IIBF & NISM Adda

Sunday, 13 December 2020

EXPORT IMPORT CREDIT MCQs

EXPORT IMPORT CREDIT MCQs

1. Minimum andmaximum amount up to which the Gold Credit card can be issued to exporter is Rs

________ lac and Rs lac. : (a) 100,1000 (b) 50, 500 (c) 100, 5000

(d) 20,200 (e) None of these as it is based on anticipated turnover.**

2. Aspertheexchangecontrolregulations,thepaymentforexportsshouldingeneralberealizedwithina

periodof:(a) 12months fromdate of shipment** (b) 3months from date of shipment

(e) 45 days formdate of shipment

3. Units in a special economic zone are permitted to realise and repatriate to India the full export value of

goods or software within a period of......................................... from the date of shipment.

(a) 3months (b) 6months (c) 180 days (d) 360 days (e) none of these as there is no time limit*

4. In respectof shipmentsmade toIndianownedwarehouses abroad establishedwithpermissionof RBI,

export proceeds shouldbe realizedwithin:

(a) 6 months (b)3 months (c) 9 months (d)15 months* (e) 150 days

5. RBImonitorsoverdueexportbills-not realizedwithinthestipulatedtimeby calling for ahalf yearly

statement fromADs referredtoas : (a) BEF (b)XOS** (c) GTE-1 (d) ST-9 (e) ENC

6.Packing credit advances mean :

advances granted to industrial units for packing of manufactured goods for sale in Indiaadvances granted to eligible exporters for purchase/manufacture/processing/transporting/packing etc. of goods meant for export*

(d) any one or more of the above (e) none of the above.

7. To be eligible for packing credit advances the customer :

(a) should not be in the caution list of RBI or specific approval list of ECGC

(b) must be holding importer/exporter code number allotted byDGFT

8. Packing credit advances is normally allowed for :

(a) 90 days (b) 60 days (c) 360 days (d) 180 days (e) as per requirement of the exporter**

9. `Normal Transit Period ' in the context of export financemeans:

(a) the number of days the documents take to reach destination

(b) the gap between period taken by the ship and the documents to reach destination

(d) the number of days fixed by FEDAI and is the average period normally involved from date of negotiation to credit to

NOSTRO account.**

(e) either (a)or (b)

10. For facilities grantedupto30.6.2010, rateof interestonpost shipment credit inrupeesupto180days in

respectofusancebills is :

(a) 12% (b) 15% (c) not exceeding BPLR

(d) not exceeding BPLR minus 2.5% (e) not exceeding BPLR plus 1.5%**

11. Refinance for export credit fromRBI is available for howmany days?

(a) 90 days . (b) 180 days** (c) 360 days (d) 270 days- (e) None of these

12. Refinance against eligible export finance is available from:

(a) RBI* (b) IDBI (c) ECGC (d) Exim Bank (e) None of these

13. On PCFC refinance is available to the extent of % of outstanding PCFC.

(a) 15% (b) 50% (c) 25% (d) Nil** (e) None of these

14. Forfacilitiesgrantedupto30.6.2010ConcessionalinterestrateonPostshipmentcreditinrupeesis

permittedupto:

(a) 180 days** (b) 90 days (c) 270 days (d) 360 days (e) None of these

15. Which of the following is not correct regarding Liberalised Remittance Scheme?

(a) Amount can be remitted for capital aswell as current account transactions

(b) Maximumamount that can be remitted in a financial year is restricted toUSD200,000

(d) Bank can allowadvance to a resident individual formaking remittance under this scheme**

(e) None of these

16_ For outward remittance formedical expenses, estimate fromthe doctor or hospital is required if the

remittance is more than USD : (a) 1 lac (b) 5 lac (c) 10 Lac (d) none of these as it is required in all cases

17. What is themaximumamount of inwardremittance that can bedone by a resident individual?

(a) USD 1 Lac (b) USD 5 lac (c) USD 10 Lac (d) None as there is no limit

18. How much amount can be released for remittance abroad for education on declaration basis and withou estimate

from educational institution?

(a) USD 1 Lac** (b) USD 5 lac (c) USD 10 Lac (d) None as there is no limit

19.Which of the following is true?

(a) If a bank has oversold position, Bankwill gain if the rate of foreign currency rises.

(b) If a bank has oversold position, Bankwill gain if the rate of foreign currency declines**

(d) If a bank has overbought position, Bankwill gain if the rate of foreign currency declines

(e) None of these

20. ADsmay allowadvance remittance for import of goodswithout any ceiling.However, if the amount of

advance remittance exceedsUSD50,00,000 or its equivalent it ismandatory to obtain-

(a) unconditional irrevocable stand byUC of an international bank of repute situated outside India

(b) guarantee froman international bank of repute situated outside India(c) guarantee of anADinIndia, if such guaranteeis issuedagainst counter guarantee of aninternational

bankof reputesituatedoutside India

(d) any one of the above (e) either (a) or (b) only***

21. BEF statement containingdetailsof remittance exceedingUSD1,00,000where evidence of import is

not furnishedwithin6months fromdateof remittance is submittedby ADs toRBIon:

(a) monthlybasisby 10thof thefollowingmonth

(b) quarterlybasisby 15thof themonthfollowing closeofquarter

(d) half yearly basis as of June/ December by 15th of succeedingmonth **(e) none of these

22. Crystallisation of import bill under UCmeans:

(a) bill is scrutinisedwhether it is as perUC terms or not

(b) it is ensured that currency of IJC and insurance is the same or not

bill and on 10th day from date of receipt in case of demand bills.

(d) none of the above as the concept is gonewith the termination of PSCFC

23. ApplicationformakingpaymenttowardsimportsintoIndiahastobemadetoauthoriseddealersby

importersin:(a) ENC (b) R-3 (c) Form A-1 *(d) Form A-4 (e) none of the above

24. Advance remittance for import of goods into India is to be allowed after obtaining guarantee froman

international bank of repute situated outside India or guarantee of an AD in India against counter-guarantee of an

international bank when amount of advance remittance exceeds:

(a) US $ 10,000 (b) US $ 25,000 (c) US $5,000 (d) US $ 15,000 (e) US $ 50,00,000***

25. How much advance remittance is allowed for import of services without guarantee of a reputed

international bank?

