Thursday, 27 December 2018

White and brown label ATM

White Label ATM



White Label ATMs are purely managed by third party service providers and have their label. These are branded non

bank ATM machines. Cash handling, management and logistics are provided by third party. Debit cards of all banks can be

operated through these machines. The role of the concerned bank is only limited to provide account information and back

end money transfers to the third parties managing these ATM machines. This initiative will enable the excluded segments

to avail ATM services as at present majority ATMs are confined to Urban/Metro areas only.

However, service provider levy charges which are to be either bear by the Bank or the customer. RBI has allowed

white label ATM's in India to have more penetration of ATM machines. Tata Communications Payment Solutions has

become the first company to launch this service in India under the brand name "Indicash". It has a tie up with

majority commercial banks and now you will soon see branded non bank third party white label ATM machines in

your vicinity.







 Brown Label ATM — We always think that the bank branded ATM machines operated by the bank concerned,

but this is not the case. Banks only handle part of the process that is cash handling and back-end server

connectivity. The ATM machine is owned by the third party service provider along with the physical

infrastructure. This type ATM is called as "Brown Label ATM" and acts as intermediate between Banks owned

ATM and White Label ATM.


Iibfadda.blogspot.com 

Wednesday, 26 December 2018

Loans and advances CCP exam

Loans and Advances::(Useful for Certified credit officers( professionals)  , Caiib also)) very important for bankers

1. ˜Credit Rating Agencies in India are regulated by: RBI
2. ˜CRISIL stands for: Credit Rating Information Services of India Ltd.
3. ˜Deferred Payment Guarantee is : Guarantee issued
when payment by applicant of guarantee is to be made in installments over a period of time.
4. ˜If Break Even Point is high, it can be construed that the margin of safety is ____: Low.
5. ˜Long Term uses – 12; total Assets – 30; Long Term source 16; What is net working capital : 4
6. ˜On which one of the following assets, depreciation is applied on Straight line method: Computers.
7. ˜Projected Turnover is Rs.400 lacs, margin by promoter is Rs. 20 lacs. What is maximum bank
finance as per Annual Projected Turnover method: 80 lakhs.
8. ˜Rohit was a loanee of the branch and news has come that he has expired. On enquiry, it was
observed that he left some assets. Upto what extent the legal heirs are liable to the Bank? Legal heirs are
liable for the liabilities upto the assets inherited by them.
9. ˜The appraisal of Deferred Payment Guarantee is same as that of a) Demand Loan b) OD c) Term
Loan d) CC : Term Loan.
10. A cash credit account will be treated as NPA if the CC limit is not renewed within ___days from the
due date of renewal: 180 days.
11. A director of a bank wants to raise loan of Rs 10 lakh from his bank against Life Insurance Policy with
surrender value of more than Rs 15 lakh. What will be done?: Bank can sanction.
12. A firm is allowed a limit of Rs.1.40 lac at 30% margin. It wants to avail the limit fully. How much will
be the value of security : Rs.2 lac
13. A guarantee issued for a series of transactions is called: Continuing guarantee
14. A lady who has taken a demand loan against FD come to the branch and wants to add name of her
minor son, as joint a/c holder. What you will do?: Name can be added only after adjustment of the loan.
15. A letter of credit which is issued on request of the beneficiary in favour of his supplier: Back to Back
LC
16. A loan is given by the bank on hypothecation of stock to Mr. A. Bank receives seizure order from
State Govt. What should bank do?: Bank will first adjust its dues and surplus if any wilt be shared with
the Govt.
17. A loan was sanctioned against a vacant land. Subsequently a house was constructed at the site.
What security is available now to the bank? : Both
18. A minor was given loan. On attaining majority he acknowledges having taken loan and promises to
pay. Whether the loan can be recovered? : He can not ratify the contract. Hence recovery not possible.
19. A negotiating bank and issuing bank are allowed days each for scrutiny of documents drawn
under Letter of credit to ensure that documents are as per LC: 5 banking days each.
20. Age limit staff housing loan: 70 years;
21. An L/C is expiring on 10.05.2008. A commotion takes place in the area and bank could not open.
Under these circumstances can the LC be negotiated?: The L/C can not be negotiated because expiry date
of LC can not be extended if banks are closed for reasons beyond their control.
22. As per internal policy of certain banks, the net worth of a firm does not include: a. Paid up capital b.
Free Reserve c. Share Premium d. Equity received from Foreign Investor : Revaluation Reserves
23. Authorised capital is Rs.10 lac. Paid up capital Rs.6 lac. The loss of previous year is Rs.1 lac. Loss in
current year is Rs3 _ lac. The tangible net worth is : Rs.2 lac
24. Authorised capital= 10 lac, paid-up capital = 60%, loss during current year = 50000, loss last year =
2 lacs, what is the tangible net worth of the company? : 3.5 lac
25. Bailment of goods by a person to another person, to secure a loan is called : Pledge
26. Balance outstanding in a CC limit is Rs.9 lakh. Value of stock is Rs.5 lakhs. It is in doubtfUl for more
than two years as on 31 March 2012. What is the amount of provision to be made on 31-03-2013?: Rs.9
lakhs (100% of liability as account is doubtful for more than 3 years)
27. Balance Sheet of a firm indicates which of the following – Balance Sheet indicates what a firm
owes and what a firm owns as on a particular date.
28. Bank limit for working capital based on turn over method: 20% of the projected sales turnover
accepted by Banks
29. Banks are required to declare their financial results quarterly as per provisions of : SEBI
30. Banks are required to maintain -a margin of ___ for issuing Guarantee favouring stock exchange on
behalf of share Brokers.
31. Banks are required to obtain audited financial papers from non corporate borrowers for granting
working capital limit of: Rs.25 lakh &above
32. Banks provide term loans and deferred payment guarantee to finance capital assets like plant and
machinery. What is the difference between these two: Outlay of funds.
33. Benchmark Current Ratio under turn over method is: 1.25
34. Break Even Point: No profit no loss. ( TR-TC=Zero)
35. Calculate Debt Equity ratio – Debenture – Rs 200, capital 50; reserves – 80; P& L account credit
balance – Rs 20: 4: 3 ( 200 divided by 150).
36. Calculate Net working capital– Total assets 1000; Long Term liabilities 400; Fixed assets, Intangible
assets and Non current assets (i.e. long term uses) Rs 350; What is net working capital : 400- 350= Rs
50
37. Calculate Tangible Net Worth: Land and building: 200 Lacs; Capital:80000 intangible asset:15000:
65,000
38. CALCULATION OF INTEREST IN LOAN ACCOUNT: MONTHLY
39. CARE stands for : Credit Analysis & Research Ltd
40. Cash Budget method is used for sanctioning working capital limits to : Seasonal Industries
41. CC limit Rs 4 lacs. Stock 6 lacs. Margin 25% . What is drawing power? : NOTIONAL - 4.5 lacs, BUT
ACTUAL Rs. 4 LAC.
42. Central Registry of Securitization Asset Reconstruction and Security Interest of India (CERSAI) is a
government company licensed under Section 25 of the Companies Act, has been incorporated to operate
and maintain the Central Registry under the provisions of _____: SARFAESI Act 2002.
43. CIBIL is the agency that provides information to the member banks on (i) Credit Rating (ii)
Information on credit History: Information on Credit History of borrowers
44. Contribution means : profit + fixed cost
45. Current Assets 600, Long Term sources - 600, Total Assests1000, what is NWC and Current Ratio: CR
1.5 : 1; NWC = 200 .
46. Current Liabilities are those liabilities which are to be paid: within one Year
47. Current Ratio = 2:1, Net working Capital=60000, What is the Current Liability of the firm? : 60000
48. Current ratio indicates: Liquidity of the firm (ability of a firm to pay current liabilities in time)
49. Current Ratio is 1.33:1, Current Assets is 100, what will be the amount of Current Liability: 75 lakhs

50. Debt Equity Ratio indicates: Long term solvency or capital structure of the firm.
51. Debt Securitization refers to: Conversion of receivables into debt instruments.
52. Debt Service coverage ratio is used for: Sanction of Term Loans
53. Deferred Payment guarantee is: Financial Guarantee
54. Deferred payment guarantee issued by a bank is a : Contingent Liability.
55. Difference between Long Term Source and Long Term Use is called: Net Working capital.
56. DSCR indicates: Ability of firm to repay term loan instalments
57. DSCR is for evaluating: Term Loan repayment-surplus generating capacity.
58. Duty of confirming bank: Only to verify the genuineness of L/C.
59. Equitable Mortgage is created by deposit of title deeds with bank at – (a) any where in India; (b)
state capital; (c) only at Mumbai, Chennai or Kolkatta; (d) Any place notified by state government for this
purpose: Correct answer is (d).
60. Excess of current liability over current assets means the firm may face difficulties in meeting its
financial obligations in short term.
61. Expand CRILC: Central Repository of Information on large credits.
62. Expand IRR : Internal Rate of Return
63. Finance for construction of road and port is classified as: Infrastructure Finance.
64. For ascertaining that a firm will be able to generate sufficient profit to repay instalments of term
loan, which ratio is computed?: Debt Service Coverage Ratio
65. For assessing Fund Based Working Capital limit for MSME upto _______Turnover method is followed
under Nayak committee: Rs.5 crore.
66. For classification of assets in consortium accounts, which of the following is to be considered?: In
consortium accounts, each bank will classify the account as per its record of recovery.
67. For Takeover of accounts from other Banks, the account copies of all the borrower accounts with the
present bankers / financial institution shall be obtained at least for the last ______: 12 months.
68. Formation of consortium, when essential : When bank touches its exposure ceiling
69. Full form of DSCR: Debt Service coverage ratio;
70. Gold is pledged with bank as security for a Bank Guarantee by a borrower. Bank Guarantee stands
expired. Whether a temporary overdraft availed by the borrower which is overdue can be got adjusted by
selling the Gold held as security for issue of guarantee: Yes, because Bankers lien is a general lien and is
an implied pledge. Further, the Gold was deposited in the ordinary course of business.
71. Green field project is related to : setting up new projects
72. Guarantee issued by a bank in favour of Custom department that party will fulfill export obligation for
availing exemption from custom duty regarding tax. Such guarantee is called: Financial Guarantee
73. Guarantee issued by a bank which is still outstanding is shown in the Balance Sheet as: Contingent
Liability.
74. Guarantors Liability: Recall the a/c and cause demand against the borrower and guarantor. Balance
in guarantor's SB a/c cannot be appropriated directly.
75. Holiday period given for repayment of installements in a loan is termed as: Moratorium period
76. How DSCR is calculated?: (Profitafter tax + Depreciation + Interest on Term Loan) divided by (Annual
instalment of term loan+ interest on term loan)
77. How much additional risk weight has been provided on restructured loans?: 25%
78. Hypothecation can be converted to pledge by: taking possession with the consent of the borrower.
79. Hypothecation described under SARFEASI Act.
80. If a businessman start a business with a Capital investment of Rs.3,00,000/- and withdraw
Rs.25,000/- later. If Net Profit is Rs.1,20,000/- and income tax paid thereon is Rs.30,000/-, what is the
position of capital account (net worth) at the end of the year – 395000; 365000; 360000; nil:
Rs.3,65,000/-
81. If a LC contains a clause "about" regarding the amount and quantity of goods, how much tolerance is
permitted?: 10%
82. If current ratio is 2:1, net working capital is Rs 20,000, current asset will be: Rs 40,000
83. If debtors are Rs 4 lac, annual sale is 60 lac, what is the Debt collection period: 0.8 months
84. If Debtors velocity ratio increases, it means debt collection period has increased or sales have
decreased.
85. If documents are to be presented in about July month: these can be presented within 5 days before
or 5 days after.
86. If in a Guarantee issued is silent, what will be the limitation period: 3 yrs and in case of Govt
guarantee it is 30 years.
87. If in a LC words around is written with date then variation of is allowed in the period: +/- 5 calendar
days
88. If limit is 3 lacs, margin is 25% what should be stock to avail full limit?: Rs4 lac
89. If on a letter of credit it is not mentioned whether it is revocable or irrevocable, then as UCPDC 600, it
will be treated as : Irrevocable LC
90. If on a Letter of Credit, date is mentioned as "end of the month", then as per UCPDC 600, it will
mean: 21st to last day of the month.
91. If stock statement is not submitted for 3 months from its due date and DP is allowed on the basis of

