management system designed for the specific needs of retail banks.
When integrated with core banking and CRM solutions, the wealth management solutions ensure unique customer
definition, a single, unified view of the customer's portfolio across asset classes.
These help in offering High Net worth individuals and the mass affluent extended products and services.
It enables banks have insights about the High Net worth individual client's investment portfolio which can be used to explore
prospects for cross-selling and fee-based personalized advice. e) None of these
24 One of the major reasons for default in retail loans has been
Lack of follow up by banks. b) Poor appraisal system of banks.
c) Change in interest rates d) None of these
25 The Supreme Court has observed that loans, personal loans, credit card loans and housing loans with can be referred to Lok
Adalats organized by Civil Courts for recovery of loans
more than Rs 10 lakh b) less than Rs.10 lakh c) up to As 50 lakh d) up to As 20 lakh
26 Banks should utilise the services of the credit counsellors for providing counselling to the borrowers in which of the following
cases?
When there is a willful default. b) When there is siphoning of funds. c) when the case of a particular borrower deserves
sympathetic consideration d) When there is diversion of funds.
27 Why banks aggressively build up their retail asset portfolios to expand business?
Because retail assets are one of the best revenue drivers in banking.
As chances of default in retail banking are very less. c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these "
28 Risk in retail banking is well diversified because
the customer base is large b) the customer base is homogeneous in nature
c) the customer base is heterogeneous in nature d) Both (a) and (b) e) Both (a) and (c)
29 The retail portfolio of public sector banks is around
20% b) 30% c) 10% d) None of these
30 Which of the following is correct about retail assets?
a) The profits generated from retail portfolio are attractive, and there is no risk of default.
Retail assets like Personal Loans and Credit Card Receivables make the portfolio more vulnerable for default due to the unsecured
nature of portfolio.
Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
31 Which of the following is correct regarding repricing of loans?
Fixed pricing loans are not repriced throughout life of loan.
In case of floating rate loans, repricing takes place as per the reset clause.
In case of fixed pricing loans, repricing takes place as per the reset clause.
Both (b) and (c) e) None of these
32 In retail loans, rescheduling mainly happens in which type of loans?
Housing Loans b) Consumer Loans c) Conveyance loans d) Credit Cards e) All of these
33 Which of the following strategies are adopted by banks towards defaulters?
For genuine defaulters, the recovery process has to be gentle and professional.
In case of willful defaulters, the recovery process should be strict and very professional.
For all defaulters, the recovery process should be strict as rising NPAs are biggest problem for the banks.
Both (a) and (b) only e) None of these as there can not be any uniform method for recovery.
34 The extension of repayment period beyond the earlier committed repayment period, is called as:
Rescheduling of loans b) Restructuring of loans c) Repayment of Loans d) Reworking of Loans
35 In case of genuine defaults in Credit Cards and Personal Loans which are due to reasons beyond the borrower's control
like personal set backs, job losses, unforeseen medical expenses etc which of the following feature will be there?
In this case, intention to pay is intact. b) In this case the ability to pay is affected. c) There is a malafide intention
d) Both (a) and (b) only e) All of these
36 Which of the following strategies is adopted by banks in case of defaults in credit cards and personal loans?
In case of genuine defaults, bank adopts a customer oriented approach because the chances of recovery are poor.
In case of genuine defaults, bank adopts a customer oriented approach because the chances of recovery are bright. In case of Willful
81 .
defaults where the borrowers deliberately default with malafide intention, the approach of the banks will be on a recovery
basis.
Both (a) and (c) e) Both (b) and (c)
37 Which of the following is correct about recovery process in banks?
Recovery process is a subjective tool for maintaining the quality of retail assets.
Recovery process is designed in such a way that it addresses both genuine defaulters as well as willful defaulters.
Approach and strategies of all categories of banks to recovery of loans is same.
None of these e) All of these
38 Which of the following type of banks generally outsource their recovery process and entrust the same to Recovery Agents
for end to end recovery management when the accounts become default?
Public Sector banks b) Foreign Banks c) New generation private sector banks
d) Both (b) and (c) e) All of these
39 What is the reason for framing of guidelines by RBI prescribing the procedures for code of conduct for Recovery Agents?
Because NPAs are increasing enormously particularly in personal loans, credit cards and vehicle loans.
In the absence of these guidelines, the recovery process was ineffective.
The agents used coercive methods including threats, intimidation and forced recovery of assets financed.
Both (b) and (c) e) All of these
40 Banks should inform _ the details of recovery agency firms I companies while forwarding default cases to the recovery agency.
the borrower b) court c) independent person appointed for this purpose
d) All of these e) None of these
41 When a recovery agent goes to a borrower for recovery, he should carry with him which of the following?
copy of the notice b) authorization letter from the bank c) Proof of identity like Voter I Card, Driving Licence etc.
d) Both (a) and (b) only e) All of these
42 Which of the following is correct regarding recovery agents?
a) A bank can not change the recovery agency during the recovery process.
A bank can change the recovery agency during the recovery process and there is no need of notifying the change to the borrower as
it does not matter who the recovery agent is.
A bank can change the recovery agency but where the recovery agency is changed by the bank during the recovery process, the bank
should notify the borrower of the change and the new agent should carry the notice and the authorization letter along with his
identity card. d) None of these
43 In case of recovery through recovery agency, banks are expected to ensure which of the following?
The notice and the authorization letter should, among other details, also include the telephone numbers of the bank officials.
That there is a tape recording of the content / text of the calls made by recovery agents to the customers, and vice-versa.
Banks or agency should intimate the police that the conversation is being recorded. d) None of these
44 The up to date details of the recovery agency firms / companies engaged by banks may be:
posted on the bank's website. b) sent to borrower. c) published in newspapers.
d) None of these as it is not necessary. e) All of these
45 Which of the following is correct regarding referring cases to recovery agents?
Where a grievance/ complaint has been lodged, banks should not forward cases to recovery agencies till they have finally
disposed of any grievance / complaint lodged by the concerned borrower.
Where a grievance/ complaint has been lodged, and where the bank is convinced, with appropriate proof, that the borrower is
continuously making frivolous / vexatious complaints, it may continue with the recovery proceedings through the Recovery Agents
even if a grievance / complaint is pending with them.
In cases' where the subject matter of the borrower's dues is sub judice, banks should exercise caution, in referring the matter to the
recovery agencies. d) All of these e) Both (a) and (c) only.
46 Which of the following is incorrect about engagement of recovery agents?
Banks should have a due diligence process in place for engagement of recovery agents, which should be so structured to
cover, among others, individuals involved in the recovery process.
Banks should ensure that the agents engaged by them in the recovery process carry out verification of the antecedents of their
employees, but there is no need of preemployment police verification. Banks may decide the periodicity at which re-verification of
antecedents of the agents should be done. d) None of these
47 Indian Banks Association in consultation with Indian Institute of Banking and Finance (IIBF), has formulated a certificate course for
Direct Recovery Agents with minimum hours of training.
82 .
50 b) 60 c) 100 d) None of these
48 While employing persons for recovery, the service providers engaged by banks should ensure which of the following?
They should employ only such personnel who undertake to undergo the training for 100 hours and obtain the certificate from the
IIBF within one year from date of employment.
They should employ only such personnel who have undergone- the training for 100 hours and obtained the certificate from the IIBF.
They should employ only such personnel who undertake to undergo the training for 100 hours and obtain the certificate from the
IIBF. d) None of these
49 As per RBI guidelines on Recovery Agents, the terms and conditions of the contract with borrower should be strictly in terms of
the Recovery Policy containing various provisions. Which of the following provisions is not correctly stated in this regard?
notice period before taking possession which can not be waived under any circumstance.
the procedure for taking possession of the security
a provision regarding final chance to be given to the borrower for repayment of loan before the sale / auction of the property
the procedure for giving repossession to the borrower and sale / auction of the property e) None of these
50 When a recovery agent goes to a borrower for recovery, he should carry with him the identity card issued to him by:
the bank b) the agency firm / company. c) either of them d) Both of them
51 Banks should ensure that their agents engaged for recovery of their dues strictly adhere to RBI guidelines and including the BCSBI
Code. In case they fail to adhere to these guidelines, who will be responsible?
Only the agents appointed by them. b) Banks c) Only employees employed by agency.
d) Both (a) and (c) only e) None of these
52 To enforce its rights underSARFAESI Act,2002, a bank is required to give days notice to borrower.
30 b) 45 c) 90 d) 60 e) 120
53 To enforce its rights under SARFAESI Act,2002, minimum outstanding in the account should be:
Rs 1 lac b) more than Rs 1 lac c) Rs 10 lakh d) More than Rs 10 lakh
54 Provisions of Sarfaesi Act are not applicable in the case of:
securities under lien or pledge b) agricultural land c) Both (a) & (b) d) None
55 Provisions of Sarfaesi Act are not applicable and securities can not be acquired if---------- % of the principal amount has been
paid.
50% b) 60% c) 75% d) 80% e) None of these
56 In the case of consortium accounts, for enforcing rights under Sarfaesi Act, consent of lenders is required.
75% fenders by value b) 60% lenders by number c) Both (a) and (b) d) None
57 For enforcing rights under SARFAESI Act, the action can be initiated by:
Chief Manager & above b) AGM & above c) Senior Manager or above d) Chief Manager & above or any authority
approved by Board of Directors of the Bank
!!!!!!Which of the following is correct regarding enforcing rights under Sarfaesi Act?
58 Which of the following is correct regarding Sarfaesi Act?
Minimum outstanding in the account should be As 1 lac or above
Possession of security can not be taken over if loan is raised for any agricultural purpose.
Action can be taken even if limitation has expired
Objective of the Act is speedy recovery of NPAs e) Both (a) & (b) only
59 Bank has initiated action under Sarfaesi Act. The borrower objects to bank's action. With whom, he can file application
against the action of the bank, if the outstanding in the account is Rs 2,00,000.
a) District Court b) b). High Court c) DRT d) D R A T e ) None of these
60 For selling goods acquired by enforcing rights under Sarfaesi Act, days notice is to be given to the
borrower/guarantor:
30 b) 45 c) 90 d) 60 e) 120
61 If a borrower makes a representation to bank against action taken by bank under Sarfaesi Act, bank is required to reply with in
days.
30 b) 45 c) 7 d) 60 e) 120
62 A borrower who wants to file an application with DRT in respect of action initiated by the bank under SARFAESI Act, 2002 is
required to deposit with DRT :
50% of the amount due to the bank b) 75% of the suit amount due to the bank
c) 50% of the amount due to the bank which can be reduced to 25% by the Presiding Officer
83 .
d) 25% of the amount due to the bank e) No amount to be deposited.
63 The validity of the SARFAESI Act was challenged before Supreme Court in the case of :
Union of India versus Mardia Chemicals Ltd b) Mardia Chemicals Ltd versus Union of India & Others
c) Mardia Chemicals Ltd versus ICICI Bank d) Mardia Cements Ltd versus ICICI e) None of these
64 For making appeal to DRAT, under SARFAESI Act, the borrower is required to deposit of the dues which can be reduced
to by the DRAT.
75%, 0% b) 50%, 0% c) 50%, 25% d) 75%, 25% e) None of these
65 As per decision of Supreme Court in the case of , bank can take action simultaneously under Sarfaesi and also file case
with DRT or normal court for recovery.
Union of India versus Mardia Chemicals Ltd b) Mardia Chemicals Ltd versus Union of India & Others
c) Transcore Ltd versus Union of India & others d) None of these
66 Which of the following is the objective of Sarfaesi Act?
a) To provide a structured platform to the Banking sector for managing its mounting NPA and keep pace with international
financial institutions.
b) To enable banks and Fls to realise long-term assets, manage problems of liquidity, asset liability mismatches.
c) To enable banks and Fls in improving recovery by taking possession of securities, sell them and reduce non performing assets
(NPAs) by adopting measures for recovery or reconstruction.
d) Both (a) and (c) only. e) e) All of these
67. Which of the following is not contained in main provisions of the Sarfaesi Act?
a) Registration and regulation of securitisation companies or reconstruction companies by the RBI and facilitate securitisation of
financial assets of banks
b) Empower SCs/ARCs to raise funds by issuing security receipts to qualified institutional buyers (01Bs)
c) empowering banks and Fls to take possession of securities given for financial assistance and sell or lease the same or to
take over management in the event of default.
d) Both (a) and (c) only. e) e) None of these
68. For the purpose of asset reconstruction, SCs/ ARCs should provide for certain things. Which of the following measures can
not be undertaken by the Securitisation or Asset Reconstruction companies?
a) taking possession of secured assets in accordance with the provisions of this Act rescheduling of payment of
b) debts payable by the borrower enforcement of security interest in accordance with the provisions of this Act. the c) proper
management of the business of the borrower, by change in, or take over of, the management of the
d) business of the borrower the sale or lease of a part or whole of the business of the borrower e) e) None of these
69. The Sarfaesi Act, does not empower the secured creditor for which of the following? To take possession of the security
a)To sale or lease or assign the right over the same b) b)To manage the security and/or appoint any person to manage the
same. c) c)To recover money receivable from 3rd parties. d) d) None of these
70. For taking action under Sarfaesi Act, which of the following is not a requirement?
a) The asset to be acquired should be charged to the bank. b) The account should be NPA.
c)The documents should be within the limitation period. d) None of these
71. Government of India, Ministry of Finance has notified the establishment of the Central Registry. What is the objective of setting
up of Central Registry?
To take over possession of assets charged to bank. b) To register transactions where bank has taken action under Sarfaesi Act. c)
To prevent frauds in loan cases involving multiple lending from different banks on the same immovable property. d) None of these
72 Which of the following companies has been established as a Government Company for the purpose of operating and maintaining
the Central Registry under the provisions of the SARFAESI Act?
The Central Registry of Securitisation, Asset Reconstruction and Security Interest of India. b) The Central Registrar of Security
Interest, Asset Reconstruction of India. c) The Securitisation, Asset Reconstruction and Security Interest Registry of India. d) None
of these
73 Initially which of the following transactions is not required to be registered in the Central Registry?
Transactions relating to securitization and reconstruction of financial assets
Transactions relating to mortgage by deposit of title deeds to secure any loan or advances granted by banks and financial
institutions.
Transaction relating. to hypothecation of assets to secure any loan or advances granted by banks and financial institutions. d) None
of these
74 The records maintained by the Central Registry established under Sarfaesi Act will be available for search by which of the
84 .
following?
Banks only b) Any lender only c) Any person desirous of dealing with the property. d) All of these
75 Debt Recovery Tribunals are governed by which of the following Acts?
Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act 2002
Recovery of Debt Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993
Legal Services Authority Act 1987 d) None of these
76 Debt Recovery Tribunals are located at which of the following places?
At four metro areas i.e. Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkatta, Chennai only.
At four metro areas and all state capitals only.
At four metro areas and certain state capitals only.
At four metro areas and select places which may or may not be state capital.
77 Debt Recovery Tribunal consists of one person called :
Recovery Officer b) Presiding officer c) Chairman d) Registrar e) none of these
78 Cases with claims of _ are filed with DRT and not with normal courts.
less than Rs 10 lakh b) Rs 10 lakh c) Rs 10 lakh and above d) Rs 20 lakh
79 An Appellate Tribunal under the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993 consists of one person only
called :
President b) Recovery Officer c) Registrar d) Chairperson e) none of these
80 Choose incorrect statement(s) regarding appeal to the Appellate Tribunal against the order of the Debt Recovery Tribunal :
When a Debt Recovery Tribunal has passed an order with the consent of the parties, no appeal lies with the Appellate Tribunal.
An appeal to the Apellate Tribunal is required to be preferred within 90 days from the date of receipt of order of the Debt Recovery
Tribunal by the aggrieved party.
When the aggrieved party is required to pay the amount to bank/financial institution, the Appellate Tribunal will entertain appeal
only when 75% of the amount ordered to be paid by the Debt Recovery Tribunal is deposited by him which can be reduced to 0% by
DRAT. d) all of these e) only (b) and (c)
81 Maximum amount of fees which is required to be deposited with DRT for filing a case is:
Rs 12,000 b) Rs 50,000 c) Rs 100,000 d) Rs 1,50,000 e) None of these
82 Maximum amount of fees which is required to be deposited with DRAT for filing an appeal is:
Rs 12,000 b) Rs 30,000 c) Rs 100,000 d) Rs 1,50,000 e) None of these
83 For being appointed as DRT, a person should qualify to be:
District Judge b) 1st class Magistrate c) Judge of High Court d) a Judge in any court
84 For being appointed as DRAT, the person should qualify to be:
a) District Judge b) Judge of the High Court c) Judge of Supreme Court d) None of these
85 Debt Recovery Tribunal is expected to decide a case within:
30 days b) 60 days c) 90 days d) 180 days e) No time limit
86 Appeal against the order of the Recovery Officer can be made to DRT within days of passing the order.
30 days b) 60 days c) 90 days d) 15 days e) No time limit
87 Appeal against the judgement of DRT can be made to DRAT within how many days?
30 days of judgement b) 45 days of judgement c) 45 days of receiving copy of judgement
d) 30 days of receiving copy of judgement e) None of these
88 Which of the following powers can not be exercised by Debt Recovery Tribunal? and
Appointing Receivers and Commissioners b) Passing ex-parte orders, ad-interim orders, interim orders.
c) To Review its own decision d) Hear appeals against orders passed by the Recovery Officers of the Tribunal.
e) None of these
89 Which of the following does not fall within purview of the powers of DRT?
DRTs are fully empowered to pass comprehensive orders like in Civil Courts.
The DRT can hear cross suits, counter claims and allow set offs.
DIRT can hear claims of damages or deficiency of services or breach of contract or criminal negligence on the part of the lenders. e)
None of these
90 Which of the following is incorrect about Recovery Officer in the office of DRT?
Each Debt Recovery Tribunal has three Recovery Officers. b) Though a Recovery Officer need not be a judicial Officer, but the
85 .
orders passed by a Recovery Officer are judicial in nature. c) The orders passed by Recovery Officer are appealable before the
Presiding Officer of the Tribunal. d) None of these
91 Which of the following is incorrect regarding evidence before DRT?
All evidences are taken by way of an affidavit. b) Cross examination is allowed only on request by the defense and that too if the
Tribunal feels that such a cross examination is in the interest of justice. d) Frivolous cross examination may be denied. e) None of
these
9 2 . Which of the following is not a feature of Securitisation?
a) Securitization is a method through which illiquid assets are transformed into more liquid form. b) b) Securitization is a
method through which liquid assets are transformed into more illiquid form. c) c) Securitised assets are distributed to a
broad range of investors through the medium of capital market. d) d) Both (a) and (c)
93. Securitisation is the process of converting illiquid financial assets into liquid marketable securities through an intermediary
called:
a) Securitisation company b) b) Asset Reconstruction Company c) c) special purpose vehicle d) None of these
94. If assets which have underlying mortgages are secuiritised, they are called as .
a) Asset Based-Securitisation b) Mortgage Based Securitisation c) Mortgaged Securitisation d)None of these
95.Which of the following is not a benefit of securitization?
a) The receivables are removed from the books as they have been sold. b) The transaction does not create a liability in the balancesheet.
c) Securitisation helps in asset-liability management. d) Securitisation helps in capital adequacy.
e) None of these
96. In the process of securitization, the Special Purpose Vehicle converts assets into securities called as and sell them to the
buyers who may require that particular asset class as a
a) requirement or investment. b) Pass Through Certificates c) Prepaid.Through Certificates d) Government securities
e) certificates
97) Securitisation is a structured process and effected for
a) Non Performing Assets only. b) Only Standard assets rated by the rating agencies.
c) Doubtful and Loss assets only d) Both (a) and (b) e) None of these
98) Which of the following steps are involved in the process of securitization?
a) Securitisation is the process of pooling of individual long term loans.
b) The long term loans are packaged and sold to various investors in the form of Pass Through Certificates (marketable securities)
through a Special Purpose Vehicle.
c) There is a provision that the inflow of cash in the form of recoveries will be distributed pro rata to the buyers of securities
d) Both (a) and (b) only e) All of these
99 Collateral Debt Obligation (CDO) involves which of the following? Multiple layers of PTCs with varying rates and
coupons are issued based on the quality of assets and risk perceptions underlying in the asset.
In CDO, loans are given only when these are supported by collateral security.
In CDO, asset classes/receivables like Car Loans, Credit Card Receivables and Mortgage Loans like Home Loans, are grouped together
and securitised.
In CDO, there is an obligation to honour the commitment when due
All of these e) None of these
100 In the securitization process, the issuer (Special Purpose Vehicle) makes payment to which of the following for the loans
securitized?
The lender b) The investors c) The intermediary d) None of these
86 .
ANSWER
1 B 2 C 3 D 4 C 5 D 6 C 7 A 8 A 9 D 10 B
11 C 12 B 13 A 14 D 15 B 16 D 17 D 18 D 19 D 20 D
21 D 22 D 23 E 24 C 25 B 26 C 27 A 28 E 29 B 30 A
31 D 32 A 33 D 34 A 35 D 36 E 37 A 38 D 39 C 40 A
41 D 42 C 43 B 44 A 45 D 46 B 47 C 48 B 49 A 50 C
51 B 52 D 53 B 54 C 55 D 56 A 57 D 58 D 59 C 60 A
61 C 62 C 63 B 64 C 65 C 66 E 67 E 68 E 69 E 70 D
71 C 72 A 73 C 74 D 75 B 76 D 77 B 78 C 79 D 80 B
81 D 82 B 83 A 84 B 85 D 86 A 87 C 88 E 89 C 90 A
91 D 92 B 93 C 94 B 95 E 96 A 97 B 98 E 99 B 100 A
87 .
PRACTICE TEST PAPER NO. 4 ( TEST YOUR SELF )
01 Retail banking refers to banking in which banking institutions execute transactions directly with consumers, rather than
corporations or other entities
Consumers b) corporates c)Business entities d)None of these
02 Which of the following is incorrect?
Retail Banking is a banking service that is geared primarily toward individual consumers.
Retail banking focuses strictly on consumer markets c)Retail banking is, generally mass-market driven d)None of these
he delivery model of retail banking is both physical and virtual
Only physical b) Only virtual c)Both physical and virtual d) None of these
04 Which 'of the following is not the advantage of retail banking?
Client base will be large and therefore risk is spread over large customer base.
Customer Loyalty is strong and customers generally do not change from one bank to another.
There are attractive interest spreads, since customers are too fragmented to bargain effectively.
None of these
05 Which of the following is the advantage of retail banking?
Credit risk tends to be well diversified, as loan amounts are relatively small
There is less volatility in demand compared to large corporates
Large numbers of clients can facilitate marketing, mass selling.
All of these
06 The study conducted by Capgemini, ING and the European Financial Management Marketing Association related to which of the
following?
Pricing of Banking services b)Delivery Channels c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
07 Which of the following is not correct about findings of the study conducted by Capgemini, ING and the European Financial`
Management Marketing Association on pricing of banking services?
In a given region, prices varied according to usage pattern, with a ratio of up to one to 4.6 between prices paid by very active and less