(a) USD 1 Lac (b) USD 5 lac **(c) USD 10 Lac (d) None as there is no limit

26. Which of the following types of Bill of Lading is not acceptable by a bank under LC?

(a) On Board (b) Clean (c) Charter Party** (d) AN of these (e) None of these

27. Interest Subvention is available on rupee export credit at the rate of 2% for loan up to Rs

but

interest rate after subvention should not be less than 7%.

(a) Rs 3 lac (b) Rs 5 lakh (c) Rs 10 lakh (d) Rs 100 lakh (e) None of these**

-28. Interest rate charged by RBI on export refinance to banks is at the rate of :

(a) Bank Rate (b) Repo Rate** (c) Reverse Repo Rate (d) Base Rate (e) None of these

29. Export Refinance is provided by RBI at the rate of __________ % of eligible outstanding export credit?

(a) 15% **(b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 100% (e) None of these

30. R Return is submitted to RBI onwhich of the following dates of themonth?

(a) 7th and 2151 (b) 15th & last day **(c) 10th, 20th and last day (d) None of these

31.Overdue import demand bills and usance bills are crystalised onwhich dates?

(a)10thday&duedate **(b)15thdayand30thday (c)30thdayand60thday(d)10thdayand60thday(e)Noneofthese

132. Which of the following is incorrect regarding export declaration forms?

(a) GR formis usedfor declaration of exports other than by postwhere customoffice not linked to EDI

(b) ExportDeclaration formis not required to be submitted for exports up toUSD25000.

(d) None of these (e) All of these

33.. Presently rate of interest on pre-shipment credit in forex (PCFC) up to 180 days is not exceeding:

(a) 200 basis points above LIBOR ***(b) 100 basis points above LIBOR

34. As per current guidelines of RBI, for loans sanctioned up to 30.6.2010, rate of interest on pre-shipment credit in rupees up to

270 days should not exceed :

(a) Bank Rate plus 2.5% (b) BPLR plus 1.5% (c) BPLR minus 2.5%**

(d) Bank Rate minus 2.5% (e) lower of (a) and (b)

35. As per the exchange control regulations, the payment for exports should in general be realized within a period of:

(a) 12 months from date of shipment** (b) 360 days from date of packing of goods

(e) 180 days from the date of receipt of consignment by the buyer in foreign country

36. Which of the following is/are not true with regard to features of Gold Card Scheme for exporters:

(a) Only exporters whose accounts have been 'Standard' continuously for 3 years are eligible

(b) Gold Card holderswill be given preference is granting packing credit in foreign currency (PCFC)

(d) Gold Card for exporters will be issued for a period of 5 years (e) none of these**

EXPORTFINANCE

Case- STUDY

An exporter approaches the popular bank for pre-shipment loanwith estimated sales ofRs.100 lakh. The bank

sanctions a limit ofRs.50 lakh,with followingmargins: Pre-shipment loan on FOB value—25%; ForeignDemandBill -

10%; Foreign usance bilis—20%.

The firmgets an order forUSD50,000 (CIF) toAustralia.On 1.1.2011when theUSD/INRratewasRs.43.50 perUSD,

the firmapproached theBank for releasing pre-shipment loan (PCL),which is released.

On 31.3.2011, the firmsubmitted export documents, drawn on sight basis forUSD45,000 as full and final shipment.

The bank purchased the documents atRs.43.85, adjusted thePCL outstanding and credited the balance amount to the

firm's account, after recovering interest forNormalTransit Period (NTP). The documents were realized on

30.4.2011 after deduction of foreign bank charges of USD 450. The bank adjusted the outstanding post

shipment advance. against the bill. Bank charged interest for pre-shipment loan@7%up to 90 days and,@8%

over 90 days up to 180 days. For Post shipment credit, theBank charged interest@7%for demand bills and@7.5%

for usance (D/A) documents up to 90 days and@8.50%thereafter and on all over dues, interest@10%.

01 What is the amount that the Bank can allow as PCL to the exporter against the given export order,

considering the profit margin of 10% and insurance and freight cost of 12%?

a) Rs.2200000 b) Rs.1650000 c) R6.1485000 d) Rs.1291950

02What is the amount of post shipment advance that can be allowed by the Bank under foreign bills

purchased, for the bill submitted by the exporter?

a) Rs.19,80,000 b) Rs.17,75,925 c) Rs.19,73,250 d) Rs.21,92,500

03 What will be the period for which the Bank charges concessional interest on DP bills, from date of

purchase of the bill?

a) 90 days b) 25 days c) 31 days d) Up to date of realization

04 in the above case, when should the bill be crystallized (latest date), if the bill remains unrealized for

over two months, from the date of purchase-(ignore holidays)?

a) On 30.4.2011 b) On 24.4.2011 c) On 24.5.2011 d) On 31.5.2011

05 What rate of interest will be applicable for charging interest on the export bill at the time of realization,

for the days beyond Normal Due Date (NDD)?

a) 8% b) 7% c) 7.5% d) 10%

Ans. 1-d 2-c 3-b 4-c 5-d Explanations:

1. FOB value =

CIF Value i.e. 50000x43.5 = 2175000

Deduct Insurance & freight 12% of 2175000 = 261000

Balance = 1914000

Deduct profit margin 10% of 1914000 =191400

Balance = 1722600

Less Margin 25% = 430650

PCL = 1291950

2. 45000 x43.85=1973250

3. Concessional• rate will be charged for normal transit period of 25 days and there after overdue

interest will be charged.

4. Crystallisation will be done when the bill becomes overdue after 25 days of normal transit period. Date of

overdue will be 25.4.2011. if bill remains overdue, it will be crystalised within 30 days i.e. up to 24.5.2011.