old stock report, then the account will be considered NPA after:90 days
92. If the projected sale of a-small (manufacturing) enterprise is Rs 80 lakh, margin available with the
borrower is Rs 4 lakh, then as per turnover method, working capital limit will be: Rs 16 lakh.
93. If working capital limit to a borrower is Rs 10 crore and above, then as per RBI guidelines, the loan
component should be at least: as per bank's discretion.(earlier it used to be 80%).
94. In a company, the registration of charges is required for: a)loan against FD b)lien on Govt Securities
c) assignment of Book Debts d) lien on Shares : Book Debts
95. In A current account OD of Rs. 12000 is made. The FDR has become due later on if the right of
appropriation can be used. The borrower has objected that he never requested for overdraft, hence
payment can not be appropriated. The customer is right.
96. In a letter of credit, it is written that documents can be negotiated about 30th June. In this case, the
documents can be negotiated: Before or after 5 clays of 30th June.
97. In case of a loan under consortium, each bank can have Maximum working capital limit of Rs-No
rule in this regard. Rules of consortium to be framed by members of consortium.
98. In case of loan given by more than one bank under a consortium, how the asset classification is done
by various banks?: Each bank will classify the account based on its record of recovery.
99. In case of revaluation of fixed assets, what percentage of revaluation reserve will be added to Tier
II capital of the bank?: 45%
100. In Letter Of Credit jmporter is called: Opener of Letter of Credit
101. In project finance, Debt Equity Ratio requirement for other than Infrastructure finance is: 2:1
102. In respect of a project report, the feasibility which is given least importance by the preparers of the
report, but very important for a banker is : a) Commercial b) Technical c) economic d) financial Ans: C
103. In the Balance Sheet of a bank, Contingent Liabilities are shown as: footnote to the Balance Sheet.
104. In the case of advance to a limited company for purchase of vehicle, the charge is registered with
Regional Transport Authority in addition to registration of charge with. Registrar of Companies. Why this is
done?:So that borrower can not sell the vehicle without intimation to the bank
105. Interest rate on advances is related to – Bank rate; Base Rate; PLR: MCLR Rate
106. Limit sanctioned Rs 5 lac; Stock Rs 6 lac; Margin 25%; What will be Drawing power: Rs 4.5 lac
107. Loan Delivery System is not applicable to: a) Loan to Soft ware industry b) export credit: export
credit
108. Loan Delivery System suggested by Rashid Mani Committee is applicable on borrowers with working
capital limits of: Rs 10 crore and above
109. Loan is in the name of A&B. Both have signed documents. A signs the Balance Confirmation but B
does not. In this case limitation will extend against: both
110. Lorry Receipts issued by Transport Operators approved by IBA are preferred. The reason is the
Transport Operators will take care of: Carriers Risk.
111. Stand by LC is just like : Financial guarantee (A guarantee of payment issued by a bank on behalf of a
client that is used as "payment of last resort" should the client fail to fulfill a contractual commitment with
a third party. Standby letters of credit are created as a sign of good faith in business transactions, and are
proof of a buyer's credit quality and repayment abilities)
112. Standard Score under CIBIL: 300 to 900
113. Stock Audit is required in respect of loans of : Rs.1.00 crore & above
114. Subordinate Debt is shown as part of in the Balance Sheet of a bank: Other Liabilities and
Provisions
115. Tangible Net Worth (TNW) is calculated as: Total paid up capital + Reserves – Intangible Assets.
116. The appraisal of deferred payment guarantee is similar to term loan: The difference is outlay of funds.
117. THE APPRAISAL OF DEFERRED PAYMENT GUARANTEE IS SIMILAR TO: TERM LOAN
118. The Audited Balance sheet for the latest financial year is to be obtained within ______ to finalise
credit rating and re-fix interest accordingly: 6 months.
119. The Bank did not disclose all material facts regarding loan to the guarantor while obtaining
guarantee. Can guarantor escape liability?: Guarantor cannot escape from his liability as it is not
necessary to disclose all the materials facts with regards to the loan.
120. The Borrower has to bring funds as his contribution for loan from: Long term Sources
121. The charge on stocks is created by: Hypothecation ( also by pledge or lien)
122. The concept of Base Rate is not applicable in the case of: Loan against Bank’s own deposit
123. The limitations of financial statements are : only quantitative not qualitative.
124. The long term liability to tangible net worth ratio implies : Long term solvency of the firm .
125. The main distinction between Hypothecation and Pledge is on accountof : Possession
126. The Meaning of Debtor Velocity Ratio is: Cycle of Debt Collection Period
127. The procedure used for ascertaining Customers Credit worth is called: Credit Rating
128. Time Limit for registration of equitable mortgage with CERSAI: 30 days from date of deposit of
title deeds. (Normally 30days and then delay can be condoned up to 30days on payment of penalty).
129. To improve Current Ratio of 2:1, what has to be done? a) Recover cash from Receivables b) Cash
sales c) Decrease the Bills payables.
130. Total Indebtedness Ratio is represented by: Total outside liabilities divided by Tangible Net Worth
131. What is "pari passu" means: Sharing in the ratio of outstanding.
132. What is a Break even point-The level of sales at which a firm does not earn any profit and does not
incur any loss.
133. What is cash loss : net loss before depreciation (Net loss minus depreciation)
134. What is Deffered Payment Guarantee?: Guarantee issued when payment by applicant of
guarantee is to be made in instalments over a period of time.
135. What is Mortgage? Transfer of interest in specific immovable property to secure an existing
or future debt.
136. What is nature of Banker's Lien?: It is implied pledge because Banker can dispose-off the goods after
giving notice to the borrower.
137. What is Pari Passu charge?: In case of consortium advance sale proceeds of security will be
shared among banks in proportion to their outstanding.
138. What is Real Rate of Interest?: Prevailing interest rate minus inflation rate
139. What is the meaning of Group in Exposure Norms: Commonality of management & Effective Control
140. What is the relationship between bank and customers in case of overdraft?: Creditor and Debtor
141. What is the risk weight for Personal Loans? 125%
142. What is the risk weight for Unrated companies?: 100%
143. What is the type of liability for the bank on account of issue of Bank Guarantee?: Contingent Liability
144. What type of bank gaurentee bank gives when a customer purchases a machine on instalment basis?:
Deferred Payment guarantee.
145. What type of Guarantee is Deffered Payment Guarantee: Financial Guarantee
146. What type of liability is represented by Bank Guarantee?: Contingent Liability and shown as a
footnote in the Balance Sheet.
147. What will be the tangible net worth if total assets are Rs 35 crore; total outside liability Rs 30 crore;
intangible assets Rs 3 crore: Rs 2 crore
148. What will happen in case of negative working capital limit: Current Liabilities are more than
Current Assets
149. Which is not a Credit Rating Agency – CRISIL, CARE, SMERA, ICRA, CIBIL: CIBIL
150. Which is not found in operating expenses statement of P&L statement - Salaries, Rent, Power: Power
151. Which is not included in Contingent liability – Bank Guarantee; Letter of Credit; Forward Contract;
Bills Payable: Bills payable
152. Which of the following is a contingent liability – deposits, borrowings, capital, guarantee: Bank
Guarantee
153. Which of the following is a Credit Information company – CIBIL, FIMDA, AMFI, CRISIL: CRISIL
154. Which of the following is part of the Solvency Ratios: debt equity ratio.
155. Which of the following represent Debt Service Coverage Ratio: (Net Profit after tax + Depreciation
+ Interest on Term loan) divided by (Annual instalment of term loan + interest on term loan)
156. Which of the items will not be an asset in banks bal sheet: Advances/Fixed Asset / Deposits :
Deposits
157. Which one of following is credit information company?: Equifax
158. Which system replaced Benchmark Prime Lending rate in banks: Base Rate
159. While arriving Drawing Power for financing against book debts, only Book Debts _____and below are
to be taken in to consideration. (other than MSME advances): 90 days
160. While doing Project Appraisal, sensitivity analysis is useful for: Viability and sustainability of project.
161. While financing for TL, Bank should look for the ability of the firm to generate the income to service
the debt
162. While granting loans to a partnership, banks generally insist that the firm should be registered
whereas registration of a partnership firm is optional. What is the reason for the same?: An
unregistered firm can not sue its debtors for recovery of its dues whereas other can sue the
firm for recovery of their dues
163. While undertaking technical appraisal, the following is not considered: cost of production and sales (it
is used for economic viability).
164. Who is bound to file particulars of charge with the Registrar of Companies under MCA 21, when a
company creates charge of somebody on its movable or immovable property except by way of
pledge?: officials of the company.
165. Why banks do not grant loan to a minor?: A minor is not competent to contract Therefore, Ioan given
to a minor can not be recovered.
166. Why banks ensure that charge created on any asset of the company should be registered with ROC
within stipulated period?: If charge is not registered, bank will become unsecured creditor.
167. Why banks prefer financing of bills?: because the advance is self liquidating
168. Why fund flow statement is taken from the borrower?: To know sources from where funds have been
raised and how funds have been utilized and to know changes in net working capital position.
169. Why loan against Partly Paid Shares are not preferred by banks?: Because partly paid shares
represent contingent liability. In case company makes demand and the borrower does not pay the
amount then the bank will have to pay the amount otherwise share may be forfeited. Moreover it is
prohibited by RBI
170. Working capital requirement of a firm is required to be met through : Short term sources and surplus

Policy framework for international frame work

1. Introduction to India’s Foreign Trade:

International business operations at firm level are considerably influenced by various policy measures employed to regulate trade, both by home and host countries. Exportability and importability of a firm’s goods are often determined by trade policies of the countries involved. Price-competitiveness of traded goods is affected by import and export tariffs.