active users.
Banks are increasing remote channel prices in order to drive greater customer use.
Price of seldom-used products have steadily increased.
For Banking services prices decline with maturity
08 Which of the following is not correct about findings of the study conducted by Capgemini, ING and the European Financial Management
Marketing Association on Delivery Channel Strategies?
Sales through branch format have decreased.
Sales through web and phone have increased.
Earlier branch used to be the main point of sale but now sales are mainly through internet banking.
Selling through the branch channel is still the main format.
09 In US, which of the following is not the characteristic of the traditional Image of the bank?
office on Main Street. b) the branch manager does not understand the local market.
c)the manger has strong customer relationships. d) None of these
10 What has been the impact of technology and regulatory changes in the 1990s in banking in US?
Automated teller machines (ATMs) proliferated after the national ATM networks dropped a ban on surcharges.
Banks also developed centralized call centers to handle customer service issues and to initiate transactions, including deposits and loans.
Many banks shifted some activities like small-business loan approval from branch to regional or Head Offices.
The role of the traditional bank branch reduced in the delivery of retail banking services.
All of these
11 What has been the impact of Deregulation and the Riegle-Neal Act of 1994 & GrammLeach-Bliley Act 1999 regarding banking in US?
It contributed to bank consolidation that focused on reducing costs to boost profits
It allowed banks to branch and merge across state lines.
The declining number of banks and rising number of branches have resulted in greater consolidation of branches and deposit's in the nation's

