Wednesday, 3 July 2019

Digital banking

Digital Payments

RBI has been playing pivotal role in the area of national payment system, which is the backbone of economic activity
and has taken several initiatives for a safe, secure, sound and efficient payment system in India. Last one decade
witnessed spurt in digital payments on account of increased adoption of technology and regulatory guidelines.
The evolution of e-payment systems in India are:

Digital banking mcqs

Digital banking mcqs::

Q1.The situation of reading of a data by someone other than the intended recipient is referred to as:

 a: impersonation b:eavesdropping *c: data alteration d: denial-of service attack

Q2.Hot listing of Credit card means:

 a enhancement of amount of limit in the card ,b blocking the operations of the card,* creducing the amount of limit in the card d listing the card on more than one network, e. none of the above

Q3.In a MICR cheque, which of the following code does not match the 'description:

a. first 6-digit code - cheque number, b central 09-digit code — city, bank and branch code

c. last 2-digit code — transaction code such as saving or current account, d none of the above*

Q4.The electronic system through which a company or a mutual fund can make payment of dividend to a large number of

shareholders or unit-holders: a MICR b truncation c debit clearing system, d credit clearing system*

Q5.The committee that suggested the cheque truncation system for inter-bank transactions:

a Rangarajan Committee b Shere Committee, c Vasudevan Committee d Saraf Committee*, e. None

Q6.The committee that gave its recommendation for drawing a perspective plan of computerization for the period 1990-94 : a.

Shere Committee, b Narasimham Committee, c. Rangarajan Committee *d Saraf Committee

Q7.The process of transformation of a message into an incomprehensible data through use of mathematical algorithms is

called:a deciphering, b encryption*, c decryption, d coding e.decoding

Q8.The firewall technology is used in connection with:

a hardware safety, b physical safety from fire c authorised access d human safety from fire

e. Protection of computer network from intrusion by hackers*

Q9.Single credit and multiple debits, is the process, in respect of which of the following:

a RTGS b NEFT c ECS-Debit* d ECS-Credit

Q.10 Single debit and multiple credits, Is the process, In respect of which of the following:

a RTGS b NEFT c ECS-Debit d ECS-Credit*

Q.11 Under Money Transfer Service Scheme (MTSS), what is the maximum amount of single inward foreign currency remittance?

(a).USD 10000 (b).USD 5000 (c).USD 2500` (d).USD 1000

Q.12 Under Money Transfer Service Scheme (MTSS), the disbursement in INR cash can be made to beneficiary for an amount up

to: (a).Rs.1 lac (b).Rs.50000` (c). Rs.25000 (d).cash payments are not allowed

Q.13 The prepaid instruments can be issued as (1) smart cards or magnetic stripe cards, (2) internet accounts or internet wallets,

(3) mobile accounts or mobile wallets (4) paper vouchers, which can be used to access the pre-paid amount:

(a) only 1 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 to 3 only (d) 1 to 4 all*

Q.14 The maximum validity period of PPI in the form of Gift instrument can be:

(a) 6 months (b) 12 months (c) 3 years* (d) at discretion of the issuer

Q.15 The minimum validity period of PPI other than in the form of Gift instrument can be:

(a) 6 months *(b) 12 months (c) 3 years (d) at discretion of the issuer

Q16.Up to Rs.___ PPI can be issued by accepting official valid document (OVD) subject to compliance of other conditions:

(a) Rs.10000 (b) Rs.25000 (c) Rs.50000* (d) Rs.1 lac

Q.17 Universal set of standards and guidelines for communication by EDI is called: EDIFACT.

Q.18 Which bank has max share in INFINO PAYTECH Ltd : ICICI Bank

19. NEFT maximum amount: no limit

20. Computer Security Day is observed on : 30th November

21. Maximum compensation by Banking Ombudsman in case of Credit Card : Rs.1 lac

22. Encryption means: Conversion of plain language into secret language, i.e., coding and The extent of coverage under

CGTMSE for Micro units up to Rs 5 lacs is ______: 85% with maximum amount of claim upto Rs 4.25 lacs.

23. E-sahyog portal: by Income Tax

24. Maximum RTGS Charge for Rs.2 lac to 5 lac: Rs.30.00 + service tax

25. What is the maximum amount of fees chargeable if more than 5 transactions are done in a month at other bank’s ATM: Rs

20 per transaction

26. Application under ASBA can be applied for: a) IPO b) Right Issue c) Mutual fund: Ans: All of these.

27. Name the portal that has been launched by the Confederation of All India Traders (CAIT) to promote business-to-business

and trader-to-customer e-commerce transactions and reduce costs. (E-Lala)

28. Name India’s first Social mobile wallet launched by Transerv, a leading digital payments company.

29. Name the programme launched by online market place BankBazaar.com to help the flood affected citizens of Chennai.

(‘One Loan Two Homes’)

30. Buy Now, Pay Later what type of card: Credit Card

https://iibfadda.blogspot.com/2018/06/digital-banking-mcqs.html?m=1

Micro finance recollected



Micro finance 70 recollected questions



Q1.C.rungrajan committee on microfinance

Q2. Breath length and depth meaning.

Q3. Difference between poverty lending approach and financial system approach.

Q4. Microfinance focus on poorest of the poor.

Q5. Nabard and it's role.

Q6. Nationalization of banks and it's purpose.

Q7.IRDP programm substitute the SJGSY program.

Q8.what is facilitater and it's role.