The host country’s trade and FDI policies often influence entry decisions in international markets. Policy incentives help exporters increase their profitability through foreign sales. High import tariffs and other import restrictions distort free market forces guarding domestic industry against foreign competition and support indigenous manufacturing.

Therefore, a thorough understanding of the country’s trade policy and incentives are crucial to the development of a successful international business strategy.

Trade policy refers to the complete framework of laws, regulations, international agreements, and negotiating stances adopted by a government to achieve legally binding market access for domestic firms. It also seeks to develop rules providing predictability and security for firms. To be effective, trade policy needs to be supported by domestic policies to foster innovation and international competitiveness.

Besides, the trade policy should have flexibility and pragmatism.

Trade in developing countries is characterized by heavy dependence on developed countries, dominance of primary products, over-dependence on few markets and few products, and worsening of terms of trade and global protectionism, all of which make formulation and implementations of trade policy critical to economic development.

The strategic options for trade policy may either be inward or outward looking. As a result of liberalization and integration of national policies with WTO agreements, there has been a strategic shift in trade policies. Like other developing countries, India’s trade policies have also made a gradual shift from highly restrictive policies with emphasis on import substitution to more liberal policies geared towards export promotion.

India’s foreign trade policy is formulated under the Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, for a period of five years by the Ministry of Commerce, Government of India. The government is empowered to prohibit or restrict subject to conditions, export of certain goods for reasons of national security, public order, morality, prevention of smuggling, and safeguarding balance of payments.

Policy measures to promote international trade, such as schemes and incentives for duty-¬free and concessional imports, augmenting export production, and other export promotion measures are discussed in-depth

The multilateral trading system under the WTO trade regime significantly influences trade promotion measures and member countries need to integrate their trade policies with the WTO framework. The WTO trade policy review mechanism provides an institutional framework to review trade policies of member countries at regular intervals.


Trade Policy Options for Developing Countries:


There exists a huge gap in per capita income between the developed and the developing countries. Most of the world’s population lives in countries that are considerably poor.

Efforts to bridge the income gap between developed and developing countries, to raise living standards by increasing income levels, and to cope with the uneven development in the domestic economy, remain the central concern of economic and trade policies of developing countries. With low production base and constraints in value addition, most developing countries remain marginal players in international trade

Key characteristics of developing countries’ trade include the following:

(i) Heavy Dependence Upon Developed Countries:

Developing countries’ trade is often dependent upon developed countries which form export destinations for the majority of their goods. Moreover, developing countries also heavily depend on developed countries for their imports. Trade among developing countries is relatively meagre.

(ii) Dominance of Primary Products:

Exports from developing countries traditionally comprised primary products, such as agricultural goods, raw materials and fuels or labour-intensive manufactured goods, such as textiles. However, over recent years, dependence on primary products has considerably decreased, especially for newly industrialized countries, such as South Korea and Hong Kong.

India’s dependence on agro exports has also declined considerably from 44.2 per cent in 1960-61 to about 10 per cent in 2006-07.

(iii) Over-dependence on a Few Markets and a Few Products:

A large number of developing countries are dependent on just a few markets and products for their exports. For instance, Mexico is heavily dependent on the US which is the destination for 89 per cent of its total exports whereas the Dominican Republic exports 80 per cent and Trinidad and Tobago 68 per cent of its goods to the US.

In terms of product composition, petroleum accounts for 96 per cent of total exports from Nigeria, 86 per cent of total exports from Saudi Arabia, and 86 per cent of total exports from Venezuela. Over the years, India’s basket of export products has widened remarkably with decreased dependence on any single product category

(iv) Worsening Terms of Trade:

Distribution of gains from trade has always been disproportionate and therefore, a controversial issue. Developing countries often complain of deterioration in their terms of trade, mainly due to high share of primary products in their exports.

(v) Global Protectionism:

Developed countries often provide heavy subsidies to their farmers for agricultural production and shield them from competition from imported products, besides imposing tariffs. Moreover, a number of non-tariff barriers such as quality requirements, sanitary and phytosanitary measures, and environmental and social issues, such as child labour offers considerable obstacles to products emanating from developing countries.

Trade Policy Strategic Options for International Trade:

‘Economic dualism’, where a high-wage capital-intensive industrial sector co-exists with a low-wage unorganized traditional sector, prevails in most developing countries. Promoting indigenous industrialization and employment generation become key concerns of their economic policies. A country may adopt any of the following strategic options for its trade policy

i) Inward Looking Strategy (Import Substitution):

Emphasis is laid on extensive use of trade barriers to protect domestic industries from import competition under the import-substitution strategy. Domestic production is encouraged so as to achieve self-sufficiency and imports are discouraged.

Import- substitution trade strategy is often justified by the ‘infant industry argument’, which advocates the need of a temporary period of protection for new industries from competition from well-established foreign competitors.

Most developing countries, such as Brazil, India, Mexico, Argentina, etc., during the 1950s and 1960s employed an inward-looking trade strategy.

The uses of high tariff structure and quota restrictions along with reserving domestic industrial activities for local firms rather than foreign investors were the key features of this import substitution policy. The pros and cons of such strategy are given below.

Pros:

i. Protecting start-up industries so as to enable them to grow to a size where they can compete with the industries of developed nations

ii. Low risk in establishing domestic industry to replace imports especially when the size of domestic market is large enough to support such industries

iii. High import tariffs that discourage imports but provide foreign firms an inbuilt incentive to establish manufacturing facilities, leading to industrial development, growth in economic activities, and employment generation

iv. Relative ease for developing countries to protect their manufacturers against foreign competition compared to getting protectionist trade barriers reduced by developed countries, in which they have little negotiating power

Cons:

i. Overprotection of domestic industries against international competition tends to make them inefficient

ii. Protection primarily available to import substituting industries which discriminates against other industries

iii. Manufacturers based in countries with relatively small market size find it difficult to take advantage of economies of scale and therefore have to incur high per unit costs

iv. Industries that substitute imports become competitive because of government incentives and import prohibitions, leading to considerable investment. Any attempt to reduce incentives or liberalize trade restrictions face strong resistance

v. Government subsidies and trade restrictions tend to breed corruption

Since independence, India’s trade strategy had been largely inclined to import substitution rather than export promotion. Earning foreign exchange through exports and conservation thereof had always been a high-priority task for various governments, irrespective of their political ideologies. Till 1991, India followed a strong inward-oriented trade policy to conserve foreign exchange

In order to facilitate industrialization with the objective of import substitution, important instruments used by the government included outright ban on import of some commodities, quantitative restriction, prohibitive tariff structure, which was one of the highest in the world and administrative restrictions, such as import licensing, foreign exchange regulations, local content requirements, export obligations, etc.

The policy makers of India had long believed that these policy measures would make India a leading exporter with comfortable balance of trade. In reality, these initiatives did not yield the desired results, rather gave rise to corruption, complex procedures, production inefficiency, poor product quality, and delay in shipment, and, in turn, decline in India’s share in world exports.

The protectionist measures of the inward-oriented economy increased the profitability of domestic industries, especially in the import substitution sector. The investment made to serve the domestic market was less risky due to proven demand potential by the existing level of imports.

Formidable tariff structure and trade policy barriers discouraged the entry of foreign goods into the Indian market. There was little pressure on domestic firms to be internationally competitive.

(ii) Outward Looking Strategy (Export-led Growth):

Under the outward looking strategy, the domestic economy is linked to the world economy, promoting economic growth through exports. The strategy involves incentives to promote exports rather than restrictions to imports.

Major benefits of an outward looking strategy include:

i. Industries wherein a country has comparative advantage are encouraged, for instance labour-intensive industries in developing countries

ii. Increase in competition in the domestic market leads to competitive pressure on the industry to increase its efficiency and upgrade quality

iii. Facilitating companies to benefit from economies of scale as large output can be sold in international markets

The economic liberalization during the last decade paved the way for access of foreign goods to Indian market, applying competitive pressure even on purely domestic companies. In order to make exports, the engine of growth, export promotion, gained major thrust in India’s trade policies, especially in recent years


With the integration of national trade policies and export promotion incentives with the WTO, promotional measures to encourage international marketing efforts, rather than export subsidization, have gained increased significance.

Accordingly, policies were aimed at creating a business-friendly environment by eliminating redundant procedures, increasing transparency by simplifying the processes involved in the export sector, and moving away from quantitative restrictions, thereby improving the competitiveness of Indian industry and reducing the anti-export bias.

Steps were taken to promote exports through multilateral and bilateral initiatives. With the decline in restrictions on trade and investment, constraints related to infrastructure and regulatory bottlenecks became increasingly evident.

Instruments of Trade Policy for International Trade:


Various methods employed to regulate trade are known as instruments of trade policy, which include tariffs, non-tariff measures, and financial controls

(i) Tariffs:

These are official constraints on import or export of certain goods and services and are levied in the form of customs duties or tax on products moving across borders. However, tariffs are more commonly imposed on imports rather than exports. The tariff instruments may be classified as below.

On the basis of direction of trade: import vs. exports tariffs:

Tariffs may be imposed on the basis of direction of product movement, i.e., either on exports or imports. Generally, import tariffs or customs duties are more common than tariffs on exports However, countries sometimes resort to impose export tariffs to conserve their scarce resources. Such tariffs are generally imposed on raw materials or primary products rather than on manufactured or value-added goods.