5. Rate of interest will be 10%as the overdue interest is stated as 10%in the question.

Gist of Important FEDAI Rules

Rule 1: Hours of Business
1.1 The exchange trading hours for Inter-bank forex market in India would be from
9.00 a.m. to 5.00 p.m. No customer transaction should be undertaken by the
Authorised Dealers after 4.30 p.m. on any working day. 1.2 Cut-off time limit of 05.00 p.m. is not applicable for cross- currency transactions.
In terms of paragraph 7.1 of Internal Control Guidelines over Foreign Exchange
Business of Reserve Bank of India (February 2011), Authorised Dealers are
permitted to undertake cross-currency transactions during extended hours, provided
the Managements lay down the extended dealing hours. 1.3 For the purpose of Foreign Exchange business, Saturday will not be treated as
a working day. 1.4 “Known holiday” is one which is known at least 4 working days before the date. A holiday that is not a “known holiday” is defined as a “suddenly declared holiday”. Rule 2: Export Transactions
2.1. Post-shipment Credit in Rupees
(c) Application of exchange rate: Foreign Currency bills will be
purchased/discounted/ negotiated at the Authorised Dealer’s current bill buying rate
or contracted rate. Interest for the normal transit period and/or usance period shall
be recovered upfront simultaneously. (d) Crystallization and Recovery:
(ii) Authorized Dealers should formulate own policy for crystallization of foreign
currency liability into rupee liability, in case of non-payment of bills on the due
date. (iii) The policy in this regard should be transparently available to the customers. (iv) For crystallization into Rupee liability, the Authorised Dealer shall apply its TT
selling rate of exchange. The amount recoverable, thereafter, shall be the
crystallized Rupee amount along with interest and charges, if any.

(v) Interest shall be recovered on the date of crystallization for the overdue period
at the appropriate rate; and thereafter till the date of recovery of the
crystallized amount. (vi) Export bills payable in countries with externalization issues shall also be
crystallized as per the policy of the authorised dealer, notwithstanding receipt
of advice of payment in local currency. (d) Realization of Bills after crystallization: After receipt of advice of realization,
the authorised dealer will apply TT buying rate or contracted rate (if any) to convert
foreign currency proceeds. (e) Dishonor of bills: In case of dishonor of a bill before crystallization, the bank
shall recover:
(ii) Rupee equivalent amount of the bill and foreign currency charges at TT selling rate. (iii) Appropriate interest and rupee denominated charges. 2.2. Application of Interest
(c) Rate of interest applicable to all export transactions shall be as per the
guidelines of Reserve Bank of India from time to time. (d) Overdue interest shall be recovered from the customer, if payment is not
received within normal transit period in case of demand bills and on/or before
notional due date/actual due date in case of usance bills, as per RBI directive. (e) Early Realization: In case of early realization, interest for the unexpired period
shall be refunded to the customer. The bank shall also pay or recover notional swap
cost as in the case of early delivery under a forward contract. 2.3. Normal Transit Period:
Concepts of normal transit period and notional due date are linked to concessional
interest rate on export bills. Normal transit period comprises the average period
normally reckoned from the date of negotiation/purchase/discount till the receipt of
bill proceeds.
It is not to be confused with the time taken for the arrival of the goods at the destination. Normal transit period for different categories of export business are laid down as below:
(c) Fixed Due Date: In the case of export usance bills, where due dates are fixed, or are reckoned from date of shipment or date of bill of exchange etc, the actual due
date is known. Therefore, in such cases, normal transit period is not applicable. (d) Bills in Foreign Currencies – 25 days
(e) Exports to Iraq under United Nations Guidelines – Max. 120 days
(g) Bills drawn in Rupees under Letters of Credit (L/C)
(i) Reimbursement provided at centre of negotiation - 3 days
(ii) Reimbursement provided in India at centre different from centre of
negotiation - 7 days
(iii) Reimbursement provided by banks outside India - 20 days
(iv) Exports to Russia under L/C where reimbursement is provided by RBI - 20 days. (h) Bills in Rupees not under Letter of Credit - 20 days
(i) TT reimbursement under Letters of Credit (L/C)
(i) Where L/C provides for reimbursement by electronic means - 5 days
(ii) Where L/C provides reimbursement claim after certain number of days
from the date of negotiation - 5 days + this additional period. 2.4. Substitution/Change in Tenor:
(o) In case of change in the usance of a bill, interest on post-shipment credit shall
be charged to the customer, as per RBI guidelines. In addition, the bank shall
charge or pay notional swap difference. Interest on outlay of funds for such
swaps shall also be recovered from the customer at rate not below base rate
of the bank concerned. (p) It is optional for banks to accept delivery of bills under a contract made for
purchase of a clean TT. In such cases, the bank shall recover/pay notional
swap difference for the relative cover. Interest at the rate not below base rate
of the bank would be charged on the outlay of funds. 2.5. Export Bills sent for collection:
(a) Application of exchange rates: The conversion of foreign currency proceeds of
export bills sent for collection or of goods sent on consignment basis shall be
done at prevailing TT buying rate or the forward contract rate, as the case
may be. The conversion to Rupee equivalent shall be made only after the
foreign currency amount is credited to the nostro account of the bank. (b) On receipt of credit advice/statement of nostro account and compliances of
guidelines, requirements of the Bank and FEMA, the Bank shall transfer funds
for the credit of exporter’s account within two working days. (c) If the above stipulated time limit is not observed, the Bank shall pay
compensation for the delayed period at the minimum interest rate charged on
export credit. Compensation for adverse movement of exchange rate, if any, shall also be paid as per the compensation policy of the bank.