Q9.what is GRT group recognition test and it's purpose.

Q10.one question on Money lenders.

Q11.break even analysis and CPV analysis 3 questions.

Q12.what is microcredit.

Q13.what is microfinance.

Q14. What is sustainability.

Q15 what is BRI bank Ryat Indonesia.

Q16 .what is unit diseas.

Q17.chikola group of Kenya is example of which model.

Q18.Difference between SHG and JLG model

Q19 detailed question on grameen bank model.

 Q20. What is SHG bank linkage model...

Q22. Assumptions of grameen bank model of Bangladesh.

 Q23.diffrence between direct cost indirectcost setupcost and cost of fund.

Q24 .capital=assets-liability.

Q25.for NBFC model minimum networth requires rs.5 crore.

Q26.malegam committee and its recommendation.

Q27.qualifying assets and its significance

Q28.what is most accepted and widely usedmodel of microfinance in india.

 Q29.what is ghostborrower or multiple lending.

Q30.details of BC model.

Q31.what is reckless lending.

Q32. Details of SHG2 model part2.

 Q33. What is refinancing.

Q34. National rural livelihood mission.

 Q35 .Swarn jayanti gramin Swarojgar yojna

Q 36.what is mutual fund.

 Q37. What is merchant banking.

Q38.details of Revolving Fund.

 Q39. Financial inclusion definition and scope.

Q40. What is kyc and it's purpose

Q41 .Illiterate person can open which type of exam.

Q42 .Difference between impact accessment and social performance.

Q43.what is social rating

Q44. What is minimalist and integrated approach.

Q45.what is micro Insurance.

 Q46. Role of SEBI.

 Q47.role of IRDA.

 Q48. What is cash flow statement

.Q49. What is flat rate of interest.

 Q50. What is travel expanses.

 Q51.what is operating expense Ratio.

 Q52. What is asset depricitation.

 Q53 what is accounting stanard 2

. Q54. What is average case load.

Q55. What is Target group.

Q56. What is PAR.

Q57. What is market risk.

Q58. What is bank rate.

Q59.what is reprising risk.

 Q60. What is riskmanagement loop

Q61 what is schedule and nonshedule bank.

Q62. What is human risk.

 Q63.what is operational risk.

Q64.what is merchant banker.

 Q65. What is trading in stock exchange.

 Q66.two questions on mutual fund.

Q67.three question on Break Even Analysis.

Q68. What is regulatory risk.

 Q 69.what is Repayment rate.

 Q70.trust and Trust feed and what NBFC banking Model and what is business Correspondent model (BC Model)...... these All are 70 Recollected Questions of microfinance held on 15 july 2018. best of luck to All


All iibf exams recollected questions link

All IIBF exams recollected questions


https://iibfadda.blogspot.com/search/label/Recollected%20Questions%20for%20%20all%20exams?m=0


All the best for your July 2019 exams

Msme recollected

MSME FOR BANKERS (EXAM DATED 27.04.2019)

1. MSME represent ------- policies of Government of India which emphasized to use foreign exchange for imports etc (Ans: Socio Economic)

2. Objectives of MSME identification which among is not an objective (Page 4 of Text Book)

3. Limitations of MSME. Identify which among is correct (Page 4 of Text Book)

4. The MSME is made important subject in development in (Ans: Worldwide including countries like USA, Japan)

5. The classification of industries is based on different factors. Which among the following is wrong (Ans: Loan Amount)

6. Explanation of export oriented Unit (Ans: Industry that undertakes to export 30% of annual production at the end of third year)

7. Which among the following is not falls in Small Business (Ans: Wholesale Trade)

8. For the transport operator is categorized as MSE, if total vehicle owned does not exceed (Ans: 10)

9. The de reservation of items as per Sec 29 B of Industries act 1951. Find out wrong features (Page 10 of Text Book)

10. Micro Enterprises Manufacturing & service investment criteria (Ans. 25 Lacs & 10 lacs)

11. Which among the following is the example of indirect finance (Ans: MFI lending to co-operatives of producers)

12. Which among the following is not a feature of Sole Proprietary firm (Ans: Income is distinguished for taxation)

13. Mr. Ram a minor turned major on 01.02.2016, who was admitted to a partnership firm during his minority. What is the maximum time before which he can repudiate his liability (Ans: 6 months from date )

14. Which among the following is not a feature of partnership firm (Ans: A partnership firm can be a partner in another firm)

15. Which among the following is a feature of partnership firm (Ans: A partnership firm not require compulsory registration of deed)

16. The usage of common seal is explained in which document. (Ans: Articles of Association)

17. Maximum number of share holders in Private Limited Company is (Ans: 200)

18. Which among the following is not a feature of Public Limited Company (Ans: The shares are freely not transferrable)

19. For getting environmental clearance for the setting up of an enterprises one must (Ans: Obtain clearance from the pollution board)

20. If the ownership of any enterprise is individually or jointly hold by women above 51%, the same is termed as (Ans: Woman Enterprises)

21. The gender discrimination in Market is by (Ans: Differential wage for the same work)

22. Which among the following is not a classification of categories of Women Entrepreneurs (Ans: Literate and illiterate women)

23. Exclusive scheme to provide equity support to women entrepreneurs (Ans: Mahila Udhyam Nidhi)

24. Which among the following is not a supportive measures for Women’s economic activities (Ans: Refer Page ; 24 in text book)

25. MSME DO is earlier known as (Ans; Small industries Development Organization)

26. The development of MSME is a (Ans: State Subject )

27. An industrial undertaking, a company with interests in industry can invest up to _____ in a MSE unit (Ans; 24%)

28. Similarity features identification between LLP & a Private Limited Company (Ans: Refer Page ; 45 in text book)

29. TReDS full form (Ans: Trade Receivables Discounting system )

30. Which among the features pertains to Priority Sector Lending Certificates

31. CERSAI is formed as per the (Ans: SARFAESIA act of 2002)

32. Calculation for maximum CGTMSE coverage available for unit with Rs 30.00 Lacs fund based & 15 Lacs non fund based limit.