On the basis of purpose: protective vs. revenue tariffs:

The tariffs imposed to protect the home industry, agriculture, and labour against foreign competitors is termed as protective tariffs which discourage foreign goods. Historically, India had very high tariffs so as to protect its domestic industry against foreign competition.

A tariff rate of 200 to 300 per cent, especially on electronic and other consumer goods

created formidable barriers for foreign products to enter the Indian market.

The government may impose tariffs to generate tax revenues from imports which are generally nominal. For instance, the UAE imposes 3-4 per cent tariffs on its imports which may not be termed as protective tariffs.

On the basis of time length: tariff surcharge vs. countervailing duty:

On the basis of the duration of imposition, tariffs may be classified either as surcharge or countervailing duty. Any surcharge on tariffs represents a short term action by the importing country while countervailing duties are more or less permanent in nature. The raison d’etre for imposition of countervailing duties is to offset the subsidies provided by the governments of the exporting countries.

On the basis of tariff rates: specific, ad-valorem, and combined:

Duties fixed as a specific amount per unit of weight or any other measures are known as specific duties. For instance, these duties are in terms of rupees or US dollars per kg weight or per meter or per liter of the product. The cost, insurance, and freight (c.i.f.) value, product cost, or prices are not taken into consideration while deciding specific duties.

Specific duties are considered to be discriminatory but effective in protection of cheap- value products because of their lower unit value.

Duties levied ‘on the basis of value’ are termed as ad-valorem duties. Such duties are levied as a fixed percentage of the dutiable value of imported products. In contrast to specific duties, it is the percentage of duty that is fixed. Duty collection increases or decreases on the basis of value of the product. Ad-valorem duties help protect against any price increase or decrease for an import product.

A combination of specific and ad-valorem duties on a single product is known as combined or compound duty. Under this method, both specific as well as ad-valorem rates are applied to an import product.

On the basis of production and distribution points:

These are as below:

Single stage sales tax:

Tax collected only at one point in the manufacturing and distribution chain is known as single stage sales tax. Single stage sales tax is generally not collected unless products are purchased by the final consumer.

Value added tax:

Value added tax (VAT) is a multi-stage non-cumulative tax on consumption levied at each stage of production, distribution system, and value addition. A tax has to be paid at each time the product passes from one hand to the other in the marketing channel.

However, the tax collected at each stage is based on the value addition made during the stage and not on the total value of the product till that point. VAT is collected by the seller in the marketing channel from a buyer, deducted from the VAT amount already paid by the seller on purchase of the product and remitting the balance to the government.

Since VAT applies to the products sold in domestic markets and imported goods, it is considered to be non-discriminatory. Besides, VAT also conforms to the WTO norms.

Cascade tax:

Taxes levied on the total value of the product at each point in manufacturing and distribution channel, including taxes borne by the product at earlier stages, are known as cascade taxes. India had a long regime of cascade taxes wherein the taxes were levied at a later stage of marketing channel over the taxes already borne by the product.

Such a taxation system adds to the cost of the product, making goods non-competitive in the market.

Excise tax:

Excise tax is a one-time tax levied on the sale of a specific product. Alcoholic beverages and cigarettes in most countries tend to attract more excise duty.

Turnover tax:

In order to compensate for similar taxes levied on domestic products, a turnover or equalization tax is imposed. Although the equalization or turnover tax hardly equalizes prices, its impact is uneven on domestic and imported products.

(ii) Non-Tariff Measures:

Contrary to tariffs, which are straightforward, non-tariff measures are non-transparent and obstruct trade on discriminatory basis. As the WTO regime calls for binding of tariffs wherein the member countries are not free to increase the tariffs at their will, non-tariff barriers in innovative forms are emerging as powerful tools to restrict imports on discriminatory basis. The major non-tariff policy instruments include.

Government participation in trade:

State trading, governments’ procurement policies, and providing consultations to foreign companies on a regular basis are often used as disguised protection of national interests and barrier to foreign firms. A subsidy is a financial contribution provided directly or indirectly by a government that confers a benefit.

Various forms of subsides include cash payment, rebate in interest rates, value added tax, corporate income tax, sales tax, insurance, freight and infrastructure, etc. As subsidies are discriminatory in nature, direct subsidies are not permitted under the WTO trade regime.

Customs and entry procedure:

Custom classification, valuation, documentation, various types of permits, inspection requirements, and health and safety regulations are often used to hinder free flow of trade and discriminate among the exporting countries. These constitute an important non-tariff barrier.

Quotas:

Quotas are the quantitative restrictions on exports/imports intended at protecting local industries and conserving foreign exchange. The various types of quotas include

Absolute quota:

These quotas are the most restrictive, limiting in absolute terms, the quantity imported during the quota period. Once the quantity of the import quota is fulfilled, no further imports are allowed.

Tariff quotas:

They allow import of specified quantity of quota products at reduced rate of duty. However, excess quantities over the quota can be imported subject to a higher rate of import duty. Using such a combination of quotas and tariffs facilitates some import, but at the same time discourages through higher tariffs, excessive quantities of imports.

Voluntary quotas:

Voluntary quotas are unilaterally imposed in the form of a formal arrangement between countries or between a country and an industry. Such agreements generally specify the import limit in terms of product, country, and volume.

The multi-fibre agreement (MFA) had been the largest voluntary quota arrangement wherein developed countries forced an agreement on economically weaker countries so as to provide artificial protection to their domestic industry.

However, with the integration of multi-fibre agreement with the WTO, the quota regime got scrapped by 1 January 2005. Summarily, all sorts of quotas have a restrictive effect on free flow of goods across countries.

Other trade restrictions:

Other trade restrictions include minimum export price (MEP), wherein the government may fix a minimum price for exports so as to safeguard the interests of domestic consumers. Presently, India’s trade policy does not impose any restriction of minimum export price.

(iii) Financial Controls:

Governments often impose a variety of financial restrictions to conserve the foreign currencies restricting their markets. Such restrictions include exchange control, multiple exchange rates, prior import deposit, credit restrictions, and restriction on repatriation of profits. India had long followed a stringent exchange control regime to conserve foreign currencies.

(iv) Demand vs Supply Side Policy Measures:

Policy instruments for promoting exports may also operate on the supply and demand side. Initiatives for creating and expanding export production, developing transportation networks, port facilities, tax and investment systems form parts of supply side policies.

The demand side initiatives for export promotion include programmes to alert companies to the opportunities present in international markets and to strengthen the commitment and skills of those already involved.

________________________________________

Policy Initiatives and Incentives by the State Governments for International Business:

State governments generally do not distinguish between production for domestic market and production for export market. Therefore, there had been few specific measures taken by state governments targeted at exporting units.

Though, state governments have taken a number of policy measures so as to encourage industrial activity in the state which mainly relate to:

i. Capital investment subsidy or subsidy for preparation of feasibility reports, project reports, etc.

ii. Waiver or deferment of sales tax or providing loans for sales tax purposes

iii. Exemption from entry tax, octroi, etc.

iv. Waiver of electricity duty

v. Power subsidy

vi. Exemption from taxes for certain captive power generation units

vii. Exemptions from stamp duties

viii. Provision of land at concessional rate

These concessions extended by state governments vary among policies of individual state governments and have broadly been based on the following criteria:

(a) Size of the unit proposed (cottage, small and medium industry)

(b) Backwardness of the districts or area

(c) Employment to weaker sections of society

(d) Significance of the sector, for example, software, agriculture

(e) Investment source, such as foreign direct investment (EDI) or investment by NRIs

(f) Health of the unit (sick), etc.

Therefore, it may be noted that most of the exemptions tend to encourage capital- or power-intensive units though some concessions are linked to turnover. Most of the concessions in the state industrial policies have been designed keeping in view the manufacturing industries.

An analysis of industrial policies of various states indicates that most state governments do compete among themselves in extending such concessions. On examination of export promotion initiatives by the state governments, it is difficult to find commonality among various states.

However, some of the common measures taken by the state governments are:

i. Attempting to provide information on export opportunities

ii. Preference in land allotment for starting an EOU

iii. Planning for development of Export Promotion Industrial Parks

iv. Exemption from entry-tax on supplies to EOU/EPZ/SEZ units

v. Exemption from sales tax or turnover tax for supplies to EOU/EPZ/SEZ units and inter-unit transfers between them.

________________________________________

WTO and India’s Export Promotion Measures for International Business:

The emergence of the rule-based multilateral trading system under the WTO trade regime has affected India’s trade policies and promotional efforts. It provides a rule based framework as to which subsidies are prohibited, which can face countervailing measures, and which are allowed. The impact of WTO agreements on trade policy and export promotion measures is examined here.

The framework of the GATT is based on four basic rules:

(i) Protection to Domestic Industry Through Tariffs:

Even though GATT stands for liberal trade, it recognizes that its member countries may have to protect domestic production against foreign competition. However, it requires countries to keep such protection at low levels and to provide it through tariffs. To ensure that this principle is followed in practice, the use of quantitative restrictions is prohibited, except in a limited number of situations.

(ii) Binding of Tariffs:

Countries are urged to reduce and, where possible, eliminate protection to domestic production by reducing tariffs and removing other barriers to trade in multilateral trade negotiations. The tariffs so reduced are bound against further increase by being listed in each country’s national schedule. The schedules are integral part of the GATT legal system.

(iii) Most-Favoured-Nation Treatment:

This important rule of GATT lays down the principle of non-discrimination. The rule requires that tariffs and other regulations should be applied to imported or exported goods without discrimination among countries. Thus it is not open to a country to levy customs duties on imports from one country, at a rate higher than it applies to imports from other countries. There are, however, some exceptions to the rule.

Trade among members of regional trading arrangements, which are subject to preferential or duty-free rates, is one such exception. Another is provided by the Generalized System of Preferences; under this system, developed countries apply preferential or duty-free rates to imports from developing countries, but apply MFN rates to imports from other countries.

(iv) National Treatment Rule:

While the MFN rule prohibits countries from discriminating among goods originating in different countries, the national treatment rule prohibits them from discriminating between imported products and equivalent domestically produced products, both in the matter of the levy of internal taxes and in the application of internal regulations.

Thus it is not open to a country, after a product has entered its markets on payment of customs duties, to levy an internal tax (for example, sales tax or VAT) at rates higher than those payable on a product of national or domestic origin.