Rule 3: Import Transactions
3.1 Application of exchange rate:
(a) Retirement of import bills - Exchange rate as per forward sale contract, if
forward contract is in place. Prevailing Bills selling rate, in case there is no
forward contract. (b) Crystallization of Import - same as above bill (vide para 3.3 below)
(c) For determination of stamp - As per exchange rate provided by the duty on
import bills authority concerned. 3.2. Application of Interest:
(a) Bills negotiated under import letters of credit shall carry commercial rate of
interest as applicable to banks’ domestic advances from time to time. (b) Interest remittable on interest bearing bills shall be subject to the directive of
Reserve Bank of India in this regard. 3.3. Crystallization of Import Bill under Letters of Credit. Unpaid foreign currency import bills drawn under letters of credit shall be
crystallized as per the stated policy of the bank in this respect. Rule 4 Clean Instruments:
4.1. Outward Remittance: Outward remittance shall be effected at TT selling rate of
the bank ruling on that date or at the forward contract rate. 4.2. Encashment of foreign currency notes and instruments, Foreign currency
travelers’ cheques, currency notes, foreign currency in prepaid card, debit/credit
card will be encashed at Authorised Dealer’s option at the appropriate buying rate
ruling on the date of encashment. 4. 3. Payment of foreign inward remittance, Foreign currency remittance up to an
equivalent of USD 10,000/- shall be immediately converted into Indian Rupees. Remittance in excess of equivalent of USD 10,000 shall be executed in foreign
currency. The beneficiary has the option of presenting the related instrument for
payment to the executing bank within the period prescribed under FEMA. 4.4. The applicable exchange rate for conversion of the foreign currency inward
remittance shall be TT buying rate or the contracted rate as the case may be. 4.5. Compensation for delayed payment: Authorised Dealers shall pay or send
intimation, as the case may be, to the beneficiary in two working days from the date
of receipt of credit advice / nostro statement. In case of delay, the bank shall pay
the beneficiary interest @ 2 % over its savings bank interest rate. The bank shall
also pay compensation for adverse movement of exchange rate, if any, as per its
compensation policy

Rule 5 Foreign Exchange Contracts:
5.1. Contract amounts: Exchange contracts shall be for definite amounts and
periods. When a bill contract mentions more than one rate for bills of different
deliveries, the contract must state the amount and delivery against each such rate. 5.2. Option period of delivery: Unless the date of delivery is fixed and indicated in
the contract, the option period may be specified at the discretion of the customer
subject to the condition that such option period of delivery shall not extend beyond
one month. If the fixed date of delivery or the last date of delivery option is a known
holiday, the last date for delivery shall be the preceding working day. In case of
suddenly declared holidays, the contract shall be deliverable on the next working
day. Contracts permitting option of delivery must state the first and last dates of
delivery. For Example: 18th January to 17th February, 31st January to 29th Feb. 2012. “Ready” or “Cash” merchant contract shall be deliverable on the same day. “Value next day” contract shall be deliverable on the working day immediately
succeeding the contract date. A spot contract shall be deliverable on second
succeeding working day following the contract date. A forward contract is a contract
deliverable at a future date, duration of the contract being computed from spot value
date at the time of transaction”. 5. 3. Place of delivery: All contracts shall be understood to read “to be delivered or
paid for at the Bank” and “at the named place”. 5.4. Date of delivery: Date of delivery under forward contracts shall be:
(i) In case of bills/documents negotiated, purchased or discounted - the date of
negotiation/purchase/ discount and payment of Rupees to the customer. However, in case the documents are submitted earlier than, or later than the
original delivery date, or for a different usance, the bank may treat it as proper
delivery, provided there is no change in the expected date of realization of
foreign currency calculated at the time of booking of the contract. No early
realization or late delivery charges shall be recovered in such cases. (ii) In case of export bills/documents sent for collection - Date of payment of
Rupees to the customer on realization of the bills. (iii) In case of retirement/crystallization of import bills/documents - the date of
retirement/ crystallization of liability, whichever is earlier?
5.5. Option of delivery: In all forward merchant contracts, the merchant, whether a
buyer or a seller will have the option of delivery. 5.6. Option of usance: The merchant purchase contract should state the tenor of
the bills/documents. Acceptance of delivery of bills/documents drawn for a different
tenor will be at the discretion of the bank

5.7. Merchant quotations: The exchange rate shall be quoted in direct terms i.e. so many Rupees and Paise for 1 unit or 100 units of foreign currency. 5.8. Rounding off: Rupee equivalent of the foreign currency Settlement of all
merchant transactions shall be effected on the principle of rounding off the Rupee
amounts to the nearest whole Rupee i.e. without paise. RULE 6 Early Delivery, Extension and Cancellation of Foreign Exchange
Contracts
6.1. General
(i) At the request of a customer, unless stated to the contrary in the provisions of
FEMA, 1999, it is optional for a bank to: (a). Accept or give early delivery; or
(b). Extend the contract. (ii) It is the responsibility of a customer to effect delivery or request the bank for
extension / cancellation as the case may be, on or before the maturity date of
the contract. 6.2. Early delivery: If a bank accepts or gives early delivery, the bank shall
recover/pay swap difference, if any. 6.3. Extension: Foreign exchange contracts where extension is sought by the
customers shall be cancelled (at an appropriate selling or buying rate as on the date
of cancellation) and rebooked simultaneously only at the current rate of exchange. The difference between the contracted rate, and the rate at which the contract is
cancelled, shall be recovered from/paid to the customer at the time of extension. Such request for extension shall be made on or before the maturity date of the
contract. 6.4. Cancellation
(i) In case of cancellation of a contract at the request of a customer, (the request
shall be made on or before the maturity date) the Authorised Dealer shall
recover/ pay, as the case may be, the difference between the contracted rate
and the rate at which the cancellation is effected. The recovery/payment of
exchange difference on cancellation of forward contracts before the maturity
date may be either upfront or back-ended at the discretion of banks. (ii) Rate at which cancellation is to be effected:
(a) Purchase contracts shall be cancelled at T.T. selling rate of the
contracting Authorised Dealer
(b) Sale contracts shall be cancelled at T.T. buying rate of the contracting
Authorised Dealer