larger
banks.
All of these
88 .
12 For the banks, the consolidation of branches within large branch networks has implications in terms of :
Cost b) business focus c) profitability d) All of these
13 Market surveys suggest that customers:
place a premium on convenience i.e. location when choosing a bank. B) are indifferent to location of branch
c) place premium on branches in commercial areas d) None of these
14 The evolution of retail banking in India can be traced back to the entry of:
New private sector banks. b)Foreign banks c) Non Banking Finance companies d) All of these
15 Which of the following were the pioneers in introducing retail banking products in India?
Axis Bank b)ICICI Bank c) HDFC Bank d) Standard Chartered Bank and Grindlays Bank
16 Which of the following were two early players in the credit card business among public sector banks?
State Bank of India and PNB b)Bank of Baroda and PNB
c)Bank of Baroda and Andhra Bank d) Andhra Bank and Corporation Bank
17 Which of the following created a new approach to retail banking by banks?
Foreign banks b) Non Banking Finance Company
c) Entry of new generation private sector banks d) Old private sector banks
18 New private sector banks had a clear positioning for retail banking due to which of the following reasons?
Professional and experienced top management. b) The advantage of technology right from start.
They were not equipped for large scale lending. d) None of these
19. In India, now which group of banks have emphasis on retail banking?
a) Foreign banks b) New private sector banks c) Public sector banks d) All of these
20. Which of the following is not the reason for emergence of retail banking in India?
a) Strong economic fundamentals. b) growing rural population
c) higher disposable incomes d) None of these
21. Which of the following is not the reason for emergence of retail banking in India ?
a) emergence of new customer segments b) rise in old population
c) huge untapped potential for retail banking in India d) explosion of service economy
22. The contribution of retail assets to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of India is and is comparatively lesser than that of other Asian

counterparts like
China (15%), Malaysia (33%), Thailand (24%) and Taiwan (52%).
a) 3%, b) 6%, c) 10%, d) 12%
23. The retail asset growth slided down to 4% in 2009. The segments which suffered most were:
a) Consumer Durable Loans, b) Auto Loans, c) Housing Loans, d) Both (a) and (b) only, e) None of these
24. During • slowdown of 2008-09, the most affected segment in the retail liabilities space was
a) Term Deposits, b) Institutional Deposits c) Purchased Deposits d) CASA deposits.
25. In case of Indian Banks, the share of interest income has almost remained steady at about % and the share of non interest income also is