The four basic rules are complemented by rules of general application, governing goods entering the customs territory of an importing country.

These include rules which countries must follow:

i. In determining the dutiable value of imported goods where customs duties are collected on an ad-valorem basis

ii. In applying mandatory product standards, and sanitary and phytosanitary regulations to imported products

iii. In issuing authorizations for imports

In addition to the rules of general application described above, the GATT multilateral system has rules governing:

i. The grant of subsidies by governments

ii. Measures which governments are ordinarily permitted to take if requested by industry

iii. Investment measures that could have adverse effects on tirade

The rules further stipulate that certain types of measures which could have restrictive effects on imports can ordinarily be imposed by governments of importing countries only if the domestic industry which is affected by increased import petitions that such actions be taken.

These include:

i. Safeguard actions

ii. Levy of anti-dumping and countervailing duties

Under safeguard action the importing country is allowed to restrict imports of a product for a temporary period by either increasing tariffs or imposing quantitative restrictions. However, the safeguard measures can only be taken after it is established through proper investigation that increased imports are causing serious injury to the domestic industry.

The anti-dumping duties can be imposed if the investigation establishes that the goods are ‘dumped’.

The agreement stipulates that a product should be treated as being ‘dumped’ where its export price is less than the price at which it is offered for sale in the domestic market of the exporting country, whereas the countervailing duties can be levied in cases where the foreign company has charged low export price because its product has been subsidized by the government.

The WTO’s Trade Policy Review Mechanism:

In order to enhance transparency of members’ trade policies and facilitate smooth functioning of the multilateral trading system, the WTO members established the Trade Policy Review Mechanism (TPRM) to review trade policies of member countries at regular intervals.

Under annexure 3 of the Marrakesh Agreement, the four members with largest shares of world trade (i.e., European communities, the US, Japan, and China) are to be reviewed every two years, the next sixteen to be reviewed every four years, and the others be reviewed every six years. For the least developed countries a longer period may be fixed.

Reviews are conducted by the Trade Policy Review (TPR) Body on the basis of a policy statement by the member under review and a report prepared by staff in the WTO Secretariat’s TPR Division. Although the secretariat seeks cooperation of the members in preparing the report, it has the sole responsibility for the facts presented and the views expressed.

The TPR reports contain detailed reports examining the trade policies and practices of the member and describing policy-making institutions and the macroeconomic situation. The member’s subsidies contained in the TPR is of particular interest for the purpose of the report.

Information on subsidies distinguished in the subsidies and countervailing measures (SCM) can be found in the following three parts of the TPR report:

i. Measures directly affecting exports

ii. Trade policies and practices by sector

iii. Government incentives or subsidies that do not directly target imports and exports but nevertheless have an impact on trade flows

The contents of the report are mainly driven by the member’s main policy changes and constraints rather than subsidy-related issues and problems. Besides, the coverage of the report is determined to a large extent by the availability of data.

As a result, the amount of information contained in the reports varies from member to member. The TPR reports normally do not attempt to assess the effects of the subsidies on trade.

Due to limited availability of detailed information, in many cases, it is difficult to identify the extent to which a benefit is actually being conferred or the identity of the recipient of the subsidy.

Despite the shortcomings, especially with respect to cross-country comparability, the TPR report constitutes one of the few sources that systematically collects and compiles information on subsidies for a broad range of countries and economic activities.


Tuesday, 25 December 2018

Micro finance recollected

Q1.C.rungrajan committee on microfinance

Q2. Breath length and depth meaning.

Q3. Difference between poverty lending approach and financial system approach.

Q4. Microfinance focus on poorest of the poor.

Q5. Nabard and it's role.

Q6. Nationalization of banks and it's purpose.

Q7.IRDP programm substitute the SJGSY program.

Q8.what is facilitater and it's role.

Q9.what is GRT group recognition test and it's purpose.

Q10.one question on Money lenders.

Q11.break even analysis and CPV analysis 3 questions.

Q12.what is microcredit.

Q13.what is microfinance.

Q14. What is sustainability.

Q15 what is BRI bank Ryat Indonesia.

Q16 .what is unit diseas.

Q17.chikola group of Kenya is example of which model.

Q18.Difference between SHG and JLG model

Q19 detailed question on grameen bank model.

 Q20. What is SHG bank linkage model...

Q22. Assumptions of grameen bank model of Bangladesh.

 Q23.diffrence between direct cost indirectcost setupcost and cost of fund.

Q24 .capital=assets-liability.

Q25.for NBFC model minimum networth requires rs.5 crore.

Q26.malegam committee and its recommendation.

Q27.qualifying assets and its significance

Q28.what is most accepted and widely usedmodel of microfinance in india.

 Q29.what is ghostborrower or multiple lending.

Q30.details of BC model.

Q31.what is reckless lending.

Q32. Details of SHG2 model part2.

 Q33. What is refinancing.

Q34. National rural livelihood mission.

 Q35 .Swarn jayanti gramin Swarojgar yojna

Q 36.what is mutual fund.

 Q37. What is merchant banking.

Q38.details of Revolving Fund.

 Q39. Financial inclusion definition and scope.

Q40. What is kyc and it's purpose

Q41 .Illiterate person can open which type of exam.

Q42 .Difference between impact accessment and social performance.

Q43.what is social rating

Q44. What is minimalist and integrated approach.

Q45.what is micro Insurance.

 Q46. Role of SEBI.

 Q47.role of IRDA.

 Q48. What is cash flow statement

.Q49. What is flat rate of interest.

 Q50. What is travel expanses.

 Q51.what is operating expense Ratio.

 Q52. What is asset depricitation.

 Q53 what is accounting stanard 2

. Q54. What is average case load.

Q55. What is Target group.

Q56. What is PAR.

Q57. What is market risk.

Q58. What is bank rate.

Q59.what is reprising risk.

 Q60. What is riskmanagement loop

Q61 what is schedule and nonshedule bank.

Q62. What is human risk.

 Q63.what is operational risk.

Q64.what is merchant banker.

 Q65. What is trading in stock exchange.

 Q66.two questions on mutual fund.

Q67.three question on Break Even Analysis.

Q68. What is regulatory risk.

 Q 69.what is Repayment rate.

 Q70.trust and Trust feed and what NBFC banking Model and what is business Correspondent model (BC Model)...... these All are 70 Recollected Questions of microfinance held on 15 july 2018. best of luck to All


Credit thrust

Credit Thrust: It means the main focus area for a bank or a specific branch should

give. If a branch is in rural, thrust should be on agri sector loans, and so on. This gives

an opportunity for a bank/branch to gather maximum profit with minimum staff, as the

customer is ready. Precaution: While disbursement, the financials and history to be

checked to prevent NPA in future.

Credit Priorities are Same as Credit thrust.

Credit Acquisitions: It means sanctioning the loans to customers by closing their

loans with other banks. In short, acquiring other bank‘s customers for business growth.

Points to remember:

1 Whether the loan in other bank is in standard condition

2 Why is the other bank ready to let go the loan

3 Credit history of the borrower

4 Adequate collateral

Statutory & Regulatory restrictions on Advances :

No banking company shall-

(a) grant any loans or advances on the security of its own shares, or

(b) enter into any commitment for granting any loan or advance to or on behalf

of-

(i) any of its Directors,

(ii) any firm in which any of its Directors is interested as Partner, Manager,

Employee or Guarantor, or

(iii) any company(proprietor/partner/pvt ltd/public) in which any of the

Directors of the banking company is a Director, Managing Agent,

Manager, Employee or Guarantor or in which he holds substantial

interest, or

(iv) any individual in respect of whom any of its Directors is a partner or

guarantor.

Restrictions on Grant of Loans & Advances to Officers and Relatives of Senior

Officers of Banks

The following guidelines should be followed by all the banks with reference to the

extension of credit facilities to officers and the relatives of senior officers:

(i) Loans & advances to officers of the bank

No officer or any Committee comprising, inter alia, an officer as member, shall, while

exercising powers of sanction of any credit facility, sanction any credit facility to his/her

relative. Such a facility shall ordinarily be sanctioned only by the next higher sanctioning

authority. Credit facilities sanctioned to senior officers of the financing bank should be

reported to the Board.

(ii) Loans and advances and award of contracts to relatives of senior officers of the bank

Proposals for credit facilities to the relatives of senior officers of the bank sanctioned by

the appropriate authority should be reported to the Board.

Credit Appraisal :



CREDIT RISK ASSESSMENT (CRA)

The CRA models adopted by the Bank take into account all possible factors into

appraising the risks, associated with a loan.

These have been categorized broadly into financial, business, industrial & management

risks are rated separately.





These factors duly weighted are aggregated to arrive at a credit decision whether loan

should be given or not

Validation of proposal:

It is done considering 5 key factors below:

1. CIBIL Score and Report: It is one of the most important factor that affects your

loan approval. A good credit score and report is a positive indicator of your credit

health.

2. Employment Status: Apart from a good credit history, banks also check for

your steady income and employment status.

3. Account Details: Suit filed or written off cases are carefully examined by banks.

4. Payment History: Banks check for any default on payments or amount overdue

cases, which might project a negative overview of your overall report.

5. EMI to Income Ratio: Banks also consider the proportion of your existing loans

when compared to your salary at the time of loan application. Your chances of loan

approval gets reduced if your total EMI‘s exceed your monthly salary by 50%.

Apart from your CIBIL Score, loan eligibility criteria differs from bank to bank and across

loan types. However, some of the basic requirements in terms of documentation are:

 Identity Proof: Aadhar Card, Valid Passport, Driving License, Voters ID or PAN

Card

 Address Proof: Aadhar Card, Valid Passport, Driving License, Voters ID or Utility

Bills

 Proof of Employment: Salary slip, Official ID card or letter from company

 Income Proof: Latest 3 months Bank Statement, salary slip for last 3 months

 3 Passport size photographs





Dimensions of Credit Appraisals

Six ―C‖ s

1. Character



You are considered to have good credit character when you live up to your

financial and credit agreements. Paying bills on time and meeting financial

obligations are signs of good character.

Your credit score and your credit history are good ways for a bank to learn about

your character or credit reputation and how well you pay your credit obligations.

2. Capacity

Capacity reflects your ability to repay a loan or other financial agreement.

Potential creditors want to see that you‘ll have enough cash left over after paying

your fixed monthly expenses to repay a new credit or loan account.

3. Capital

A potential bank also will assess your capital. Wondering if you have any?