(c) Where the contract is cancelled before maturity, the appropriate forward
T.T. rate shall be applied. (bi) Notwithstanding the fact that the exchange contract between the customer
and the bank becomes impossible of performance, for whatever reason,
including Government prohibitory orders, the exchange contract shall not be
deemed to have become void and the customer shall forthwith apply to the
Authorised Dealer for cancellation, as per the provisions of paragraph 6.4.(i)
and (ii) above. (iv)
(d) In the absence of any instructions from the customer, vide para 6.1(ii), a
contract which has matured shall be cancelled by the bank on the 7th working
day after the maturity date. (e) Swap cost, if any, shall be recovered from the customer under advice to him. © When a contract is cancelled after the maturity date, the customer shall not be entitled
to the exchange difference, if any, in his favour, since the contract is cancelled on
account of his default. He shall, however, be liable to pay the exchange difference
against him. 6.5. Swap cost/gain:
(ii) In all cases of early delivery of a contract, swap cost shall be recovered from
the customer, irrespective of whether an actual swap is made or not. Such
recoveries should be made either back-ended or upfront at discretion of the
bank. (iii) Payment of swap gain to a customer shall be made at the end of the swap period. 6.6. Outlay and Inflow of funds:
Authorised Dealer shall recover interest on outlay of funds for the purpose of
arranging the swap, in addition to the swap cost in case of early delivery of a
contract.
If such a swap leads to inflow of funds, interest shall be paid to the customer. Funds
outlay / inflow shall be arrived at by taking the difference between the original
contract rate and the rate at which the swap could be arranged. The rate of interest
to be recovered / paid should be determined by banks as per their policy in this
regard.

Risk management CAIIB BFM

Risk management::

1. Risk is defined as uncertainties resulting in:
a) Adverse outcome, adverse in relation to planned objectives or expectations
b) Adverse variation of profitability or outright losses (financial risk)
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these
2. Financial Risk is defined as
a) Uncertainties in cash flow b) Variations in net cash flow
c) Uncertainties resulting in outright losses
d) Uncertainties resulting in adverse variation of profitability e) Both (c) & (d)
3. Uncertainties in cash inflows and / or outflows create uncertainties in:
a) net cash flow b) profits c) Both (a) & (b) d) none of these
4_ Which of the following is not correct?
a) Lower risk implies lower variability in net cash flow
b) Higher variability in net cash flow may result in higher profits or higher losses
c) Higher risk would imply higher upside and downside potential
d) Zero risk would imply no variation in net cash flow e) None of these
5. Return on zero risk investment would be ----as compared to other opportunities
available in the market ; a) high ,b) low c) medium d) higher or low depending upon type of investment Strategic risk is a type
of : a) exchange risk b) liquidity risk c) interest rate risk d) operational risk e) none of these
6. Investment in RBI bonds at 6.5% interest rate with a maturity of 5 years is investment.
a) zero risk b) lower risk c) medium risk d) high risk
7. The capital requirement of a business would be lower when there is :
a) lower variation in net cash flow b) lower risk
c) lower possibility of loss d) all of these e) none of these
8. The key driver in managing a business is seeking enhancement in
a) Return on investment b) Risk Management capability
c) risk adjusted return on capital d) all of these e) None of these
9. Risk adjusted return on investment is:
a) Netting risk in a business or investment against the return from this
b) Managing risk on investments
c) Managing-return on investment through risk management
d) Adjusting return on investment against the risk

11.An investment will be more preferred and higher will be the reward to investors when:
a) RAROC is higher b) RAROC is lower c) RAROC is one d) none of these
12.The banking book is generally not exposed to : a) liquidity risk b) interest rate risk c) credit risk
d) operational risk e) None of these
13.Which of the following is / are characteristics of the assets held in Trading Book?
a) They are normally not held until maturity
b) They are normally held until maturity and accrual system of accounting is applied
c) Mark to market system is followed d) Both (a) & (c) e) Both (b) & (c)
14.Trading book is mainly exposed to
a) Market Risk b) Market Liquidity Risk c) Credit Risk
d) Operational Risk e) All of these
15.The transactions relating to guarantees, letters of credit, committed or back up credit lines form part of a) Banking Book b) Trading
Book, c) Off Balance Sheet Exposures d) All of these
16.The liquidity risk of banks arises from :
a) Funding of long term assets by short term liabilities
b) Funding of short term assets by long term liabilities
c) Funding of long term liabilities by short term assets
d) None of these
17. Funding liquidity risk is defined as:
a) Excess of liabilities over assets
b) Excess of long term liabilities over long term assets
c) Excess of short term liabilities over short term assets
d) Inability to obtain funds to meet cash flow obligations
18. Liquidity risk in banks manifest in different dimensions. Which of the
a) Funding risk arises from the need to replace net outflows withdrawal / non renewal of deposits
b) Time risk arises from the need to compensate for non receipt funds e.g. NPA
c) Call risk arises due to crystallization of contingent liabilities
d) Both (a) & (b) e) None of these
19.Where an asset maturing in two years at a fixed by a liability
risk will be: a) Basis risk b) Yield curve riskc) Gap risk d) embedded option Risk
20.The risk of adverse variance of the mark to market value of change in market prices of interest rate instruments, equities, is called: a)
Price Risk b) Market Risk c) Translation Risk d) Both a & b
21.ln the financial market bond prices and yields are
a) inversely related b) directly related ,
c) inversely or directly related depending on type of bond d) none of these
22.When a bank is unable to conclude a large transaction in a particular instrument near the current market price, it is called as a)
Market risk b) Market Liquidity risk c) Default risk d) counter party risk
23.Potential of a bank borrower or counterparty to fail to meet its obligations according to agreed terms is called: a) credit risk b)
default risk c) market liquidity d) market risk e) either (a) or (b)
24.The risk related to non performance of the trading partners due to counter party's refusal
and or inability to perform is called ------risk : a) Liquidity, b) Operational , c) Counter Party , d) None
25. Country risk is an example of
a) Market risk b) Credit risk c) Operational risk d) Liquidity risk
The risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or from external events is called as
risk
a) legal b) compliance c) Fraud d) Operational
26. Which of the following is not a operational risk?
a) Compliance risk b) Transaction risk c) Legal Risk
d) Counter party risk e) System risk
27. Strategic Risk and Reputation Risk fall in the category of
a) Market risk b) credit risk c) Operational risk d) none of these
Risk arising from fraud, failed business processes and inability to maintain business continuity : a) Transaction risk b)
compliance risk c) credit risk d) none of these
28. Risk of legal or regulatory sanction, financial loss or reputation loss that a bank may suffer as a result of its failure
to comply with any or all of the applicable laws, regulations etc. is called as:
a) Transaction risk b) Compliance risk, c) legal risk d) Systems risk
Compiled by Sanjay Kumar Trivedy, ChiefManager, Canara Bank, Shrigonda,Ahmed Nagar, Maharashtra 52 | P a g e
31.Risk arising from adverse business decisions, improper implementation of decisions, or lack of responsiveness to industry changes is
called:
a) Reputation risk b) Strategic risk c) Operational risk d) Management risk
32. Reputation Risk which arises from negative public opinion may result in:
a) exposing an institution to litigation b) financial loss
c) decline in customer base d) all of these e) none of these
33.Risk associated with a portfolio is always less than the weighted average of risks of individual items in the portfolio due to
a) Diversification of risks
b) The fact that all accounts in a portfolio will not behave in unidirectional manner
c) The fact that risks in all the accounts in a portfolio will not materialize simultaneously,
d) Both (a) & (b) only e) All of these
34.Aggregated risk of the organizations as a whole is called:
a) Transaction risk b) Portfolio risk c) Total risk d) None of these