33. The current liability is 50000. The current ratio is 2.5. calculate Current asset

34. The CLSS scheme gives subsidy of ( 15% or 0.15)

35. Which among the given option is not a rating agency (Ans; NSIC)

36. Which among the following is give overall guidelines of SIDO (Ans; Directorate of industries)

37. Features of HUDCO. Select the one wrongly explained (Ans: Refer Page ; 61 in text book)

38. Activities of TCO. Which among is correct combination (Ans: Refer Page ; 62 in text book)

39. Which among the following is features of KVIC (Ans: Refer Page ; 63 in text book)

40. The credit limit up to 5 Lacs to be disposed in maximum of (Ans; 2 Weeks)

41. Which among the following is wrongly stated regarding the functions of SIDBI (Ans: Refer Page ; 70 in text book)

42. Major problems faced by MSME in the given option (Ans: Refer Page ; 92 in text book)

43. Which among the following is not a feature for commercial banks or promoting the MSE advance portfolio (Ans: Low NPA)

44. Identify which are the following is bill financing

45. Which among the following is example of post shipment finance (Ans: Refer Page ; 109 in text book)

46. RED Clause LC Feature (Ans: Refer Page ; 111 in text book)

47. Specialized MSME branch (Ans: if advance is 60% MSE portfolio)

48. BCSBI guidelines for MSE regarding acknowledgement of application & issuance of rejection letter with reason

49. Which among the given option is not associated with 5 Cs of the borrower (Ans: CIBIL score )

50. Identify and add the total assets from the given balance sheet component

51. What is the implication and effect in increase of Sundry Debtors or creditors (Ans; Refer Page ; 124 in text book)

52. Maximum Limit of loan that can be sanctioned under Turnover method (Ans: Rs 500.00 Lacs)

53. Factors affecting/determine the working capital limit (Ans: Refer Page ; 138 in text book)

54. Calculation using II method of lending (Ans; Refer Page ; 143 in text book)

55. Overview of Risk features , by way of match the following (Ans: Refer Page ; 145 in text book)

56. Features and requirement of credit rating (Ans: Refer Page ; 148 in text book)

57. Economic benefits of MSME. Identify the features (Ans: Refer Page ; 165 in text book)

58. The common parlance and practices of BDS is (Ans: Operational)

59. Identify the support by BDS (Ans: Refer Page ; 170 in text book)

60. Nature of deficiencies and remedial measures in cluster development (Ans; Refer Page ; 198 in text book)

61. Growth phase of MSE cluster features

62. Role of CDE in the cluster (Ans; Refer Page ; 209 in text book)

63. Why agricultural land is not taken as collateral security for securing the loan

64. Delayed payment of the bill raised by the MSE entrepreneur is compensated by (Ans: 3 times of bank rate announced by RBI)

65. RBI definition of Sick unit

66. Identify which among the following is external cause of sickness (Ans: Power Shortage)

67. When long term source is used for short term uses, the same is amounts to (Ans; Diversion of funds)

68. Feature of an enterprises tending towards sickness (Ans: Refer Page ; 242 in text book)

69. Symptoms of incipient sickness in activity (Ans; Refer Page ; 243 in text book)

70. Explanation of SICK GREY AREA

71. Hand holding stage features (Ans: Refer Page ; 253 in text book)

72. The account of NPA with dues of Rs 2.00 lacs, who will finalize the viability (Ans: Branch manager)

73. Viability criteria (Ans: Refer Page ; 256 in text book)

74. Primary purpose of secured creditors with NPA asset is (Ans; To sell off for the purpose of loan)

75. The 13(2) notice to be given as per SARFAESIA for how many days (Ans: 60 days )

76. Asset Reconstruction companies are registered with (Ans: RBI)

77. The reason for the existence of MFI (Ans: Refer Page ; 273 in text book)

78. Multiple lending and over indebtedness of MFI (Ans: Refer Page ; 276 in text book)

79. Primary Objectives of Mudra Bank (Ans: Refer Page ; 279 in text book)

80. Primary security & Collateral security features

81. Customer DNA means

82. Insolvency & Bankruptcy difference between two

83. Features of Bank’s Board Bureau

84. Impact of WTO agreements in domestic industry (Ans: Refer Page ; 305 in text book)

85. Which sector among the given option is contributing to exports (Ans: Textile)

86. Calculation of Plant & machineries value from given options (Ans: Not to include Jigs, generator sets etc)

87. Which among the following is not a participant of importance/much role in an LC? (Ans: Beneficiaries’ Bank)

88. Explanation of LC, which among the given options is correct

89. Which among is pre shipment finance?

90. Which among the following is not correct for loan sanction in MSME segment (Ans: Compulsory to give collateral free loan till 100 lacs)

CTP recollected

Some of the recollected questions of certified treasury professional exam held on 24/11/2018 3 pm

TT buy/ TT sell bill /buy Bill sell/ TC buy TC /sell Forex card rates of dollar and pound given.