Subtract all your debts from your assets, including any property that you may own,

and this is your capital. Banks and creditors like to see that you have enough

capital to handle another loan or credit account before approving you for new

credit.

4. Conditions

Banks look at conditions such as the stability of your employment, your other

debts and financial obligations, and how often you‘ve moved in the past year when

considering whether to approve you for a loan. The longer you‘ve been in a job

and the less frequently you‘ve moved the more stable your life conditions appear

to potential creditors and banks.

5. Collateral

Collateral is any property or possession that can be used as security for a

payment of a debt. For example, a home or automobile serve as collateral against

the loans you might take out to purchase them. Banks like collateral because it

guarantees them against a total loss if you fail to repay your loan. If that happens,

your collateral may be sold or repossessed to repay your financial obligation.

6. Cash Flow

adequate cash flow to repay a new loan.

Income in each month

Are you paid regularly, or does your income fluctuate based on seasonality or

other factors?

A Bank wants to make sure you have enough cash flowing your way on a regular

basis so that you can pay for a new credit obligation.

Basic principles of Information security

Basic Principles of Information Security:



For over twenty years, information security has held confidentiality, integrity and availability (known as the CIA triad) to be the core principles. There is continuous debate about extending this classic trio. Other principles such as Authenticity, Non-repudiation and accountability are also now becoming key considerations for practical security installations.



 Confidentiality: Confidentiality is the term used to prevent the disclosure of information to unauthorized individuals or systems. For example, a credit card transaction on the Internet requires the credit card number to be transmitted from the buyer to the merchant and from the merchant to a transaction processing network. The system attempts to enforce confidentiality by encrypting the card number during transmission, by limiting the places where it might appear (in databases, log files, backups, printed receipts, and so on), and by restricting access to the places where it is stored. If an unauthorized party obtains the card number in any way, a breach of confidentiality has occurred. Breaches of confidentiality take many forms like Hacking, Phishing, Vishing, Email-spoofing, SMS spoofing, and sending malicious code through email or Bot Networks, as discussed earlier.



 Integrity: In information security, integrity means that data cannot be modified without authorization. This is not the same thing as referential integrity in databases.

Integrity is violated when an employee accidentally or with malicious intent deletes important data files, when he/she is able to modify his own salary in a payroll database, when an employee uses programmes and deducts small amounts of money from all customer accounts and adds it to his/her own account (also called salami technique), when an unauthorized user vandalizes a web site, and so on.



On a larger scale, if an automated process is not written and tested correctly, bulk updates to a database could alter data in an incorrect way, leaving the integrity of the data compromised. Information security professionals are tasked with finding ways to implement controls that prevent errors of integrity.



 Availability: For any information system to serve its purpose, the information must be available when it is needed. This means that the computing systems used to store and process the information, the security controls used to protect it, and the communication channels used to access it must be functioning correctly. High availability systems aim to remain available at all times, preventing service disruptions due to power outages, hardware failures, and system upgrades. Ensuring availability also involves preventing denial-of-service (DoS) and distributed denial-of service (DDoS) attacks.



 Authenticity: In computing, e-business and information security it is necessary to ensure that the data, transactions, communications or documents (electronic or physical) are genuine. It is also important for authenticity to validate that both parties involved are who they claim they are.



 Non-repudiation: In law, non-repudiation implies one's intention to fulfill one’s obligations under a contract / transaction. It also implies that a party to a transaction cannot deny having received or having sent an electronic record. Electronic commerce uses technology such as digital signatures and encryption to establish authenticity and non-repudiation.



In addition to the above, there are other security-related concepts and principles when designing a security policy and deploying a security solution. They include identification, authorization, accountability, and auditing.



 Identification: Identification is the process by which a subject professes an identity and accountability is initiated. A subject must provide an identity to a system to start the process of authentication, authorization and accountability. Providing an identity can be typing in a username, swiping a smart card, waving a proximity device, speaking a phrase, or positioning face, hand, or finger for a camera or scanning device. Proving a process ID number also represents the identification process. Without an identity, a system has no way to correlate an authentication factor with the subject.



 Authorization: Once a subject is authenticated, access must be authorized. The process of authorization ensures that the requested activity or access to an object is possible given the rights and privileges assigned to the authenticated identity. In most cases, the system evaluates an access control matrix that compares the subject, the object, and the intended activity. If the specific action is allowed, the subject is authorized. Else, the subject is not authorized.



 Accountability and auditability: An organization’s security policy can be properly enforced only if accountability is maintained, i.e., security can be maintained only if subjects are held accountable for their actions. Effective accountability relies upon the capability to prove a subject’s identity and track their activities. Accountability is established by linking a human to the activities of an online identity through the



security services and mechanisms of auditing, authorization, authentication, and identification. Thus, human accountability is ultimately dependent on the strength of the authentication process. Without a reasonably strong authentication process, there is doubt that the correct human associated with a specific user account was the actual entity controlling that user account when an undesired action took place.