ANSWER ::
1 A 2 E 3 C 4 E 5 B 6 E 7 A 8 D 9 C
11 A 12 E 13 D 14 E 15 C 16 A 17 D 18 E 19 C 20 D
21 A 22 B 23 E 24 C 25 B 26 D 27 D 28 D 29 A 30 B
31 B 32 D 33 E 34 B

TREASURY PRODUCTS

1) Which of the following currency is not fully convertible?
a) USD b) EURO c) INR d) GBP
2) What are the Spot Trades?
a) It is the process of settlement where payment and receipts of funds are settled in respective currencies.
b) The settlement takes place within 2 working days from the trade date.
c) Currency may be bought or sold with settlement on the same date i.e. To day (TOD)
d) The settlement can be on the -next day he. Tomorrow (TOM)
3) Which of the following is significant about spot trade?
a) All rates quoted on the screen are for spot trade unless otherwise mentioned
b) TOD and TOM rates are generally quoted at a discount to the spot rate.
c) TOD and TOM rates are less favourable to buyer d) All these
4) What is forward contract?
a) It is a contract for purchase and sale of currency at a future date.
b) The exchange rate for a future contract is quoted on the day of contract.
c) The contract between buyer and seller is called forward contract.
d) All the above
5) Which of the following is true regarding a forward contract?
a) Treasury may have forward contracts with customers or Banks as counterparties.
b) Customers cover currency risk through forward contract.
c) Treasury may cover its customer exposure by taking reverse position in Inter-Bank market.
d) All the above
6) The features of forward rates are:
a) They are not projected on the basis of exchange rate movement in the market
b) Forward rates are decided on the basis of interest rate differential of two currencies.
c) The interest rate differential is added to the spot rate for low interest yielding currency and deducted
from the spot rate for high interest yielding currency
d) All the above
7) Which of the following are True?
a) Forward rate reflects interest rate differential only in prefect markets.
b) Perfect markets are where currency is fully convertible and highly liquid.
c) When currency is not fully convertible the demand for forward contract influences
the forward exchange rate d) All these
8) The features of a swap are:
a) A combination of spot and forward transactions is called a swap.
b) Buying in the spot market and selling same amount in forward market or vice-versa is swap.
c) Swap is mainly used for funding requirements_ d) All these
9) A Bank may have foreign exchange surpluses from the following sources:
a) Profit from overseas Branch operations
b) Forex Borrowing in foreign domestic market
c) Foreign currency and convertible rupee deposits with branches
d) All the above

10) A Treasury may have surplus forex from the following sources:
a) Surpluses net of Bank's -lending in foreign currency
b) Floating funds on account of customer transactions
c) EEFC funds maintained in current account d) All these
11) The surplus forex can be invested by a Treasury in:
a) Inter-Bank loans b) Short term investments c) Nostro Account
d) Any or all of these
12) Which of the followings are the sources for short-term investments?
a) Treasury Bills issued by foreign governments
b) Commercial paper
c) Other debt instruments issued by multi lateral institutions
d) All the above
13) What is a Nostro Account?
a) This is a current account denominated in foreign currency maintained by a Bank with the correspondent Bank in the
home country of the currency.
b) Nostro Account does not attract any interest.
c) Many correspondent Banks provide automatic investment facility for funds held
overnight which earn nominal interest. d) All these
14)What is Money Market?
a) It is place for raising and deploying short term resources where maturity does not exceed one year.
b) Inter-Bank market is divided as call money and term money.
c) Call money market is also overnight market where borrowed funds are repaid on the next working day.
d) Notice money market is where funds are placed beyond overnight and upto 14 days.
15) The participants in call/notice money market are:
a) The major players are Banks and primary dealers.
b) Non-Banking financial companies can only lend the surplus funds upto specified limit_
c) NBFC can not participate in this market d) Both (a) and (c)
16) Which of the followings are the features to Treasury Bills?
a) The T-Bills are issued by the RBI on behalf of central govt. for pre-determined amount.
b) The interest is by way of discount.
c) The price is determined through an auction process d) All these
17) The maturity period of T-Bills is:
a) 91 days b) 364 days c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
18) Which of the followings is relevant to T-Bills?
a) Each issue of 91 days T-Bill is for Rs_ 500 crore and auction is conducted weekly onWednesday.
b) Each issue of 364 days is for Rs. 1000 crore and it is auctioned fortnightly
c) The Banks park short term funds in T-Bills d) All these
19) The Benefits of T-Bills are:
a) It is Risk free investment
b) It yields interest higher than the call money market.
c) It is possible to trade T-Bill in secondary market d) All these
20) Which of the followings is correct regarding T-Bill?
a) It is in the Electronic form and held in SGL Account maintained by Banks with RBI.
b) Depository participants can also operate through SGL Account.
c) The settlement of T-Bills is through Clearing Corporation of India d) All these
21) If a T-Bill is of 91 days is priced at 99.26, what does it signify?
a) It will yield interest at 2.99%
b) This is known as implicit yield.
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
22) The_ features of the commercial paper are:
a) It is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of promissory note.
b) The highly rated corporate Borrowers can raise short term funds through this instrument.
c) It is an additional instrument to the investing community d) All these
23) -The time limit for issuing a CP is:
a) Minimum maturity 7 days b) Maximum maturity one year
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
24) The requirements for issuing a commercial paper are:

a) The company issuing CP should have minimum credit rating of P2.
b) Banks can invest in CP only if it is issued in D-mat form
c) The minimum amount of CP is Rs. 5 lac d) All these
25) Who issues guidelines for issue of CP?
a) RBI
b) Market practices prescribed by FIMMDA (Fixed Income and Money Market and Derivatives Association of India) c) (a)
and (b) both d) None of these
26) A company issuing CP must satisfy the conditions:
a) Tangible Net worth of the company should not be less than Rs. 4 crore
b) The company should be enjoying working capital limit with Bank/financial institution
c) The Borrowal Account should be classified as standard Asset d) All these
27) How does Tangible Net Worth is arrived at?
a) Capital b) Free Reserves c) (a) + (b) — Intangible Assets if any
d) None of these
28) Which of the following is relevant about commercial paper?
a) It is issued for discounted amount i.e. less than face value
b) The price is quoted for face value
c) It is negotiable instrument d) All these
29) Which of the following statements regarding commercial paper is
not correct?
a) CP is a substitute to working capital
b) Interest rates are at par with PLR
c) It should be compulsory in D-mat form
d) Purchase and sale of CP is effected through the depository participants
30) Banks prefer to invest in CP through Treasury because :
a) Credit Risk is relatively low.
b) Yield on CP is higher than inter-bank money market.
c) There is no liquidity risk d) All these
31) Which of the following- Credit Rating Agencies have been authorized by RBI for
Rating?
a) ICRA b) CRISIL c) CARE and FITCH Ratings India Ltd. d) All these
32) The provisions for issue of commercial paper are:
a) Maximum period for subscription to an issue of CP is two weeks from the date of opening of issue.
b) CPs can be issued on a single date or in parts on different dates.
c) The same issue of CP should have the same date of maturity d) All these
33) The process of issue a CP involves:
a) The Bank is appointed as issuing and paying agent.
b) The Bank would assess the requirement and the extent to which the CP issue is linked with credit limit.
c) The potential investors are given a copy of IPA certificates d) All these
34) The features of certificate of Deposit are:
a) It is a debt instrument issued-by Bank against deposit of funds
b) It is a negotiable instrument
c) It bears interest rate higher than regular deposits of the Bank. d) All these
35) The requirements of certificate of Deposit are:
a) Minimum amount of deposit is Rs. 1 lac
b)_ The maturity period may range from 7 days to one year
c) It is an additional source for investment to Banks and corporates d) All these
36) What is a Reverse Repo?
a) It is a contract to buy securities and then to sell them back at an agreed future date and price.
b) It provides opportunity for short term investments of surplus funds
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
37) What is Repo?
a) It is an instrument of borrowing funds for a short period.
b) It involves selling a security and simultaneously agreeing to repurchase it at a future date for a slightly higher price.
c) The price difference is called interest d) All these
38) The significance of Repo is:
a) It is a tool used by RBI for open market operations.

b) It affects liquidity in the system.
c) None of these d) Both (a) and (b)
39) The commercial Banks participate in Repo transactions because of:
a) To meet short fall of CRR --
b) To meet short fall in SLR
e) The interest on Repo is lower than call market d) All these
40) Repo transactions are regulated by:
a) RBI b) Securities Contracts Regulations Act c) (a) and (b) both d) None
41) Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Repo is a short term money market instrument
b) The Repo Rate and period is announced by RBI,c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
42) What is the Repo Rate with effect from 16th Sept 2010?
a) 5% b) 5.25% C) 5.75% d) 6% e) None of these
43) What is the Reverse Repo Rate with effect from lSept 2010?
a) 4% b) 4.25% c) 4.75% d) 5% e) None of these
44) The process of Repo transaction is:
a) A Bank may sell securities to the counterparty with an agreement to repurchase the same securities after a certain
period at pre determined price.
b) The bank gets cash in exchange of securities and pays back the cash after a certain period and get back the securities.
c) The difference between sale price and repurchase price is interest d) All these
45) The advantage to the counterparty under a Repo transaction is:
a) It earns interest on secured [ending.
b) It holds securities which serves the purpose of meeting SLR requirements.
c) The value of securities is higher by a margin to cover price Risk. d) All these
46) Which of the following statements is correct? .
a) The margin maintained on Repo securities is called hair cut as principal amount exchanged against
securities is lower than the market value of securities
b) RBI uses Repo to control liquidity
c) Banks and primary dealers sell govt. securities to RBI and avail liquidity d) All these
47) Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) RBI uses Repo Transactions under liquidity adjustment facility
b) Liquidity is not affected through lending to Banks under a Repo Transaction.
c) Absorption of liquidity is done by accepting deposits from Banks.
d) Absorption of liquidity by accepting deposits from Banks is known as Reverse Repo.
48) Which of the following statements is correct?
a) RBI has commercial repo auctions on overnight basis.
b) Repo and Reverse Repo Rates have been pre-fixed.
c) RBI has full discretion to change the frequency of auction. d) All these
49) The process of Bill Re-discounting is:
a) Treasury will discount Bill of Exchange of short term nature which are already discounted with the banks.
b) Rediscounting is done at money market rates.
c) The rediscounting rates are negotiable between the lending Bank and borrowing Bank. d) All the above
50) The advantage to the lending Bank is:
a) The surplus funds are invested at term money rate
b) Credit Risk is low as lending Bank has recourse to the discounting Bank
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
51) The benefits to borrowing Bank is :
a) It is able to infuse liquidity from out of existing Assets
b) Its capital adequacy ratio is improved or rediscounted bills are added to Inter-Bank liability c) (a) and (b) both
d) All these
52) Which of the followings is significant regarding government securities?
a) They are issued by Public Debt Office of RBI.
b) State govts. Issue state development Bonds.
c) Govt. securities are sold through auction conducted by RBI d) All these
53) Which of the followings is correct?
a) Interest is paid on face value of the bond at coupon rate.
b) RBI arrives at a cut off price based on bids submitted by Banks and primary dealers.