Various forex transaction based questions (5 marks)



 ∆Y= change in the yield of a bond in decimal

V+ = the estimated value of the bond if yield is increased by ∆Y

V- = the estimated value of the bond if yield is decreased by ∆Y

Vo = Initial price of the bond

All these values given

Questions asked: percentage change in price per basis point Change for an increase in yield of delta y etc.



Average percentage price change per basis point change in yield

(5 marks)



 cash inflow and outflow of the repo borrower in a repo transaction

Accured interest for first leg second leg etc (5 marks)



Present value of all coupons 10 years bond coupons payed semi annually.



Apart from black scholes model another famous option pricing model name.

 How options Greek measures the sensitivity of an options price



A decrease in interest rates raises bond prices by more than a corresponding increase in rates lowers price



Money market refers to the market for short term maturities upto 1 year.



Yield and price of 364 and 91 days treasury bill.





Given CTP Exam today (24/11/18) 10.00 Slot. Next heading toward FRM & Certified Bank trainer. In today CTP exam, Case Study Questions (5Q ) were from Repo Transaction, T Bills, TT Buying & Bills Buying rates, option price calculations, Bond yield & price calculations, option greeks & duration. Then individual questions (1 - 2Q) from CP, SI,CI, option pricing models, forex valuation, dealers code of conduct, etc.


International trade finance



Trade finance recollected questions::

2 marks qstn from ecgc,export promotion capital goods scheme. exim ,lc, eefc, urr725 ,pcfc
1 marks from forfating, factoring, pre and post shipment ,Fedai dutydrawback urc522 heckscher ohlin theory buyers and suppliers credit forward contract , lc., channel financing merchanting trade as well these topics in .5 marks qstn bid bondand performance guarantee currency and credit risk , wharfage documentry credit time period related qstn , status holder starhouse . SEIS , liberalized remittance . NEIA (national export insurance account), ssp, src. Scp related to ECIE-ST red clause


Digital banking recollected questions

Today july 2019  Digital banking recollected



Aeps

Nach

Upi

Virtual keyboard to safegaurd against keylogger

4 questions on process of chargeback

Nfc technology and RFID

Approx 8-10 question on security of POS terminals

2 que on MDR

What is cash withdrawal through pos called







Many questions were there from BC

, POS,

off us,

 on us transactions,

  pharming attack,

phishing attack,

 ATM skimming,

 business risk,

 memory scrapping,

 jackpotting,

 Financial inclusion,

Dispute Management System,

CTS,

Digital marketing,

 internet banking 2FA

, AEPS,

Keylogger Virtual keyboard,

Pinterest ,

Graffiti,

OOH,

brown level ATM,

 ekyc ,

FI is backed by       

wat is Graffiti.                                               

wat is CRM customer Relationship Management. one questions on fraud in ATM card and Internet banking. wat is RTGS and Next generation RTGS

wat is Rupay Paysecure Solution. Benefits of Rupay Card. wat is NACH and it's Role.                         

ABPS and NACH diffrence. .wat is ASA and KSA. .one question on NFS and EKYC. Offus and OnUs transaction Diffrence. RTGS and NgTGS.                                 

NG rtgs works on ISO 20022. wat is CCIL clearing Corporation of India it's Role and Functions. wat is Diffrence between DVP-lll (Delivery vs payment and Payment Vs Delivey) System..



 Diffrence between Compliance and convenience. masquerading and Cyber mugging.   

wat is Jeckpotting. wat is MILTDOWN and Spectrame. One question on Telebanking. MMID and MPlpin wat Digit MMID 4 Digit                                                               

  wat is giftcard prepaid card and store value card diffrences. .credit and charge card diffrences. .questions on magnetic strip card EMV chipbased card. questuons on what Document requires for Representment in prearbitration process...... operating system hardening is a Application server risk. diffrence between Enduser risk and application server risk. wat is mobile device risk. wat is Identity Theft. Difference between Basic Phishing and Spear phishing. . ......



Digital banking Recollected Questions on 1st July 2018 paper.... 1.cyber mugging 2.Miltdown & Spectrate. 3.what is Jeckpotting in ATM. 4.NPCI.... 5.CCIL one question. 6 .one question on CIA confidentiality Availability and Integrity. 7 .one separete question on only Integrity. 8.what is Plastic card. 9.one question on prepaid card. 10.wat is single purpose and multy purpose Cards. 11.diffrence between credit and charge card. 12.wat are benefit for using virtual key board. 13.diffrence between Emv chip card and Magnetic strip cards. 14.diffrence between NFC near feild communication and RFID Radio frequency Identifications...... 15.diffrence between openscheme (4th Party and 3rd party close scheme.....