Iibfadda.blogspot.com 

Monday, 24 December 2018

Cyber fraud and management:: prevention



Cyber fraud and management:: preventions
1. Who Coordinates with Interpol in India ? - CBI
2. Which department was designated as Nodal Agency for Cyber Crime prevention - CERT-IN
3. What is the difference between Virus and Worm - Virus need human intervention to activate or multiply whereas worm automatically get multiplied
4. Worms are mainly used by hackers to - Occupy more space in the system/heavy usage of bandwidth in the network
5. One of the employee carefully watching the password entered by the Manager. What type of threat it is - Shoulder Surfing
6. Leaving a Logged in Computer by an employee - is human negligence
7. Hackers scans the computer pre attack to identify - Vulnerability in the system
8. Hackers inject worms/virus into the network to reach the target system and it - exploits the Vulnerability
9. Non updation of antivirus is - one of the major vunerability
10. One customer recieved a call in his mobile phone and the person posing himself as a bank manager collected the card credentials from him.This type is called - Phising
11. Online Banking sites are borne to what risk - Phising/IP spoofing
12. Data transfer between systems vide Network can be secured by - PKI
13. Customers can make sure that they deal with the authenticated website - by checking the Lock icon near the address bar
14.In https, S denotes - Secured/Security
15.This kind of worms directly attacks the root directory - Rootkits
16. This worms are really hard to detuct and delete - Rootkits
17. The compromised systems in the network are commonly termes as - Zombies
18. Customer security credentials were compromised by way of fraudulent SMS is called - smishing
19. The employees who try to hack their own company's site/find the vulnerabilities are called - White hat hackers
20.DDos - Distributed Denial of Service
21.Ransomware which blocks the access to the website demanding ransom for the same is - Denial of Service attack
22. Using same method for both encryption and decryption is called - symmetric encryption
23. Providing Last Login detail in Internet banking site is to - to detect any unauthorised usage earlier
24.Limits for retrying the passwords is - to avoid the unauthorised access
25. To safeguard from the Key Loggers attack - Use Virtual Key board to enter passwords
26.UTM stands for - Unified Threat Management
27.Setting up smoke detectors in the branch is - Detective Method
28.Placing Security guard in system room to avoid - Physical damage/attack on systems
29. Following the authorised person to enter into system room and making entry into the room is - Tailgatting
30.Dumbster Driving is a method - Searching for vulnerability in deleted files and data
31.FIrewall is - Intrusion Detection System
32.Authentication of electronic data/document can be assertained by - Digital Signature
33. When two or more persons illegally tries to enter into a critical room with single id/same id - Masquerading
34.Detection is normally - Post incedent
35. Post incident study mainly for the purpose of - study the impact of the attack and lessons for future prevention
36. Indian Agency working on Digital Forensics and Cyber security - C-DAC
37. OLTP refers to - On line Transaction Processing
38. OLTP is also termed as - Payment Gateway
39. Payment Gateway the Acquiring Bank to - Issuing bank through the Card Scheme to complete the transaction
40.Security Concerns arise in Payment Gateways are - At the User Level, Bank level and Merchant POS
41. Credit Card data theft through POS is falls under - Merchant PoS Security 
42.Data encrypted using Private key can be decrypted by the public key available with - the Receiver
43. Cross verifying the Signature on the Slip against the Signature in the back side of the ATM card is doen by - the Merchant
44.Data should be secured in the following stages - Saved, Transit and Retrival
45.Intruder software in a network which attacks the data while in trnasit and thus commits data theft - Man in the Middle Attack
46. Captures a widows sessio for the purpose of data theft before it reaches the recipient is - Session Hijacking
47. Limits set for retrying of password is to avoid - Brute Force attack
48. ISSP stands for - Information System Security Policy
49.ICANN stands for - International Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers
50.TLD stands for - Top Level Domain
51.Globally recognized set of rules defined for electronic records is - e-UCP
52.Technique used to redirect traffic from the infected device is called - Sinkholding
53. The technique which can intercept unencrypted data transit of mobile apps is called - Wi FI Snifing
54. This is one type of malware which doesnot affect the system/network - Ad-ware
55. This usually comes as a Pop up/add on screen which carries link for dubious websites - Ad-ware
56.EMV cards follow standard of - ISO/IEC No 7816
57. EMV cards follow this standard for Contactless card - ISO/IEC 14443
58. NFC is the technique used in contactless cards - Near Field Communication
59.PCI - DSS stands for - Plastic Card Industries - Data Security Standards
60. NFC cards works under - RFID Technology
61. Providing Access controls to employess based on roles/need is - Risk based Authentication
62. Seeking PIN to complete a transaction in PoS is - 2FA
63.SSL - Secure Socket Layering
64.SSL ensures - Encrypted link between a web server and a browser
65. Sending annoying messages to a person causing irritation/nuisance - Cyber Stalking
66. Black mailing a person using Computer/or network is - Cyber Extortion
67. Ransomware is type of - Cyber Extortion
68. Disputes on Domain names and protest are redressed globally by - UDRP
69. Phising/Vishing is type of - Cyber Cheating
70. Group of people attacks a Computer/ group of computers for propagating a objective - Cyber Terrorists
71. Hackers with common interest attack rival government's department site and database are - Cyber terrorists
72. ____ refers to the quality of secrecy associated with the data and the state of keeping an information asset secret - Confidentiality
73.____ refers to the state of remaining in the same format and not allowing for any tampering/manipulation - Integrity
74. ____ refers to the state o confirmation that the user has the authority to issue the command to the system - Authorisation
75. Quality of non denial, the stake holders are not permitted to denythe particular act of doing the act is - Non-repudiation
76. CAPTCHA refers to - Completely Automated Public Turing test to Tell Computers and Humans Apart
77. Placing letters in different sizes and styles which is hard to read by systems/robots is called - CAPTCHA
78. _______ is an important component for study and analysis to under the modus operandi of a Cyber Attack - Threat Vector
79. In cyber Crime, Threat landscape is denoted as - Study of entire overview of the network which was attacked
80. Conventional Crimes are - Physical crimes that involve thet of systems and hardware devices
81.Cyber Crimes are - System Crimes that involves data theft or tampering
82.Insider Attack Threat is - attack on the system/network by own employee without any permission/authentication
83.______ is the most dangerous attack in cyber crimes - Insider Attack
84. An employee copied and sold the sensitive information to a competitor concern is an example of - Insider Attack
85. Hackers scan the port/system and develop worm or codes to attack the same based on this - Vulnerability
86. ____ doesnot wait for any executable file to run for getting activated in the target system - Worm
87.____ refers to small piece of programs injected into the target system to spy on the activities - Spyware
88. Drones are classified as - Spying Devices
89. UAV stands for - Unmanned Aerial Vehicle
90. Most of the UAV used by the polic/defence authorities for - Survelliance purposes
91.The persons who are hired by companies to hack their own website/to identify the Vulnerability are - Blue Hat Hackers
92. System of effectively taking care of URL filterig, web-filtering, anti-virus, as all in one solution is referred as - Unified Threat Management
93. Force Log out option in Internet banking after certain time of Idleness is to guard the system against - Session Hijacking
94. Installing anti virus into the system is - Preventive Method
95.A statement used to create, alter, drop objects in a database is called - Data Definition Language
96. Fault Detection, isolation nad recovery are closely associated wiht - Detection Control
97. Installing Bio Metric devices to check unauthorised entry is - Physical Control
98. Unless properly logged, straightaway accessing the database through a SQL is termed as - Back end Access
99.IT Act 2008 describes the activity of hacking as a criminal activity in section no 66
100. IT Act 2000 came in force on - 17 October 2000
101. IT Amendment Act came into force on - 27 October 2009
101. IT Act consists of - 13 Chapters and 90 Sections
102. The Section which deals with cyber crimes as civil offence - Section 43
103. The Section deals with cyber crimes as Criminal Offences - Section 66
104. IT Amendment Act included the following which is not in the IT Act 2000 - Electronic Signature
105. Electronic Signature has been dealt in - Section 15
106. Under Section 43A, if any body corporate handling any sensitive personal data is negligent in implementing and maintaining reasonable security the compensation may go upto - five crore rupees
107. Under Section 43, if one found guilty on Data theft/alters/destroys the same the penalty/compensation may go upto - One Crore rupees
108. Tampering with Computer Source Documents - Section 65
109. Punishment under Section 65 may go upto - Three years imprisonment and extend upto Two Lakhs Fine
110. Computer Related offences which were dealt under section 43 can also be dealt as criminal offence under section - 66
111. Punishment under Section 66 may go upto - two three years and/or fine upto five lakhs rupees
112. Crime of Cyber Stalking ( sending electronic messages for the purpose of causing annoyance/inconvenience/decieve/mislead the recipient) may lead to - two three years imprisonment
113. Identity Theft is dealt under Section - 66c
114. Punishment of Identity Theft - may extend to three years term and/or fine upto One lakhs rupees
115. Puishment for Cyber Cheating - may extend to three years term and/or fine upto One lakhs rupees
116. Cyber Cheating is dealt under - Section 66D
117. Punishment for Cyber Terrorism may extend upto - Life time Imprisonment
118. Cyber Terrorism is dealt under - Section 66F
119. Publishing obscene material in electronic form dealt under - Section 67
120. Punishment under Section 67 may extend upto - two three years term and/or five lakhs fine
121. Punishment for Sudsequent conviction of the same crime under section 67 is - 5 years term and/or ten lakhs rupees fine
122. Sexually explicit content in electronic form dealt under - Section 67A
123. Punishment under Section 67A is - Five years term with fine
124.Punishment for Sudsequent conviction of the same crime under section 67A is - 7 years term and/or ten lakhs rupees fine
125. CERT-IN has been designated as Nodal agency for Critical Information Infrastructure Protection under Section - 70B
126. Mispresentation/Suppression of material Fact dealt under - Section 71
127. Penalty under Section 71 - Two years term and/or fine upto One lakh rupees
128. Breach of confidentiality and Privacy dealt under Section - 72
129. Analysing the style of writing or the langauage style for the purpose of Crime Investigation is - Stylometry
130. RBI issues licenses for Payment Banks in India based on approval from - BPSS
131. NTRO stands for - National Technical Research Organisation
132. Netra, the light weight UAV was developed by - DRDO
133.NCIIPC stands for - National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre
134. DSCI - Data Security Council of India
135. Digital Forensic tools used by our Police Department were developed by - C-DAC
136. C-DAC stands for - Centre for Development of ADvanced Computig
137. NTRO works under - Prime Minister's Office
138. Two acts which are mainly handled by ED - FEMA and PMLA
139. Money laundering using banking systems/Internet banking is - Conventional Crime
140. Obtaining an IP address similar to some other and demanding a ransom for forego the same is - Cyber Squatting
141. Data Protection while in transit using non repudiation techniques can be achieved through - Public Key Infrastructure
142. Card Skimming is a technique mostly used th steal the card details and it mostly placed on - ATM manchines
143. Card Skimming Data Theft can be avoided using - Contactless Cards/NFC Cards
144. To avoid the Card Credentials in Online sites these cards were introduced - Virtual Cards
145. Smart Cards which are loaded with Money prior to issue is called - Prepaid Cards
146. Virtual Cards normally comes with a validity of - 24 hours to 48 hours
147. Maximum loading permitted in a Prepaid as per RBI instruction is - 50000/-
148. Hackers try to capture the login credentials by analysing the keys pressed in the Key boards. the worms captures such data is called as - Key Loggers
149. By clicking unauthenticated link, customers may diverted to fake websites to capture the sensitive personal. This is type of - Website spoofing/IP Spoofing
150. Ad wares are used not to harm the computers but to - make a catch by making the user to click on the dubious link to fake websites
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BCSBI recollected question and Exam Tips:;



BCSBI recollected question and Exam Tips:;

Very basic questions from IIBF prescribed book
Kindly visit BCSBI site for Latest Update’s
QUESTIONS ASKED IN TODAYS BCSBI.. ( based on memory) PART 2
1. Case studies based on nominee
2. two nominees applicable in which clause.. E OR S.. or F OR S
3.BSCBI is compulsry for banks to follow or not
4. educational. loan for 25 lakhs with 10 percnt margin... how much you insist for collateral
5. same. partners for different companies... wthr right of sett off can be applied or not for one of the firms debts
6. questions on HUF KARTA
7.BANKS CHALLENGE IN IMPLEMENTING DIGITAL TECHNOLOGY
8.banks time for calling customers over phone
9. mobile phone ettiquete
10.norms.for customers to approach BCSBI for guidance for geting loan.. a the limit of the loan
11.questions on customer orientation
12. under which sectn of NI act cheques has to be paid by the bank.... to be continued