almost
stable at around %.
a) 84%; 16% b) 75%; 25% c) 65%; 35% d) 15%; 85%
26. As per a study by Boston Consulting Group, Retail segment brings in nearly % of the
total banking revenues worldwide
a) 30%, b) 40%, c) 50%, d) 60%
27. Which of the following is not the finding fom report by McKinsey & Company on ‘Emerging Challenges to the Indian Financial
System’?
a) With rising income levels, India will not remain attractive market for retail financial products.
b) With rising income levels, India will not remain attractive market for retail financial products
c) There is huge potential available for personal financial services.
d) In addition to consumer credit, payment products such as credit and debit cards will drive growth.
28. As per report by Mc Kinsey & Company on ‘Emerging Challenges to the Indian Financial System’, by 2010, the number of high net
worth individuals (annual income greater than US $1 million) in India will grow to _____
a) 100,000 b) 200,000 c) 300,000 d) 400,000 e) None of These
89 .
29. Which of the following statements is not correct in the context of Indian Banking?
a) There has been growth in deposits and credits almost consistently
b) Banking access remains limited to a few sections of the population.
c) There is no disparity in the penetration of banking products among the different classes
d) None of these
30 As per a study by Boston Consulting Group, which of the following is correct?
Retail banks are facing tougher competition and continuously declining margins.
Retail banks are facing tougher competition but continuously increasing margins
Retail banks are facing less competition but continuously declining margins
None of these
31 The retail banking objectives of any bank would mainly focus on which of the following?
Generating superior returns on assets
Acquiring sufficient funding
Enhancing risk management
Understanding customers and regaining their trust , e) All of these
The business models for retail banking adopted by banks among the public sector, private sector and foreign banks:
are same, b) vary, c) are almost same, d) are almost same but vary to very little extent.
33. Which of the following approaches are adopted by banks for Retail banking?
a) Strategic Business Unit (SBU) b) Approach Departmental Approach, c) Integrated Approach (part of the overall business plan),
d) Any of these
34. Public Sector Banks in India generally have adopted the Approach as their retail banking business model.
a) Strategic Business Unit (SBU), b) Approach Departmental Approach, c) Integrated Approach (part of the overall business plan),
d) None of these
35. Which approach is adopted by old generation private sector banks for retail banking?
a) Strategic Business Unit (SBU) Approach b) Departmental Approach, c) As a part of overall business plan d) None of these
36.Which of the following type of banks use Strategic Business Unit Model for Retail Banking with defined business focus?
a) New Private Banks, b) Foreign Banks, c) All big public sector banks, d) Both (a) and (b)
e) All of these
37. Banks generally structure their retail banking models mainly on a positioning platform and
to be the best/ top among the peer group players or across players.
Two, b) three, c) five, d) ten
38. In retail banking, the new generation private banks want to be in the top slot across all
class of banks. These banks have advantage of which of the following?
Technology, b) strategy, c) customer and business initiatives, d) aggressive positioning
All of these
39. Which of the following banks exited retail and credit card business when it was found that these were not viable?
a) BNP Paribas, b) American Express, c) Bank of Tokyo, d) Both (a) and (b), e) All of These
40 Banks adopt different models for implementing their retail banking initiatives. Which of the following are the most
common strategies?
end to end outsourcing b) predominant outsourcing c) partial outsourcing
d) in house sourcing e) Any of these
41 Business model adopted by a particular bank for Retail Banking does not depend on which of the following?
product range b) process requirements c) technology preparedness d) delivery capabilities
e) None of these
42 Public sector banks use which of the following models for retail banking?
end to end outsourcing b) predominant outsourcing c) partial outsourcing d)in house sourcing
43 Most of the Public sector banks, use only in house resources for retail banking. However, some of the activities are outsourced. Which of
the following type of activities is not outsourced?
ATM b) Credit Card c) KYC compliance d) None of these e) All of these
90 .
44 In case of new generation private sector banks, which implementation model for retail banking is adopted?
end to end outsourcing b) in house sourcing c) predominant in house sourcing
d) mix of outsourcing and in house, though a little tilted towards outsourcing
45 There are four broadly defined process models relating to Retail Banking which are implemented across banks. These models are defined
based on which of the following?
Technology b) Customer interface capabilities of the banks c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
46 Which of the following models is not used by banks for retail banking? a) Horizontally Organised Model, b) Vertically
Organised Model c) Diagonally Organised Model d) None of these
47. Which of the following is/are features of Horizontally organised model in retail banking?
a) It is a modular structure using different process models for different products.
b) It offers end to end solutions product wise.
c) It provides functionality across products with customer data base orientation.
d) Centralised customer data base is used across products.
e) Both (a) and (b)
48. Which of the following is/are features of Vertically organised model in retail banking?
a) It provides functionality across products with customer data base orientation.
b) Centralised customer data base is used across products.
c) It is a modular structure using different process models for different products.
d) It offers end to end solutions product wise.
e) Both (a) and (b)
49. Which of the following statements is correct regarding implementation models adopted by banks in retail banking?
a) Horizontally organised model is a modular structure using different process models for different products offering end to end
solutions product wise.
b) Vertically organised model provides functionality across products with customer data base orientation and centralised customer data base

is used
across products.
c) Predominantly horizontally organised model is mostly product oriented with common customer information for some products.
d) In predominantly vertically organised model, common information is available for most of the products.
e) None of these
50. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Predominantly horizontally organised model for retail banking?
a) is mostly product oriented with b) It is mostly product oriented.
c) In this model common customer information is available for some products.
d) In this model, common information is available for most of the products. e) None of these
51. Which of the following model is generally adopted by public sector banks for retail banking?
a) Vertically organised model, b) Predominantly horizontally organized model, c) Horizontally organized model, d) Predominantly vertically
organized model.
52 Which of the following model is generally adopted by new private sector banks for retail banking?
Vertically organised model b) Predominantly horizontally organised model
c)Horizontally organised model d) Predominantly vertically organised model
53 in foreign banks, mostly predominantly vertically organised model is adopted for retail banking which implies that retail banking
initiatives are attempted with:
scattered data base b)using different process models for different products.
c) customer information with different set of officials. d)common customer information across products.
54 Certain segments constitute the basic structure of retail banking. Which of the following, has emerged as one of the important
constituents of retail banking initiatives of banks?
retail asset products b) retail liability products c) marketing of third party products. d) All of these
55 Liability products offered by banks to retail banking customers are which of the following?
a))Saving Accounts, Current Accounts and Term Deposit accounts. b) Saving Accounts, Current Accounts, Term c)Deposit accounts
and Housing Loans. d)Housing Loans, Vehicle Loans and Personal Loans. e) Safe Deposit Vault, Safe custody
56 Product differentiation amongliability products is achieved by banks by:
Attractive packaging b) Attractive branch layout c)Expanding the scope of generic products from a plain vanilla account to a value
enriched account d) None of these
57 In today's context, which of the following can be called as value enrichment to an account?
91 .
ATM cards b) Debit Cards c) Multi City Cheques d) None of these as all of these have become generic features
58 Which of the following is considered as enriching the value to a liability product?
tagging group insurance products in the life and non life segment at a very competitive premium
providing sweep facilities from savings or current accounts to fixed deposit accounts above a certain specified level resulting in increase

in the
earning potential of the deposit balances
auto overdraft facility d) All of these e)None of these
59 In case of liability products, Internet Banking, Telephone Banking, and Mobile Banking are considered as:
enriching value to a liability product. b) essential value additions. c) generic feature.
d) None of these
60 In case of liability products, the product differentiation among banks is wafer thin and only value differentiation is the key factor

across banks.
Which of the following make difference in this regard?
Technology b) Process c) Delivery efficiency d) All of these e) Only (a) and (b)
61 Which of the following value additions are generally not offered by almost all banks in case of fixed deposits with banks?
provision for monthly, quarterly or cumulative interest payment options.
Facility of partial withdrawal without disturbing the entire amount is inbuilt
ixed deposits with built in overdraft facilities. d) the group life cover and health cover.
62 For retail assets, which of the following is not a major issue?
Product b)price c) process d) delivery innovations e) None of these
63 Which of the following is not a major advantage of retail assets?
the stability of the asset base because of the large customer base. b) the better spreads in income. c) risk diversification. d)
scope for capturing additional revenue streams from other avenues. e) Cheap source of funds
64 Which of the following is not standard retail asset products offered by banks?
Housing loans and consumer loans. b) Car Loans and Personal loans.
c) Credit cards d) Debit cards e) None of these
65 Which of the following is not a retail asset product?
loan against rental receivables b) salary overdrafts c) loan against securities
d) loans for traders in the personal segment e) None of these
66 Retail products other than liability products and asset products, which are meant for providing process and delivery efficiencies to

clients
include which of the following?
Credit Cards, Debit Cards, and ATM Cards.
b)Telephone Banking, Mobile Banking, Internet Banking. c)Depository Service and Broking Services. d) Both (a)
and (b) only. e) All of these
67 Which of the following products and services are offered with objectives of satisfying customer's multiple needs and also to
augment fee based income?
life and non life policies, mutual funds, retail sale of gold coins, bill payment services.
payment gateway for rail, air ticket bookings. c) wealth management services, portfolio management services and private banking. d)Only (a)
and (b) e) All of these
68 Banks offer various services like distribution of third party products like life and non life policies, mutual funds, retail sale of gold