Digital banking Recollected Questions on 1 July 2018............. 16.one Questions on MDR. 17.diffrence between transaction processing clearing and settlement. 18.one separate question on CTS and Clearing. 19.wat is phishing Pharming and Cyber mugging. 20.one question on Aadhar bridge system for giving Subsidy. 21 which is not a 24*7 system IMPS NPCI UPI or USSD. 22.one question on what is SFMS. 23.diffrence between In Us and Off Is ATM 24.wat is difference between IMPS and IMT. 25.diffrence between CDM ATM and POS





1 July Digital Banking Paper Recollected Questions. 26.diffrence between white and Brown level ATM. 27.diiffrence between Clearing and Settlement process. 28.wat is keystroke Logging and benefits of vitual key board. 29.wat is difference between business Declines and technical Declines. 30.difference between authorization and Settlement process. 31.wat is limit of chargebeck-90 days. 32.one question on prearbiration process and dispute management Collette. 33.one question on smshing and Phishing attack....... 34 diffrence between malware and Torzan. 35.wat is *99*99# and it's benefit. 36 .mobile wallets are prepaid or postpaid. 37.one question on OTP and TWO factor Authonthication process. 38.What is end-user risk. 39.wat is mobile device risk. 40 one question on Spearphishing. 41 .wat is query service on Aadhar Mapper.42.one question on firewell and intrusions detection system. 43.diiffrence between encryption and Decryption. 44.diffrence between GPRS and PSTN POS 45.diffrence between portable and Pooled terminal. 46.one question only on Mobile POS. 47.wat is EKYC and it's benefits. 48.wat is Terminal Management System. 49.wat is Mural-Advertising. 50.wat is OOH out of home.....







Recollected Questions on Digital Banking Paper 1 July. .51.wat is Graffiti. 52.wat is CRM customer Relationship Management. 53.one questions on fraud in ATM card and Internet banking. 54.wat is RTGS and Next generation RTGS 55.wat is Rupay Paysecure Solution. 56.Benefits of Rupay Card. 57.wat is NACH and it's Role. 58.ABPS and NACH diffrence. 59.wat is ASA and KSA. 60.one question on NFS and EKYC. 61. Offus and OnUs transaction Diffrence. 62.RTGS and NgTGS. 63.NG rtgs works on ISO 20022. 64.wat is CCIL clearing Corporation of India it's Role and Functions. 65 .wat is Diffrence between DVP-lll (Delivery vs payment and Payment Vs Delivey) System..



Recollected Questions. 66.diffrence between Compliance and Convenience. 67.masquerading and Cyber mugging. 68.wat is Jeckpotting. 69.wat is MILTDOWN and Spectrame. 70.one question on Telebanking. 71.MMID and MPlpin wat Digit MMID 4 Digit 72.wat is giftcard prepaid card and store value card diffrences. 73.credit and charge card diffrences. 74.questions on magnetic strip card EMV chipbased card. 75.questuons on what Document requires for Representment in prearbitration process...... 76.operating system hardening is a Application server risk. 77.diffrence between Enduser risk and application server risk. 78.wat is mobile device risk. 79.wat is Identity Theft. 80.Difference between Basic Phishing and Spear phishing. . ......



 Q81.what is SSL full form and it's signal turns into which colour green blue Aur Red. Q82.one Drawback of Smishing. Q.83.the process of remain hidden Online is called..... Q.84.what is Back and Access.... Q 86.one question on Cash Advance. Q87.wat is diffrence between VOID and Refund. Q 88.SFMS. Q 89.Encoding deciding Difference.. Q90..wat is Rootkit. Q 91.Social engineering. Q 92.diffrence between IDS and IPS. Q.93.OTP and Two fector Authonthication. Q.94.KeyStroke Loggers

CCP recollected

Ccp 22/06/19 recollected questions shared by members



1.Whether to accept or reject proposal based on the comparison with npv,irr,arr,bcr 5 questions

 2. Cersai registered under which act

3. Question related to rehabilitation

 4. Which is correct for OPC

5.sma related questions -5 question

 6. time period - right of foreclosure , mortgage money related question

7. interest coverage ratio

 8. Find nwc with details of ca, total assets , term liabilities



9.LC one case study 5 questions ,

10 irr -5 questions,

msmed act 5 questions



11. 6 questions on factoring and forfeiting

12.5 questions on TReads scheme.

13. 8questions on NPV and IRR , pay back and interest coverage

14. Ratio analysis: 7 questions.

15. 5 questions on msme rehabilitations.

16. 6 questions on IBC and NCLT

17. Minor related 3 questions

18. LLP, HUF,partnership 4 questions

19 Ltv on hl and edu loan 2 questions

20.priority sector:pmjdy,kcc 3 questions

21 Anbc calculation 5 questions

Tuesday, 2 July 2019

NISM VA SOLVED PAPER

NISM VA SOLVED PAPER

Marked in YELLOW are the correct answers
Marked in Blue are the points that elaborate on the logic behind the answer
1) KIM is a condensed version of SID and SAI
True/False

KIM – KEY INFORMATION MEMORANDUM
SID – SCHEME INFORMATION DOCUMENT
SAI – STATEMENT OF ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

2) MUTUAL FUND OFFER DOCUMENTS HAVE ____PARTS
CHOICES – 1/2/3/4
ANSWER – 2 PARTS (SID AND SAI)
3) A financial planner planning for his client to buy a house would do all of the below except:
Put him onto the best home loan company
Scout for the best deal
Explain the mathematics of EMI to the client
Discourage him from taking the loan saying that it is unwise to incur debts
4) A Balanced fund has to have atleast_____ % in equities
50% / 75% / 65% / 85%
5) Avg maturity of bonds held in a liquid fund is
More than 91 days/ Less than 91 days/ Between 61-91 days/ More than one yr
6) Winning a lottery is an example of
Accumulation/Sudden wealth/Inter generational transfer
7) All other things being very similar among two index funds, the most important measure to decide between two index funds being considered (for investment) is
Tracking error/ Fund Manager’s years of experience/ minimum applicn amt/ None of the above
8) Credit risk in a bond means
Risk of inflation/Risk of interest variation/Risk of default
9) Difference in interest rates between a Govt bond and a corporate bond is called
Duration/convexity/yield spread/delta
10) Investor gives applicn to invest to distributor at 10am and distributor hands over the same to fund house at 11 am. The timestamping will indicate what time?
10am/11am/12pm/3pm
11) KIM to be updated every 6m/1yr/18m/3 yrs
12) The most efficient mode of investing for a gold investor among the foll choices is
Gold sector fund/gold futures/gold options/Gold ETF
13) Closed ended funds can theoretically be bought on the stock exchanges after the NFO – True/False