1. Customer is defined in 
a. RBI Act b. NI Act c. BR Act d. KYC Policy 
2. Partnership firms M/s ABC and M/s CBA has same three partners. Account of M/s ABC is overdrawn by Rs. 75,000 and the other firm’s account has Rs. 90,000 as credit balance. Can bank use the right of set off? (2 marks) 
a. Can use as same partners b. Cannot set off as two different firms 
Don’t remember the other options
3. In which of these circumstances bank should not disclose customer details?
a. Request under Banker’s Books Evidence Act 1891
b. Under Section 133 of Income Tax Act
c. When asked by State /Central Govt official
d. In public interest 
4. A non-customer deposits Rs. 3000 to be credited to the account of Mr. Z in another station by NEFT. He had wrongly mentioned the account number and the amount is now in Bank’s suspense Account. What is the relationship between bank and Z?
a. Debtor-Creditor
b. Trustee etc 
5. A document duly stamped and given by a customer authorising another person to act on his behalf 
a. Power of attorney 
b. Mandate 
6. Incorrect statement about HUF 
a. Lady member can perform the role of Karta 
b. Karta and coparceners may possess self-acquired properties other than HUF property and these can be attached for HUF dues
c. On death of a coparcener, his share may be handed over to his wife, daughters and other female relatives 
7. Two of three trustees approach bank to open an account and allow the two of them to operate as the third trustee is abroad. As per trust deed, trust is to be jointly operated by three of them 
a. Get power of attorney from third trustee 
b. Account cannot be opened since trust deed mandates operation by three trustees.
8. Borrowing powers of the Board of Directors in a company are mentioned in which document?
a. Articles of Association
b. Memorandum of association
c. Certificate of Incorporation
d. Board resolution
9. In case of fixed deposit, interest can be charged as 
a. Daily basis on customer request 
b. Applied monthly or bimonthly as required provided that compounded amount does not exceed the amount to be paid quarterly 
c. Any periodicity requested by customer
d. Only at the end of maturity 
10. FCNR accounts can be opened in ---------------- and for a period of --------
a. Any freely convertible currency with period of 5 years
b. Any freely convertible currency with period of 3 years
11. Full form of DICGC 
12. Amount eligible to be transferred to DEAF
a. Any amount unclaimed in deposit account for a period of 10 years or more
b. Any amount remaining unclaimed in any account for a period of 10 years
c. Both a and b 
d. Any amount unclaimed for a period of two years or more 
13. In order to meet implied needs of a customer, ------------- is required from banker
a. Creativity and presence of mind
14. Good delivery constitutes which all elements ? 
a. Speed, timeliness , accuracy, courtesy and concern 
15. Transaction cap of mobile banking for purchase of goods and services 
a. As per each bank’s rule 
16. Mobile banking can be provided through 
a. Mobile banking App
b. USSD
c. SIM Kit
d. SMS service 
17. An asset can be classified as NPA when 
a. Interest or Principal is overdue for 90 days or more 
b. When CC Account is out of order for 180 days
c. When bill of exchange not honoured for 120 days etc 
18. Maximum amount that can be granted under Skill Loan Scheme?
1.5 lakhs
19. In order to set up extension counter in a hospital in a Tier I city, bank needs to take approval from 
a. RBI
b. No permission required 
c. Ministry of Finance etc 
20. Demat account can be used to hold 
a. Shares
b. Mutual funds 
c. Debentures
d. All of these 
21. Demat account cannot be use to hold 
a. Deposit to be handed over to broker
b. Exchange traded funds
c. Mutual funds etc 
22. Other negotiable instruments 
a. Interest warrant 
b. Bankers draft etc 
23. Which section of NI Act says that Bank should honour customer’s cheques?
a. Section 31 
24. Not a characteristic of negotiable instruments.
a. in writing
b. date of payment must be certain
c. Transferrable
d. Duly stamped
25. Which one of the following is not a structural difference between marketing of goods and services?
a. Intangibility
b. inseparability
c. Homogeneity
d. perishability
26. Marketing Mix does not contain
a. Product
b. Price
c. Place and promotion
d. Image of the organisation
27. Which one of the following are not permitted to carry out regular transactions for customers?
a. Business correspondents 
b. Business facilitators.
28. Which one of the following is not a difference in marketing goods and services?
a. Services are produced and consumed simultaneously
b. Services are intangible
c. Services provided are uniform
29. Constraints in digital banking 
a. Embracing of new technology
b. Customer education
c. Safe and friendly environment 
Choices are combinations of above
30. Biometric authentication in micro ATMS done by 
a. Business Correspondents
b. UIDAI by biometric association with its database
31. In mobile banking for debit transactions following checks are made
a. Face to face interaction with users 
b. Two factor authentication
c. End to end encryption of mPIN
Choices are combinations of above 
32. Estimates committee has made recommendation that succession certificate should not be insisted where amount of credit to the depositor does not exceed Rs. 25,000. What is the correct instruction?
a. If nomination/Survivor clause is present then succession certificate should not be insisted for any amount. 
33. Account opened with Anyone or survivor clause, all three of the account holders die together in an accident, the nominee has produced the death certificate and amount outstanding in account is Rs. 20,000. Action to be taken by bank
a. Ask nominee to provide Succession certificate 
b. Ask nominee to provide letter of administration
c. Probate to be given
d. Transfer the money without asking for documents (a) to (c).
34. As per Goiporia committee, Enquiry or May I Help You counter should be present in 
a. Head Office
b. Regional Office
c. All Urban and Metro branches
d. All branches except very small branches 
35. ---------------is a matrix of different components like source of funds, level of income, volume and frequency of transactions, origin and destination of funds etc. 
a. Transaction profile
b. Organisation Profile
c. Marketing Profile etc 
36. Main grievances of small depositors does not include
a. Difficulty in opening of account 
b. Delay in updating of passbook
c. Difficulty in closing of account
d. Account being classified as dormant/inoperative without any notice. 
37. What is meant by Grievance Escalation System?
If the customer is not satisfied with the reply offered by bank, then he can approach higher authorities for redressal of grievances
38. If branch manager is not able to respond to a complaint within how many days should he escalate the matter to regional office?
7 days 
39. In order to reduce the complaints filed to Banking Ombudman, what is suggested?
Appointment of internal Ombudsman
40. What all functions does not fall under customer service committee of the board?
a. Triennial audit of customer satisfaction surveys
b. Formulation of Comprehensive Deposit Policy 
c. Annual Survey of customer satisfaction
d. Salary increase to employees for better customer service
41. Which of the following is not part of mandatory displays in branches?
a. Information available in booklet form
b. Details of CEO of the bank
c. Banking Ombudsman details
d. Details of Regional Manager etc
42. What does not come under COPRA Act?
a. Right against unfair trade practices
b. Right to have access to variety of goods
c. Right to free education
43. Which of the following needs are most important for a person?
a. Emotional needs
b. Interpersonal needs etc 
44. Which are the three interpersonal needs?
a. Need for inclusion, Need for control and Need for affection
45. What is meant by encoding of message ?
Sender needs to use the appropriate language or expression
46. Correct order for communication.
a. Conceiving the message, Encoding the message, decoding the message and providing feedback
47. Which of the following about BCSBI is wrong?
a. Membership in BCSBI is compulsory
b. Membership is voluntary 
c. Its an independent and autonomous body
d. Registered as society
48. Who has authority to approve research activities in BCSBI?
Governing Council
49. Function of Chief Executive Officer in BCSBI 
a. Preparation of annual budget for submission to the Society
b. Sanction expenditure and investments of BCSBI
c. Financial and managerial powers etc
50. Who is the raison d’etre (main purpose) of BCSBI ?
a. RBI 
b. common man
c. Customer service 
51. BCSBI modelled on basis of which country?
UK
52. BCSBI rating of member banks is using a scoring scale of 
a. High, Above average, average and below average
53. In order to get credit counselling from BCSBI which is correct 
a. A fee has to be paid
b. Can apply only through member banks 
c. Concerned bank is free to accept the debt restructuring plan in full or with modifications
54. Customer of a bank not a part of BCSBI can escalate complaint to 
a. BCSBI
b. Banking Ombudsman
c. Customer Service Department of RBI
55. Which of the following not included under Code of Bank’s Commitment to Customers?
a. Deposit accounts
b. Remittances within India
c. Foreign Exchange services
d. Merchant banking
56. BCSBI puts following obligations on the customers?
a. No obligations
b. Obligation of customers varies from bank to bank 
57. Objectives of Code of Bank’s commitments to customers?
a. Fair treatment of customers
b. Increase transparency
c. foster confidence in banking system
Choices are combinations of three 
58. As per BCSBI Code regarding Do Not Call registry (Correct One)
a. Bank will not transmit unsolicited commercial information if you have registered with ‘Do not call registry’
b. Bank will enrol customer in Do Not Call Registry after 6 months of opening account etc 
59. Change in interest rate on loan products will be informed within 
a. Fortnight 
b. One-month etc 
60. As per BCSBI Code, if there is any change in fee or new fee is introduced, it will take effect 
a. Retrospectively if needed
b. revised charges retrospectively and new charges after one month
c. Prospective effect after giving notice of one month
61.As per BCSBI code, In case of revision in fees it will be communicated to customer by( Incorrect option)
a. Account statements
b. Email and SMS alerts 
c. TV advertisements 
d. Notice board at branches 
62. As per BCSBI code regarding privacy of customer(Incorrect option)
a. Bank will treat personal information as private and confidential till he is a customer of the bank
b. Bank will treat personal information as private and confidential even when he is no longer a customer of the bank. 
63. As per BCSBI code on CICs, which of the following is wrong 
a. Bank will provide information about credit availed by customer to CIC at periodic intervals
b. On request, will give information about CIC(s) to which details are shared
c. Bank will not share copy of credit information obtained from CIC 
64. In BCSBI Code, 
a. You denotes the customer and we denotes the bank
b. ‘You’ denotes the member bank and ‘We’ denote BCSBI etc 
65. As per BCSBI Code, when customer makes a complaint Bank will inform the customer
a. how to do so 
b. where a complaint can be made
c. Whom to approach for redressal 
d. same complaint is not raised again by customer 
options are combinations
66. As per BCSBI Code, for collection of dues customers should be contacted between 
a. 7 hrs and 1900 hours 
67. Nominee can be two persons in the case of accounts opened as 
a. Either or Survivor
b. Former or survivor
c. Joint accounts with joint operation etc 
68. in case of revision in minimum balance to be maintained in current account and as customer’s current account does not meet the minimum balance in the last quarter bank as per BCSBI code should 
a. Inform customers 30 days in advance of any change in minimum balance
69. As per BCSBI Code, in case of inoperative/dormant accounts
a. Bank should inform three months before account is made as inoperative
b. Inform when account is made inoperative etc 
70. In case of cheque collection policy, we will provide you compensation for delay in collection of instruments as per 
a. Compensation policy of respective bank
b. Compensation policy of RBI
c. compensation policy of IBA etc 
71. In case a cheque is lost in transit as per cheque collection policy,
a. Bank will help in obtaining duplicate cheque and offer compensation
72. In case of a cheque issued by B to A, amount in figures is Rs. 10,000 and in words is ten thousand which is striked off and written as five thousand. Alteration is duly signed by B. In that case, bank should 
a. Honour the cheque and pay the amount given in figures
b. Return the cheque as material alteration is not allowed
73. As per BCSBI Code, while opening a Term deposit we will (incorrect one)
a. Get instructions from you for disposal of deposit at maturity 
b. Inform about procedure to withdraw deposit before maturity
c. None of these
74. As per BCSBI code, on receiving a loan application (incorrect one)
a. acknowledges the receipt of application
b. Communicate in writing reasons for rejection of loan application
c. Provide a provisional sanction letter on receipt of loan proposal
75. As per BCSBI code, bank will return all securities/documents/title deeds to mortgaged property within --- days of the repayment of all dues
a. 15 days 
76. In the event of unauthorized transaction in internet banking after customer has received means to access Internet banking, maximum liability will be 
a. Full amount 
b. Nil 
c. Rs, 10,000/- 
77. Request for cancellation/closure of credit card will be processed in 
a. 7 days 
78. As per BCSBI Code, prepayment penalty of fixed rate loans is waived till 
a. 10 lakhs 
b. 5 lakhs
c. 10 lakhs etc 
79. For a unit to be classified as a sick unit, it should remain as ------------for three months or more or if there is erosion in the net worth due to accumulated losses to the extent of --- of net worth 
a. NPA ,50%
b. Doubtful,50%etc 
80. In small accounts, balance at any time should not exceed ---------- and total credits in a year not to exceed ----------
a. Rs. 50,000/- and Rs. 1,00,000
81. Banks can allow small accounts to operate for a period of 
a. up to 1 year 
b. up to 2 years 
82. A customer approaches a bank for opening an account without any of the required KYC documents, bank can open 
a. Small account 
b. Refused to open the account 
83. As per Consumer Protection Bill of 2015, cases not admitted within --- days will be deemed admitted 
a. 21 days 
84. Customer orientation means 
85. As per BCSBI Code, when customer avails a safe deposit locker (incorrect one)
a. Bank will not link fixed deposit to allocation of lockers
b. explains all the rules of allocating a locker
c. Explain the lesser and lessee relation created 
86. In case of illiterate persons, nomination can be given 
a. Thumb impression to be attested by two witnesses
b. No need to authenticate thumb impression
c. Authorized official should authenticate in the presence of customer etc 
87. Number of grids in grid based cheque truncation system 
a. Six
b. Ten 
c. Three 
d. Four 
88. In order to provide customer satisfaction, bank should 
a. Hire new staff in place of retirees 
b. Staff to be trained in handling complaints 
c. Deploy more staff in counters 
etc



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