coins
etc. What is the objective of providing these services?
satisfying customer's multiple needs b) —to augment fee based income c) to augment interest income
d) Both (a) and (b) only e) All of these
69 Which of the following products is offered by almost all public sector banks?
Debit Cards b) ATM cards c) Credit Cards d) Both (a) and (b) e) All of these
70 Many Public Sector banks are not in the credit card business. What is the reason for this?
It is a big volume game. b) It needs process efficiencies. c) Lack of trained staff.
d)Both (a) and (b) e) All of these
71 Which of the following services is generally offered by most of the public sector banks?
Corporate Agency for Life and Non Life Insurance. b) Distribution of mutual funds.
c)Sale of gold coins d)Both (a) and (b) e)All of these
72 Which of the following types of service is generally not offered by ublic Sector Banks?
Wealth Management b) Portfolio Management Services c) Bill Payment services
92 .
d)Both (a) and (b) e) All of these
73 Product Development is done by banks in different ways. In this regard which of the following is not correct regarding In house
product development strategy?
The product is developed independently based on research and on the market dynamics.
The best features in the products available in the market are incorporated along with additional value engineering. c)No background research

is
undertaken. d) None of these
74 In case of product development, various strategies are adopted by banks. Which of the following strategies is generally not
relevant?
In House product development strategy. b) Follow the leader c)Top Management instructions
d)RBI instructions e) None of these
75 Which of the following is not the feature of 'Follow the leader approach' in product development?
In this method, product development is based purely on market conditions and customer segments.
No background research is conducted. c) Product is developed on the same lines as that of leader. d) None of these
76 In banks, the basis for product development, is on which of the following?
The segmentation approach b) Geography based approach c) Classification based approach
d)Approach based on specific customer segments like NRI, HNI, Mass Affluent, Salaried, Professionals, Women etc. e) Any of these
77 Which of the following is not a feature of product development in most of the PSBs?
Product development is done in house incorporating the market dynamics.
The market conditions and customer segments of the bank are factored in the development.
The views and instructions of the Top Management are the prime drivers of product development in PSBs. d)Both (a) and (b) e) None of
these
78 In the case of public sector banks, which of the following is not given importance for product development?
Geographical area b) Type of branch and centre c) Business potential d) Both (a) and (b)
e)None of these
79 In private sector banks, which of the following factor are considered for product development?
Market dynamics. b) Segmentation, classification, customer segments
c)The product positioning adopted by other players. d) All of these
80 Which of the following sequence is generally adopted in product development?
conducting a market survey, identifying the needs, pilot testing, getting feed back, fine tuning the product based on feedback, developing

the product,
final roll out of the product.
identifying the needs, conducting a market survey, pilot testing, getting feed back, fine tuning the product based on feedback, developing

the
product, final roll out of the product
conducting a market survey, developing the product, identifying the needs, pilot testing, getting feed back, fine tuning the product
based on feedback, final roll out of the product.
conducting a market survey, identifying the needs, developing the product, pilot testing, getting feed back, fine tuning the product
based on feedback, final roil out of the product.
81 In Public sector banks, market survey is generally done through:
a) in house resources b) outsourcing c) through specialists in service industry d) None of these
82 There are various approaches to processing of products and services in retail banking. Which of the following is not correct in this

regard? (i),
(ii); (iii)
The entire processing is done through in house resources.
Some products processed in house and for some products outsourcing is done for process.
Outsourcing of entire process subject to prescribing process standards.
Outsourcing of entire process without any guideline as it is given to specialists.
None of these
83 In Public sector banks and old private banks generally the process for products and services are done through:
Outsourcing b) In house resources c) Major portion is in house with some outsourcing.
d)Major portion is outsourced with some in house processing.
84 What approach is generally adopted in foreign banks, for processing of products and services?
The entire process is outsourced and normally happens through a dedicated back office covering the entire gamut of retail banking
services
93 .
7
The entire process for products and services is done through in house resources but in some banks, process part of some products are

outsourced.
Outsourcing is attempted partially for some process areas.
None of these.
85 Banks adopt different process models for retail asset products and the focus is on which of the following?
Reducing the risk to maximum possible extent. b)Earning maximum interest c) To achieve the best process efficiencies for capturing
the customers. d) None of these
86 For retail assets, the common form of process models are Centralised Retail Assets Processing Centres. What are the features of this

model?
a) All the retail loans sourced at the branches and marketing team are processed at a single point. b) Retail loans are financed
through that centre only. c) Processing alone is done at the centre and financing can be done through that centre or at the
branches. d) Both (a) and (b) e) Both (a) and (c)
87 In public sector banks, which of the following models is generally adopted for processing of retail asset products?
Centralised retail loan processing centre. b) Regional processing centres
c)Standalone processing at branches d) Regional processing centres or branches or a blend of both.
88 In which of the following bank groups, centralised processing is the norm for retail asset processing?
Public sector banks b) New Private sector banks c) Foreign banks d) Both (b) and (c)
89 In the centralized model for processing liability products, for opening a saving bank account, which of the following activities is/are

not carried
out at a single point?
filling the Account opening form b) opening of account, c)Issue of Pass Book and Cheque Book
d)Issuing ATM card/ Debit card,—Pin Mailers for the cards. e) None of these
90 In almost all Public sector banks, which of the following method is generally adopted for processing liability products?
Centralized processing model b) Regional Processing Model. c) Stand alone processing model
d)Any one of these
91 In most of the Public Sector banks, which of the following activity is generally done centrally?
Opening of accounts. b) KYC compliance c) issue of cheque books
d) issue of ATM/Debit Cards e) None of these
92 Process models differ for products which require single stage process and multi stage process. Which of the following involves a single
stage process?
Opening a fixed deposit and issuing receipt. b) Giving car loans c) Housing Loan
d)Both (a) and (b) e) None of these
Process models differ for products which require single stage process and multi stage process. Which of the following involves a multi
stage process?
Opening Saving accounts b) Opening Current accounts c) Housing Loans
d)Both (a) and (b) only e) All of these
Since process Time is business sensitive and customer sensitive, banks implement process time prescriptions for different retail asset

products. In
most of the PSBs, the process time is prescribed and varies from days to days depending upon whether it is processed at the
branch or regional hub or centralised processing.
3 days to 7 days b) 5 days to 10 days c) 7 days to 15 days d) 15 days to 30 days
Banks consider various factors for designing a Pricing model of products and services. Which of the following is not considered for pricing?
Market dynamics, risk perception, return expectations. b) Tenor or duration
c)RBI guidelines d) Asset Liability Management practices e) None of these
In Public sector banks, though pricing is market driven and competitive, in almost all the banks, pricing is mainly driven on the basis
of which of the following?
The asset liability management practices of the banks. b) Regulatory advices
c)Feedback from the field d) Both (a) and (b) e) All of these
Which of the following public sector banks, started implementing aggressive pricing strategies in Housing Loan segment between 2008 and
2010.
Punjab National Bank b) Bank of Baroda c) State Bank of India d) All of these e) None of these
Which of the following approach is/are are adopted by banks for Price structuring for products and services?
Stand alone pricing for different products and services is the basic structure.
Basic structure is fine tuned as per quantum and volumes.
Price preference/ price rebates may be given for high value deposits and advances.
Both (a) and (b) only e) All of these
94 .
99 Which of the following is correct regarding price bundling?
Price bundling is a part of price structuring.
In price bundling, if a customer avails number of products, then the total price proposition is made attractive than the stand alone pricing

for the
individual products of the bundle.
This structuring is a cross selling strategy to entice the customer to avail more products so that profitability per customer is enhanced.