14) Offer document needs to be approved by
TRUSTEES/AMC/CIO/CMO
15) For NAV calculation, share prices are valued
At closing price on BSE
At the last traded price on a reputed stock exchange
At the average of last 30 days closing price on NSE
Any of these depending on the convenience of the agency calculating the NAV
16) Interest component of bonds that form part of a bond fund portfolio are accounted for in the following way when NAV is computed:
As per accrual of interest
Only if the interest is actually paid out to the scheme holding the bonds
Any of these depending on the convenience of the agency calculating the NAV
None of the above
17) In a scheme, Unit capital = Rs 10 cr, face value = Rs 10/unit, Assets = Rs 12 cr, Liabilities = Rs 1 cr. What is the NAV ?
CHOOSE THE CORRECT CHOICE - Rs 110/Rs 11/Rs 19/ Rs 190
REMEMBER – UNIT CAPITAL = NUM OF UNITS * FACE VALUE
FACE VALUE IS ALWAYS Rs 10
So, NUM OF UNITS = 1 crore units
NAV = assets – liabilities/num of units = 12-1/1 = 11 Rs 
18) SID contains data relating to statutory information relating to the fund house offering the scheme – True/False (IT CONTAINS SCHEME SPECIFIC DETAILS)
19) Investing in gold ETF is like investing in a closed ended fund – True/False
20) STCG Tax for equity is______ + Surcharge + Education Cess....... choose from the foll choices -  15%/20%/22%/25%
21) R &T agent does not
Update addresses when investors shift addresses
Change nominees whenever investors indicate new preference for nomination
Inform investor rgds performance of the scheme in which s/he is invested
22) Custodian calculates Tax liability/calculates NAV/Keeps secure gold and securities that are part of the schemes of the AMC/sends accounts statements to investors
23) For a share, EPS = Rs 5, P/E ratio = 10. Price of share is Rs 30/50/70/100
24) For institutional investors there is no question of nomination- True/False
25) For institutional investors, the foll is an important part of KYC –
Bank stmnt/ Memorandum of Association/ profitability projections/nature of business in which it is involved

26) When growth stocks get OVERHEATED/OVERVALUED, then _____style of investing makes sense
GROWTH STYLE/VALUE STYLE
REMEMBER – THE STUDY MATERIAL SAYS THAT “In the initial phases of a bull run, growth
stocks deliver good returns. Subsequently, when the market heats up, value picks end up being safer”.


27) Fundamental analysis takes note of price and volume movement of shares – True/False
REMEMBER - It is technical analysis that makes use of price and volume to predict future prices of shares

28) When interest rates rise, NAVs of actively managed debt funds also rise – True/False
Remember the inverse relationship between interest rates and NAVs of bond funds

29) The Mutual Fund would update the current expense ratios on the website within ____working days mentioning the effective date of the change
5 days/7days/2days/10days
30) KIM must report Past performance of funds – True/False
REMEMBER – KIM MUST CONTAIN
Name of the AMC, mutual fund, Trustee, Fund Manager and
Scheme Dates of Issue Opening, Issue Closing & Re-opening for Sale
and Re-purchase Plans and Options under the scheme Risk Profile of Scheme
Price at which Units are being issued and minimum amount / units for initial purchase, additional purchase and re-purchase Bench Mark Dividend Policy Performance of scheme and benchmark over last 1 year, 3
years, 5 years and since inception * Loads and expenses

31) The Asset Mgmt company shall confirm that the due diligence certificate is signed by
COMPLIANCE OFFICER/CEO/MD/ANY OF THESE
32) Investment in MF units involves investment risks such as
TRADING VOLUMES/SETTLEMENT RISK/LIQUIDITY RISK/ALL THESE
33) A person is likely to be at his peak earning during Pre retirement/when he just starts earning/ midway
34) It is only after doing asset allocation that an investor will (ideally) choose exact debt or equity scheme in which to invest – True/False
35) MFs in India are constituted as
NGO/CORPORATES/PARTNERSHIPS/TRUSTS
36) A fund manager modifies the proportion of debt and equity in a balanced fund based on some important likely political news and rebalances his portfolio - he is following which mode of operation?
Tactical allocation and fixed asset allocation
Strategic allocation and fixed asset allocation
Strategic allocation and variable asset allocation
Tactical allocation and variable asset allocation
37) Stock specific selection irrespective of study of macro variables in the stock mkt is an example of top down approach – True/False

38) Large cap fund’s benchmark for performance comparison is which index ?
BSE 30 /BSE 200/BSE 500/BSE 1000
39) As the number of dependents increases in a family, the risk taking capacity of the family increases – True/False