d) All of
these e) None of these
100 What is the objective of Price bundling?
a) It is a cross selling strategy. b) 'To entice customer to avail more products.
To enhance profitability per customer. d) All of these
ANSWER
1 A 2 D 3 C 4 D 5 D 6 C 7 B 8 C 9 B 10 E
11 D 12 D 13 A 14 A 15 D 16 C 17 C 18 B 19 D 20 B
21 B 22 B 23 D 24 D 25 A 26 D 27 B 28 D 29 C 30 A
31 E 32 B 33 D 34 B 35 B 36 D 37 B 38 E 39 D 40 E
41 E 42 D 43 C 44 D 45 C 46 D 47 E 48 E 49 E 50 C
51 C 52 A 53 D 54 C 55 A 56 C 57 D 58 D 59 B 60 D
61 D 62 E 63 E 64 D 65 E 66 E 67 E 68 D 69 D 70 D
71 D 72 E 73 C 74 D 75 D 76 E 77 E 78 A 79 D 80 D
81 A 82 D 83 C 84 A 85 C 86 E 87 D 88 C 89 E 90 C
91 D 92 D 93 E 94 C 95 E 96 D 97 C 98 E 99 D 100 D
95 .
PRACTICE TEST PAPER NO. 5 ( TEST YOUR SELF )
01 Loan origination refers to which of the following?
The process from loan application to the disbursal of loan b) The process of seeking application from prospective borrowers. c)
Marketing of loan products. d) None of these
02 What are different phases in Loan origination?
information acquisition b) credit appraisal and sanction c) disbursement d) All of these e) Only (a) and (b)
03 In any loan origination, two key aspects are involved - critically appraising the credit worthiness of a customer and analyzing the
risk in fending_ To analyse these aspects which of the following is not a requirement?
capturing all the information i.e. demographic, employment, financial details;
to check that the customer is not a fraud or black listed within the bank or with other institutions;
to verify that the information provided by the customer is correct and authentic
Both (a) and (c) only e) None of these
04 The second phase of loan origination is:
information acquisition b) credit appraisal and sanction c) disbursement d) None of these
05 For mitigating credit risk, depending on loan amount and the financial product, a bank may require or
co-borrowers to support the loan b) guarantors to support the loan c) . Either (a) or (b) d) None of these
06 Banks collect fees for which of the following from customer as part of application processing?
processing, documentation, administration b) interest paid to depositors c) inspection d) All of these
e) Both (a) and (c) only
07 Third phase in Credit Origination Process is
Credit Appraisal b) Disbursement c) Credit Monitoring d) Recovery
08 Along with the application from, the lending institution should also call for a few other documents, which supplement/establish
the particulars provided in the application form. Which of the following forms in generally not taken with application form?
a) Passport size photograph; Proof of identity; Proof of residence; Statement of Bank Account/Pass Book for last six months.
Sale Deed/Agreement of Sale; Letter of allotment from Housing Board/Society, etc. (wherever applicable); Copy of approved plan,
wherever applicable;
Estimate/Valuation Report from approved valuers in respect of the property to be financed, wherever applicable;
Search Report/Non-encumbrance certificate for 50 years from Bank's Advocate. e) None of these
09 For appraising a Home Loan proposal, the appraisal will generally consider whether borrower is eligible as per bank scheme
considering his age, income level, length of service in case of salaried persons, areas or locality where house will be
constructed, negative list. For this purpose, banks develop a Criteria which is called
Risk Liability Acceptance Criteria b) Risk Asset Acceptance Criteria
c) Risk Asset Mitigation Criteria d) None of these
10 Amount of housing loan that can be granted is not based on which of the following? amount of instalment„
period of repayment, b) income level c) value of property d) loan to value ratio e) None of these
11 Maximum Loan to value ratio in case of housing loan over Rs 20 lac can be:
70% b) 80% c) 75% d) 90% e) None of these
12 Maximum Loan to value ratio in case of housing loan up to Rs 20 lac can be:
70% b) 80% c) 75% d) 90% e) None of these
13 In a Housing Loan, moratorium is allowed when
the construction is undertaken by a reputed builder, by a Government agency etc. and the borrower makes payments in stages
over the construction period.
the borrower is not able to pay immediately c) the borrower is a salaried person
d) Both (a) and (b) only e) All of these
14 What the normal method of dealing with Pre EMI interest?
Pre EMI interest is paid after one month after full disbursement.
Until final disbursement and repayment commences, the borrower pays interest on the portion of the loan disbursed.
Pre EMI interest is paid at the end of repayment period. d) None of these
96 .
15 What is EMI reset?
When with the change in rate of interest lender does not change EMI amount but increase or reduce instalments depending upon
the change in the total dues. b) When with the change in rate of interest lender changes the EMI amount. c) When there is
default in instalments due to genuine reasons, the instalments are postponed. d) None of these
16 In the case of salaried persons, an irrevocable authority for making salary deductions and remittance to the lender is
taken from the borrower and the employer is asked to record this authority and send remittance on monthly basis from
salary. This system is called
Check Off b) Check in c) Check on d) Check out e) None of these
17 A transfer of an interest in specific immovable property for the purpose of security, for the payment of money advanced or to be
advanced by may of a loan, an existing or future debit or the performance of an engagement which may
give rise to a pecuniary liability is called__________
Pledge b) Hypothecation c) Mortgage d) None of these
18 Charge on immovable property is created by
Pledge b) Hypothecation c) Mortgage d) None of these
19 Mortgage is defined in which of the following acts?
Transfer of Property Act b) Indian Contract Act c) Sarfaesi Act d) None of these
20 Which of the following is not a feature of simple mortgage?
In this type of mortgage, the mortgagor binds himself personally to pay the mortgage money.
Possession of mortgaged property is not delivered.
The borrower agrees that in the event of his failing to pay according to the contract, the mortgagee shall have a right to sell the
mortgaged property and the proceeds of the sale to be applied, in payment of mortgage money.
None of these
21 Under simple registered mortgage, the Deed of Mortgage is required to be registered with the
sub-Registrar/Registrar of assurances at which of the following places?
within whose jurisdiction loan sanctioning branch is located.
within whose jurisdiction the whole or some portion of the property to which the document relates is situated.
Either (a) or (b) d) None of these
22 Simple mortgage should registered with concerned sub registrar within months of from its date of execution
I month b) 2 months c) 3 months d) 4 months e) None of these
23 Which of the following is true about equitable mortgage?
It does not require any registration b) It does not attract any stamp duty
c) It does not require registration but level of stamp duty varies from state tot state
d) Mortgage deed is prepared but its registration is not necessary e) none of these
24 Equitable Mortgage can be created :
only at the station where the concerned bank has a branch
at Mumbai, Kolkatta, Chennai and at notified towns in India.
in Delhi and all cities having population of 12 lacs or more as per 1991 census
any city in India e) all cities with population of 5 lacs or more as per 2001 census
25 The essence of equitable mortgage lies in :
existence of debt in the present or future b) deposit of title deeds c) intention that title deed will be security for the debt d) all
above e) none of the above
26 For the purpose of Equitable Mortgage, the documents of title to immovable property, are to be deposited by the mortgagor or his
authorsed agent in Kolkata, Chennai and Mumbai or in___any other town notified by
the State Government concerned b) the Central Government c) Either of (a) and (b) d) None of these
27 Which of the following is not correct regarding the essential requisites of a "Mortgage by Deposit of Title Deeds"?
There must be a debt, existing or future.
There must be a deposit of documents of title to immovable property.
The deposit must be made in one of the notified towns.
The deposit must be made only by the mortgagor with the mortgagee or his agent.
The deposit must be made with an intent to create a security for the debt.
28 Which of the following type of mortgage will have priority if more than one mortgage is created on the same property?
It will depend upon the date of creation of mortgage. Earlier the date of creation, prior is the right.
97 .
Registered Mortgage always has priority over Equitable mortgage.
Equitable Mortgage always has priority over Registered Mortgage.
None of these
29 Which of the following is a correct statement with regard to mortgage?
A mortgagee has the same rights under equitable and registered mortgages.
An equitable mortgage will have priority over subsequent registered mortgages.
The remedy of the mortgagee under an equitable mortgage is only sale of the mortgaged property through the court (i.e., suit for
sale). d) All of these e) None of these
30 Which of the following statements is not correct regarding equitable mortgage?
An equitable mortgage remains valid as long as the mortgagee retains the title deeds.
If the mortgagee parts with possession of the title deeds, the mortgage will stand extinguished.
If, the mortgagee parts with the possession of title deeds for a specific purpose, like examination by the solicitors or advocates of the
intending purchaser of the mortgaged property, or for the creation of subsequent mortgage in favour of a second mortgagee on a
specific understanding with the latter that the earlier mortgage is to subsist, the mortgagor will not be deemed to have parted with
possession although he has parted with the custody of the title deeds d) All of these e) None of these
31 Which of the following is not a common feature of registered mortgage and equitable mortgage?
Possession of property remains with mortgagor. b) Mortgagers undertake personal liability
c) Sale of mortgaged property can be done through court d) income from property is enjoyed by the mortgagor. e)
None of these
32 Right of Foreclosure means which of the following in the case of mortgage?
Right of mortgagee to enjoy income from property.
Right of mortgagee to sell the property in case of default by the mortgagor.
Right of mortgagee, to sue for a decree from the court to the effect that the former be debarred forever to get back the
mortgaged property on default by a mortgagor. d) None of these
33 Right of Foreclosure is available in which of the following types of mortgages?
Simple Mortgage b) Mortgage by Deposit of Title Deeds c) Mortgage by Conditional Sale d) None of these
34 A suit for foreclosure must be filed within years from the day the mortgage money becomes due.
3 years b) 12 years c) 30 years d) None of these
35 Where a mortgagor has created separate registered mortgages over the same property in favour of two or more financing
institutions, the priority of charge will be determined with reference to which of the following? (not the date of registration)
The date of the execution of the deeds which has been duly registered within four months of execution.
The date of the registration of the deeds which has been duly registered within four months of execution.
The date of the presentation of deeds for registration which has been duly registered within four months of execution.
None of these
36 Where a mortgagor gives the same property in equitable mortgage to one financing institution and in registered mortgage to
another financing institution, the priority of charge will be determined with reference to which of the following? -
The date of deposit of title deeds in equitable mortgage
The date of execution of registered mortgage deed in registered mortgage.
An equitable mortgage gives inferior rights compared to a registered mortgage.
Both (a) and (b) e) None of these
37 To ensure that the Title Deeds are not forged or fabricated, various things should be examined. Which of the following is not
correct in this regard?
Schedule of property and Registration of the document with the Sub-Registrar Office concerned.
Stamp Duty affixed on the document and the consideration shown in the document.
Source of purchase of stamps and its cancellation and also the execution of the document. The execution of the document
should be prior to the cancellation of stamps/date of purchase
Security marks on the stamp paper, which are visible only on a close examination. e) None of these
38 Which of the following can not be called as the title to a property?
conveyance deed b) partition deed c) settlement deed d) gift deed e) None of these
39 Where immovable property (of which land is the main constituent) is taken as security (primary or collateral) either by way
of registered mortgage or equitable mortgage, which of the following aspects is not looked into?
Tenure of land b) Valuation of land c) Title of land d) None of these
98 .
40 While taking mortgage of immovable property as security, legal opinion should be taken. On which of the following the legal
opinion is not required?;
That the documents of title are complete in all respects and sufficient to convey a clear, absolute and marketable title to the
property.
That the property offered as security to the bank is unencumbered/unattached.
That the documents examined and based on which the opinion is furnished, form a complete set of documents of the subject
property and deposit of these create a charge on the property.
That the market value of the property is commensurate with the amount of loan.
That the persons seeking to secure the property to the bank have a clear and marketable title thereto and are legally capable
of creating the chafge thereon in favour of the bank.
41 Monitoring of advances relates to which of the following activities?
Post-sanction activities including proper documentation and disbursement.
To ensure the proper end use of funds including periodical inspection.
Follow-up of recovery including restructuring of loan if needed. e) None of these
All of these
42 Under which of the following circumstances restructuring of loan may not be considered?
Unforeseen event/major illness/social functions requiring significant outlay of funds in the family of the borrower or any other
circumstance that affect the repayment capacity.
In case of salaried class, borrowers who are on "loss of pay" due to lock out/strike/delayed payment of salary by employer c)
Delayed completion of housing project. d) Death/Disability of the borrower e) None of these
43 Which of the following are advantages of retail banking?
Risk is less as client base is large b) Income is relatively more as spreads are more
c) Stable model with less volatility d) a and b) e) all the above
44 Which of the following are the disadvantages of retail banking?
Huge clientele requires more efforts for monitoring and tracking.
Cost of servicing will be relatively high.
Delinquencies relatively higher in unsecured retail loans like Personal Loans and Credit Card Receivables d) Both (b) & (c) only e) All
the above
45 in which of the following bank groups, price bundling is not adopted as price structuring strategy?
New private banks b) Foreign banks c) Public Sector banks d) None of these
46 Which of the following pricing strategies are generally adopted by Public sector banks?
Besides stand alone pricing structure, price concessions and rebates are allowed.
Price concessions are allowed on the basis of volumes, quantum and relationship.
Price bundling is adopted to increase sale of various products to a single customer.
Both (a) and (b) only e) All of these
47 Which of the following pricing strategies are generally adopted by new private banks and foreign banks?
Besides stand alone pricing structure, price concessions and rebates are allowed.
Price concessions are allowed on the basis of volumes, quantum and relationship.
Price bundling is adopted to increase sale of various products to a single customer.
Roth (a) and (b) only e) All of these
48 In case of price structuring, banks offer as concealed price structures some of the facilities based on quantum and volume of
business. Which of the following is not a part of concealed price structure?
Free remittance facilities, issue of drafts. b) Waiver of service charges c) Waiver of Processing Fees d) Rebate on repayment of loans in

time. e)
None of these
49 Which of the following is not correct regarding use of technology in retail banking?
Technology helps speedy processing and increases delivery efficiencies of banks.
Technology and Retail Banking are two separate things.
Technology is the enabler for building and translating a customer data base into retail banking business d) None of these
50 Which type of Technology model is generally adopted by Public sector banks?
In House Models b) Outsourced Models c) In House Models with partial Outsourcing d) None of these
51. Which of the following generally adopt Outsourced Models only for using Technology?
New Private Sector banks b) Public Sector banks c) Foreign Banks d) Old private sector banks e) Both (c) and (d)
99 .
52. In case of new private banks, which type of technology model is generally adopted?
Predominantly outsourced with partial in house model. b) Predominantly in house model with partial outsourcing. c) Total
outsourcing model d) Total in house model
53.The levels of technology implementation in Public sector banks started from which of the following?
Automated Ledger Posting Machines (ALPMs) b) Branch Automation c) Regional Net worked Hubs d) Core Banking solution.
54. Which of the following is correct sequence of adopting technology in public sector banks?
Automated Ledger Posting Machines (ALPMs), total branch automation, regional net worked hubs, core banking solution.
Core banking solution, Automated Ledger Posting Machines (ALPMs), total branch automation, regional net worked hubs.
Automated Ledger Posting Machines (ALPMs), regional net worked hubs, total branch automation, core banking solution. d) None of
these
55. What is the status of Core Banking Solution in public sector banks?
a) It is almost complete. b) It is partially achieved. c) In many banks, it is not achieved as yet. d) None of these
56. The level of implementation of core banking will help in which of the following?
It will increase the chances of availability of customer data base across products.
It will increase the scope for cross selling and up selling. c) It will reduce cost of operations substantially.
d) Both (a) and (b) e) All of these
57.Horizontal organized data refers to which of the following? or vertical organized refers to whether data is available or data is

available
customer wise on an integrated basis.
Data is available product wise on a stand alone basis. b) Data is available customer wise on an integrated basis. c) Data is available
product wise on an integrated basis. d) Data is available customer wise on a stand alone basis.
58. Vertically organized data refers to which of the following?
Data is available product wise on a stand alone basis. b) Data is available customer wise on an integrated basis. c) Data is available
product wise on an integrated basis. d) Data is available customer wise on a stand alone basis.
59. Which of the following help new private banks and foreign banks, to market a bouquet of retail products to a targeted customer
base effectively? a) Core banking process model. b) Vertically organized technology model with total customer product integration. c)
Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
60. Retail Banking is targeted at which of the following? a) Individual segment b) Corporate Banking c) Retail Businesses d) All of these
61. Which of the following approach is used in Retail Banking? – a)B2B approach (Business to Business) b) C2C approach (Customer to
Customer) c) B2C approach (Business to Customer) d) C2B approach (Customer to Business)
62.Which of the following approach is used in Wholesale Banking?
B2B approach (Business to Business) b) C2C approach (Customer to Customer)
c) B2C approach (Business to Customer) dC2B approach (Customer to Business)
63 Which of the following is not correct regarding distinction in retail and wholesale banking?
Retail Banking is a mass market banking model whereas wholesale/corporate banking caters to a relatively smaller segment of

business/corporate
client base.
The ticket size of loans in retail banking is low whereas the ticket size is high in corporate loans.
Risk is widespread in retail banking as customer base is huge whereas in Corporate Banking, the risk is more as the ticket size is big

though customer
base is relatively small
Returns are less in retail banking as the operational cost is very high but in corporate banking, the returns will be high as banks have to

deal with
select clients.
64. Which of the following is not correct regarding advantages of retail banking over wholesale banking?
a) The cost of deposits is relatively less in retail banking.
b) The impact of NPA will be less pronounced in retail banking than corporate banking.
c) Monitoring and recovery in retail assets is less laborious because of the larger customer base as compared to corporate banking. d)
None of these
65 The setting up of ATM was recommended by which of the following committee:
a Narasimham Committee, b Saraf Committee, c Rangarajan Committee, d Shere Committee
66 Which of the following explanation to ATM categories, does not match:
a networked ATM — which is connected to some ATM network, b Offsite ATM — which is not connected to data base of the bank, c
Onsite ATM — the ATM which is within /outside the branch premises
d standalone ATM the ATM which is not connected to any ATM net work
67 An ATM with a depository, which serves the customers for cash withdrawals only, is called
100 .
a cash purse, b cash dispenser, c electronic purse, d standalone ATM
68 There are a no. of slots in the ATM for various purposes. Which of the following is not one such slot?
a deposit slot, b cash dispenser, c card reader, d P I N
69 The special breed of ATMs capable of thinking for themselves, are called:-
a EFTPOS, b E F T A TM, c H W A K , d Charge ATM
70 Which of the following is correct in the context of PIN :- a PIN stands for personal information number, b PIN is similar to a pass word,
c PIN is not inserted on the ATM card, d all the above
71 The smart card is similar to an ATM card or Credit card:-
a with a loaded value, b with an integrated circuit (IC), c with a charging facility, d all the above
72 The electronic signature are recognised equal to a handwritten signatures as per provisions of:
a NI Act 1881, b Information Technology Act 2000, c Indian Evidence Act, d Banking Regulation Act
73 The smart cards can be (a) intelligent memory chip cards (b) micro processor cards (c) simple card without any integrated circuit:- a a

to c are
correct, b only a and c are correct, c only a and b are correct d only b and c are correct
74The intelligent memory chip cards are used in the following cases:- a pay phones, b identification, access control, c voting
applications, d all the above
75 Which of the following is a feature of a processor smart card (a) these are ideally suited for banking applications as re-use of card is