40) % change equals
(SALE PRICE – COST PRICE)*100 /COST PRICE
(COST PRICE – SALE PRICE)*100 /COST PRICE
(SALE PRICE – COST PRICE)*100 /SALE PRICE
(COST PRICE – SALE PRICE)*100 /SALE PRICE

REMEMBER, FOR ANY PARAMETER, the % CHANGE = (NEW-OLD)*100/OLD
41) NAVs should be published in atleast in ___newspapers ____
4, daily
4, every alternate day
2, every alternate day
2, daily
42) MF distributors are covered under Banking act/ AMFI act/ AGNI/SEBI act
43) In kyc, THIS ONE PROOF IS NOT NEEDED
Proof of networth/wealth
Address proof
PAN proof
44) To minimise risk, you would tell an investor who is in______stage to invest in index fund
CHOICES – pre retirement/start of career/midway in career
45) Once NFO is over, then during period of continuous repurchase, an investor can exit by selling open ended MF scheme’s units on -    stock exchange/back to the fund house/neither
46) Tier 1 of NPS is called SAVINGS ACCOUNT – TRUE/FALSE
Remember - Tier II is withdrawable to meet financial contingencies. So this makes it similar to a savings account. Tier 1 accumulation must necessarily be paid out as an annuity to the investor. Even if you did not know the answer, knowing that Tier II is withdrawable to meet financial contingencies would have helped you choose the correct answer

47) NPS is managed by – pension fund managers/AMCs/SEBI/RBI
48) Sponsor must have positive networth for last ____ years – choices are: 1/3/5/7
49) The parent of AMC is sponsor/trustee/custodian/R&T agent
50) Which of the foll is the most important parameter in a financial goal ? Amount targeted to be accumulated/time frame to accumulate the amt/both/neither
51) Dividend distribution tax on debt funds is
35%/10%/29%/18%
52) A floating rate scheme largely manages to be less volatile during periods of heavy variation in interest rates – TRUE/FALSE
53) Cut off time for a liquid fund investment for applicant to avail of previous working day’s NAV is – 12pm/1pm/2pm/3pm
54) Bonus units and units issued on reinvestment of dividends shall
not be subject to entry and exit load.
TRUE/FALSE
55) Investor pays broker a small margin and indulges in trading in futures market. This is an example of hedging/arbitrage/leveraging/none of these
56) ELSS schemes have lockin of ___ years – choices are: 1/3/5/10 years


57) STT (SECURITIES TRANSACTION TAX)  is payable while interaction with the mutual fund house during
redemption from equity scheme
investing in equity scheme
redemption from debt scheme
investing in debt scheme
REMEMBER THERE IS NO STT IN DEBT SCHEMES AND STT IS LEVIED for equity funds in the following cases: STT on the value of the transactions of sale (0.125%) and purchase (0.125%) of units in the stock exchange; or on re-purchase (0.25%) of the units by the AMC
58) Exposure to international funds can be had thru investing in international funds – TRUE/FALSE
59) While investing in international funds, an investors returns get affected by
Forex rate variations/absolute returns abroad/both of these/none of these
60) Risk of theft is maximum in gold/shares/land/all of these
61) Thematic fund is more broad based than sector fund – TRUE/FALSE
62) Investors can sue the AMC’s trust – TRUE/FALSE
REMEMBER – THEY CAN SUE THE TRUSTEES AND NOT THE TRUST
63) SWP = SIP + STP – TRUE/FALSE
CORRECT ANS IS: STP = SWP + SIP
64) The auditor appointed to audit the scheme accounts needs to be
different from the auditor of the AMC- true/false
Remember - While the scheme auditor is appointed by the Trustees, the AMC
auditor is appointed by the AMC.
65) If stock market crashes then the trail income for a distributor who has sold an equity fund to an investor also comes down – TRUE/FALSE
True !! REMEMBER, TRAIL IS PAID AS A %AGE OF THE VALUE OF THE FUND.
VALUE OF THE FUND VARIES AS THE STOCK MARKET RISES OR FALLS
Trail commission is, calculated as a percentage of the net assets attributable to the Units sold by the distributor. The trail commission is normally paid by the AMC on a quarterly basis. Since it is calculated on net assets, distributors benefit from increase in net assets arising out of valuation gains in the market. If mkt falls, he suffers as his trail commission also comes down.
66) Which of the following websites DOES NOT track Mutual Fund Performance :

REMEMBER - CDSL WEBSITE IS RELATED TO KYC FORMALITIES
Mutual funds have made an arrangement with CDSL Ventures Ltd (CVL), a wholly owned subsidiary of Central Depository Services (India) Ltd. (CDSL), to make it convenient for mutual fund investors to comply with the documentation requirements.