allowed (b)
cards have a built in memory and processor along with an operating system (c) these can protect themselves against fraudulent operations. a
a to c all are correct, b only b and c are correct, c only a and c are correct, d only a and b are correct
76 is a smart card that contains electronic money. It is sometimes called the electronic wallet or the stored value card (SVC):-
a electronic purse, b electronic cash, c electronic card d all the above
77Purchase now and pay later, is the feature of :- a smart card, b magnetic card, c credit card, d debit card
78 In which of the following type of card, the customer's account is debited before making the actual purchase: a smart card, b
magnetic card, c credit card, d debit card
79 Where funds are loaded in a card to use these as cash, in case of need, it is called
a smart card, b electronic cheque, c electronic purse, d electronic cash
80. When the card holder authorises payMent by typing his PIN and his bank account is debited and account of merchant
establishment (point of sale) is credited, it is called:- a electronic token,
b electronic cheque, c electronic purse, d electronic cash
81 in a smart card, when a prepaid area is set aside to store electronic units of time or electronic tickets for a specific service, it is
called:- a electronic token, b electronic cheque, c electronic purse,
d electronic cash
82. permits payments to be made at the merchant establishment through electronic funds transfer (EFT) : a point of
sale, b Bank ATM, c F E DWI R E , d B AN KWI R E
83. ECS (Credit) payments can be initiated by any institution (called ECS user) :- a which has to make small payments b which has
recover amount of bills repeatedly, c which has to make large size payments in small numbers d have to make bulk or
repetitive payments to a number of beneficiaries.
84. The validity period of pre-paid payment instrument can be from date of activation/issuance to the holder : a 1 month, b
2 months, c 3 months, d 6 months
85. ECS (credit) user can initiate the transactions after registering themselves with an
a IBA approved bank, b approved clearing house, c RBI approved entity, d any of the above
86. The ECS (Credit) user's bank is called as the bank under the scheme and the ECS beneficiary account holder is called the
account holder. a sponsor bank, ultimate, b originating bank, final, c sponsor bank, destination, d any of the above
87. The debit payment system that works on the principle of multiple debits and a single credit:
a debit clearing, b electronic debit clearing, c electronic clearing, d electronic clearing service
88. Which of the following is an advantage under the debit clearing system:
a customer need not keep track of his bills and make payment on due date
b service provider need not print out the paper bill and courier them to the customer
c cost reduction at the level of banking system as handling of cheques is avoided
d all the above
89. The electronic system through which a company or a mutual fund can make payment of dividend to a large number of shareholders or

unitholders:-
a M I C R , b truncation, c debit clearing system,
d credit clearing system
90. The maximum value of a pre-paid payment instrument can not exceed as per RBI directions:
a Rs . 2 50 0 0 , b Rs.100000, c Rs.50000, d Rs.2 lac
91. is a mechanism under which an account holder with a bank can authorise an ECS user to recover an amount at a prescribed
frequency by raising a debit in his account. a N E F T , b R T G S , c ECS-Debit d ECS -Credi t
101 .
92.Under ECS debit, all the unprocessed debits have to be returned to the sponsor bank within a 24 hours b one business day,
c 3 working days, d the specified time frame
93. Which of the following match the description of while-label ATM? a ATM installed by RBI. and operated by banks
b ATM jointly owned and operated by different banks, c ATM installed by a bank and operated by other banks
d ATM owned and operated by non-bank entities
94. RuPay Card scheme is operated by:- a non-bank entities, b National Payment Corporation of India c public sector and
private sector banks jointly, d Reserve Bank of India
95. Unique Transaction Reference (UTR) is a character number :- a 10, b 12, c 15 d 2 2
96. Which of the following is not matched in the context of UTR number "XXXXRCYYYYMMDDnnnnnnnn"
a XXXX is first 4 characters of IFSC of receiving participant, b R is RTGS and C is channel of transaction, c YYYYMMDD is year, month
and date of transaction, d nnnnnnnn is sequence number
97..The physical parts of a computer are known as: a) software, b) hardware, c) shareware, d) fixed-ware, e) digital-ware
98. Which of the following cannot be treated as part of the computer hardware:- a ) mother board,
b) cards, c) memory, d) ports, e) power supply
99.The software that consists of all the programs, languages and documents supplied by the manufacturer of the computers is called
a) application software, b) system software, c) utility software, d) a and c e b and c
100. The application software is the software that is: a supplied by the computer manufacture
b used by the computer manufacture, c developed by the user for specific functions, d developed by the
manufacturer for manufacturing purpose, e c and d
ANSWER
1 A 2 D 3 E 4 B 5 C 6 A 7 B 8 D 9 B 10 E
11 B 12 D 13 A 14 B 15 A 16 A 17 C 18 C 19 A 20 C
21 B 22 D 23 C 24 B 25 D 26 A 27 D 28 A 29 D 30 E
31 E 32 C 33 C 34 C 35 A 36 D 37 C 38 E 39 D 40 D
41 E 42 E 43 D 44 E 45 C 46 D 47 E 48 D 49 B 50 C
51 E 52 A 53 A 54 A 55 A 56 D 57 A 58 B 59 C 60 A
61 C 62 A 63 D 64 C 65 C 66 B 67 B 68 D 69 C 70 B
71 B 72 B 73 C 74 D 75 A 76 A 77 C 78 D 79 D 80 B
81 A 82 A 83 D 84 D 85 B 86 C 87 B 88 D 89 D 90 B
91 C 92 D 93 D 94 B 95 D 96 A 97 A 98 C 99 B 100 C

Different Types of LC

 Different Types of LC

1. Irrevocable LC. This LC cannot be cancelled or modified without consent of the beneficiary (Seller). This LC reflects absolute liability of the Bank (issuer) to the other party.

2. Revocable LC. This LC type can be cancelled or modified by the Bank (issuer) at the customer's instructions without prior agreement of the beneficiary (Seller). The Bank will not have any liabilities to the beneficiary after revocation of the LC.

3. Stand-by LC. This LC is closer to the bank guarantee and gives more flexible collaboration opportunity to Seller and Buyer. The Bank will honour the LC when the Buyer fails to fulfill payment liabilities to Seller.

4. Confirmed LC. In addition to the Bank guarantee of the LC issuer, this LC type is confirmed by the Seller's bank or any other bank. Irrespective to the payment by the Bank issuing the LC (issuer), the Bank confirming the LC is liable for performance of obligations.

5. Unconfirmed LC. Only the Bank issuing the LC will be liable for payment of this LC.

6. Transferable LC. This LC enables the Seller to assign part of the letter of credit to other party(ies). This LC is especially beneficial in those cases when the Seller is not a sole manufacturer of the goods and purchases some parts from other parties, as it eliminates the necessity of opening several LC's for other parties.

7. Back-to-Back LC. This LC type considers issuing the second LC on the basis of the first letter of credit. LC is opened in favor of intermediary as per the Buyer's instructions and on the basis of this LC and instructions of the intermediary a new LC is opened in favor of Seller of the goods.

8. Payment at Sight LC. According to this LC, payment is made to the seller immediately (maximum within 7 days) after the required documents have been submitted.

9. Deferred Payment LC. According to this LC the payment to the seller is not made when the documents are submitted, but instead at a later period defined in the letter of credit. In most cases the payment in favor of Seller under this LC is made upon receipt of goods by the Buyer.

10. Red Clause LC. The seller can request an advance for an agreed amount of the LC before shipment of goods and submittal of required documents. This red clause is so termed because it is usually printed in red on the document to draw attention to "advance payment" term of the credit.

Caiib BFM strategy

 BFM::;;

The strategy for the study of Bank Financial Management which many people finds difficult to clear. If you study properly, it is easy to clear the BFM. This subject also contains 4 modules, they are;

-International Banking

-Risk Management

-Treasury Management

-Balance Sheet Management

Many people do not correlate the syllabus of the subject with day to day banking activity. So they find it difficult to score and understand this subject. But this not true, this subject is very much important which will increase your knowledge regarding top management & middle management functioning of your bank as well as banking as a whole industry.

All the modules are equally important, but you may clear the paper with three modules study also. Module A & B are relatively easy and scoring as well. Let us discuss strategy for each module.

Module A-International Banking

Important topics are Exchange Rates and Forex Business, Basics for Forex Derivatives, Documentary LC, and Facilities for Exporters & Importers

Rapid reading or bullet point reading is quite useful for this module. Practice numerical again and again.

Many numerical/case studies are asked from this module which are quite easy as compared to Module B & Module D case studies. Refer the case studies from McMillan given at the end of the topic. Also N.S.Toor book has many numerical and case studies. Questions are asked on Exchange rates, Shipment Finance etc.

Module B-Risk Management

All chapters are equally important as they are interlinked to each other. Again focus more on case studies/numericals given in Apendix at the end of chapter. Maximum case studies are asked from this module. Though short notes are useful for this module I would suggest McMillan reading for this module because some questions are twisted type for which you require details of the concept which is hard to get from short notes. RBI website contains FAQs which are quite useful for this modules, you should read them at least once.

Module C- Treasury Management

Important topics are Introduction, Types of treasury products, Treasury Risk Management, Treasury and Asset-Liability Management.

Mostly questions asked on this module are theoretical type, so through reading of McMillan is important. If you don’t get time then you can skip this module or read short notes since the weighted of this module for exam point of view is low according to me as compared to Module A&B. But those who wish to make carrier or work in treasury department, this is the best module to learn.

Module-D Balance Sheet Management

Important chapters are Components of ALM in Bank’s Balance Sheet, Capital and banking Regulation,, Capital Adequacy, Asset Classification and Provisioning Norms, Interest rate Risk management.

Though McMillan book contain sufficient material but I would suggest you to refer RBI website for this module. In this module focus more on Case Studies as compared to theoretical questions. Do not skip this module as it is much important for exam as well as knowledge point of view. No need to read McMillan line by line.

Overall you have to keep balance between theoretical reading as well as case studies/numerical since the paper would contain 40-45% case studies. N.S.Toor book contains good case studies and MCQs. Also there are many resources available on the internet from where you will get case studies for this module. After giving this paper you will realized that BFM is easier as compared to ABM and no need to worry for BFM.