67) Demat a/c is compulsory for investing in MFs – TRUE/FALSE
68) ASBA stands for
Application Supported by Blocked Amount
Amount Supported by Blocked Application
Application Supported by Blocked Applicant
None of these
69) ______ funds take positions that are contrary to the market.
Sector/value/contra/diversified
70) Gold is a truly international asset – TRUE/FALSE

71) If someone earns a good pension, it will make a significant difference to his retirement planning
TRUE/FALSE
72) Who decides on a scheme to take to market ?
TRUSTEES/AMC/CIO/CMO
73) No single investor shall account for more than 20% of the corpus of the scheme
TRUE/FALSE
CORRECT ANSWER - The Scheme/Plan shall have a minimum of 20 investors and no
single investor shall account for more than 25% of the corpus of the scheme/plan
74) If a scheme is launched in the first 6 months of the financial year
(say, April 2010), then the first update of the SID is due within ______
months of the end of the financial year (i.e. by June 2011).
Choices - 2/6/5/3
ANSWER IS 3 MONTHS
75) Dividend distribution tax in equity funds after APRIL 1, 2018
Does not exist
Equals 10% with surcharge
Equals 15% with surcharge
Equals 20% with surcharge

76)Contents of SAI are
Condensed financial information/rights of unit holders/investment valuation norms/all these

77) SEBI launches its advertising and public relations campaigns to make investors aware of NFOs
True/False
78) Contents of KIM are ____
Plans and options under the scheme/Risk profile of scheme/dividend policy/all these

NOTE
Contents of KIM
Some of the key items are as follows:
Name of the AMC, mutual fund, Trustee, Fund Manager and
scheme
Dates of Issue Opening, Issue Closing & Re-opening for Sale
and Re-purchase
Plans and Options under the scheme
Risk Profile of Scheme
Price at which Units are being issued and minimum amount /
units for initial purchase, additional purchase and re-purchase
Bench Mark
Dividend Policy
Performance of scheme and benchmark over last 1 year, 3 yrs, 5yrs and since inception

79) The mutual fund shall publish a complete statement of the scheme portfolio and the unaudited financial results, within _____month from the close of each half year (i.e. 31st March and 30th September), by way of an advertisement at least, in one National English daily and one
regional newspaper in the local language
choices – 1/3/6/12


80)  Draft SID is a public document, available for viewing in SEBI’s
website (www.sebi.gov.in) for ______ working days.

CHOICES – 2/15/21/30

81) A father wanting his son to start a business but not having idea of time frame or capital required to setup the business has
A financial goal/ An aspiration/A well thought out plan
82) The offer documents in the market are vetted by
SEBI/SPONSOR/DIRECTOR/AMC
NOTE -
While SEBI does not approve or disapprove Offer Documents, it gives its observations. The mutual fund needs to incorporate these observations in the Offer Document that is offered in the market. Thus, the Offer Documents in the market are “vetted” by SEBI, though SEBI does not formally “approve” them.

83) In case of open ended schemes, the NAV shall be calculated for all business days and released to the Press. In case of closed ended schemes, the NAV shall be calculated at least _______and  released to the Press.

Once a month
once a week
once every fortnight
Once in 10 days

84) A Scheme/Plan shall have a minimum of 20 investors and no single investor shall account for more than 25% of the corpus of the Scheme/Plan(s). However, if such limit is breached during the NFO of the Scheme, the Fund will endeavour to ensure that within a period of _______ or the end of the succeeding calendar quarter from the close of the NFO of the Scheme, whichever is earlier, the Scheme complies with these two conditions.

 3 months/ 6 months/ 9 months/12  months

85) Name, age, qualification and experience of the fund manager to the scheme to be disclosed.  The experience of the fund manager should include last ____years experience
10/5/12/15

86) Which of these has lowest risk
Gilt fund / Sector fund/ Liquid fund/Diversified equity fund

87) Arbitrage funds are classified FOR TAXATION PURPOSES as
Debt funds/liquid funds/hybrid funds/equity funds

88) Investment in overseas securities shall be made in accordance
with the requirements stipulated by _________ from time to time

only SEBI/only RBI/SEBI and RBI/ neither

89) Investors in any scheme
Must always have guarantee that their capital will never get eroded
Must understand that they are subject to market risk and scheme risk
Will always get a constant return
Sue the AMC if they are disappointed with the return they earn

90) As an AMC, you received a 48 lac cheque in a debt scheme at 2:30pm. On that day the debt market was working. The investor will receive the following NAV for the transaction:
NAV at 2:30 pm/ NAV at 3 pm/ NAV at 3:30 pm/NAV on the date of realisation of the cheque

91) Beta of a scheme is 1.2. It is
Less risky compared to the market/ More risky compared to the market/As risky as the market
Has no co-relation to the market

92) Indexation for debt funds if applicable if one holds the debt fund for a minimum of
24 months/ 48 months/36 months/60 months

93) An FMP is launched on December 10, 2017. To avail of indexation 4 times, what should be the earliest date of maturity.

December 10, 2020
December 10, 2021
April 1, 2021
April 1, 2020

94) NAV is to be calculated upto _____ decimal places in the case of index funds, liquid funds and other debt funds and _____ in case of balanced and equity funds
CHOICES – 3/4/2/1
ANSWER - NAV is to be calculated upto 4 decimal places in the case of index funds, liquid funds and other debt  funds and NAV for equity and balanced funds is to be calculated upto at
least 2 decimal places.

95) From 1.4.2018 onwards, which of the following is true if the asset is held for more than 365 days?
Tax on equity and equity funds = 10% of all profits booked in that Financial year
Tax on equity and equity funds = 15% of all profits booked in that Financial year
Tax on equity and equity funds = 10% of all profits booked in that Financial year beyond 2 lacs
Tax on equity and equity funds = 10% of all profits booked in that Financial year beyond 1 lac

96) Basis risk exists in Arbitrage funds – True/False
THE ANSWER IS “TRUE” - IT IS THE RISK THAT ONE MAY NOT BE ABLE TO REVERSE THE POSITION IN CASH AND FUTURES SEGMENT AT THE SAME TIME – CLEARLY MENTIONED IN THE STUDY MATERIAL