c) The price may be higher or lower than the face value d) All these
54) Price movement of Bond depends on:
a) Demand of the Bond which depends on liquidity in the system.
b) The yield on Bond is different from coupon rate.
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
55) If 10 years G. sec. at 7.37 per cent is priced at 104.80, what would be the yield'
a) 6.67% b) 5.42% c) 6.15% d) None of these
56) The interest rates in the economy depends on:
a) Rate of inflation b) GDP growth c) Other economic indicators
d) A combination of all these
57) The variety of Bonds may include: a) Step up coupons b) Coupons linked to inflation c) Floating rate coupons
d) Any of these
58) What is STRIPS:
a) Separately registered interest and principal securities
b) Under this process principal and interest are treated as separate zero coupon securities c) (a) and (b) both
d) None of these
59) What is corporate debt paper?
a) It includes medium and long term bonds and debentures issued by corporates and financial institutions
b) Yield on Bonds is higher than the govt. securities
c) They are called non-SLR securities where banks can invest d) All these
60) Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) Tier-2 capital Bonds issued by Banks fall under the category of corporate debt paper.
b) Bonds issued by corporates are not that liquid_
c) The bonds are issued in D-mat form.
d) Bank Treasury finds an attractive investment in corporate debt paper.
61) Which of the following statements is correct regarding corporate debt paper?
a) Higher the credit risk higher is the yield.
b) Global ratings are necessary if the debt paper is issued in International market.
c) Treasury can invest FCNR deposit funds and other forex surpluses in global debt paper. d) All the above
62) Which of the followings is correct?
a) Debentures are issued by private companies.
b) Bonds mainly issued by public sector companies.
c) Government does not provide guaranter on PSU Bonds d) All these
63) The material difference between debentures and bonds is:
a) Debentures are governed by relevant provisions of company law.
b) Debentures are transferable on registration
c) Bonds are negotiable instrument governed by Law of Contract. d) All these
64) The Bond can be : a) Zero Coupon Bond b) Floating Rate Bond c) Deep Discount Bond
d) Any of these
65) Which of the followings is not correct?
a) Debenture and Bonds can be issued with redemption in instruments over a period.
b) They can be issued with a premium or redemption.
c) There are no Bonds with put and call option
d) Bonds secured by stocks or other collateral are called collaterised obligations
66) Which of the followings is relevant regarding issue of Bonds and debentures?
a) The holders have prior legal claim over the equity and preference stock holders.
b) The Trustee appointed by issuing company protects the rights of debenture holders.
c) The Trustee can initiate legal action against the company in case of any default.
d) All of the above
67) Companies i s suing unsecured debentures and bonds have to compl y wi th the
provision of :
a) Companies Acceptance of Deposit Rules 1975 b) SEBI
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
68) What is a convertible Bond?
a) It is a mix of Debt and Equity.
b) Bond holder has an option to convert debt into equity on a fixed date.

c) The conversion price is pre-determined d) All these
69) The advantages of convertible Bonds are:
a) If the stock price is higher than prefixed conversion price, the investor would convert debt into Equity.
b) Company will have no debt repayment
c) The Equity of the company will be strengthened d) All these
70) Which of the followings are derivative products treated on stock exchange?
a) Index features b) Index options c) Stock futures and options d) All these
71) Provisions to invest in Equities are:
a) Banks can invest in Equities upto 20% of their net owned funds
b) Stock prices are highly volatile
c) Banks prefer low risk investments d) All these
72) The provision on Fll investments are:
a) Foreign currency funds are converted into rupee for portfolio investors.
b) Rupee funds with profits are converted into foreign currency for repatriation
c) Flls are allowed to invest in debt market d) All these
73) What is External Commercial Borrowings?
a) Indian companies can borrow on global market through Bank loan or issue of debt paper.
b) The debt can be repaid by reconversion of rupee funds into foreign currency
c) (a) and. (b) both d) None of these
74) The guidelines for investment of foreign currency funds of Banks are?
a) FCNR deposits can be invested in overseas market and for domestic lending :n foreign currency.
b) Banks are permitted to borrow/invest in overseas market 50% of Tier-I Capital.
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
75) What is Export Earners Foreign Currency Account?
a) Exporters are allowed to hold 100% export proceeds in a Current Account. wtth
b) No interest is paid on such deposits
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
76) What is Gilts?
a) Securities issued by government or Treasuries.
b) They do not have any credit Risk, c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
77) SGL Account is:
a) Subsidiary General Ledger
b) It is maintained by public debt office of RBI
c) Banks maintain exclusively government Securities Accounts d) All of these
78) Which of the followings is correct?
a) Counterparty is the other party to a Transaction
b) Yield is internal rate of return where interest is also reinvested at original coupon rate.
c) Foreign currency deposits are denominated in foreign currency d) All of these
79) The features of FCNR deposit are:
a) They are denominated either in USD, GBP, JPY or EURO, Can- Dollar and Aus Dollar.
b) The deposits are maintained by non-resident Indians.
c) Interest on FCNR deposits is regulated by RBI d) All of these
80) Broad money or M3 consists of :
a) Currency in circulation b) Demand and time deposits with Banks
c) Deposits of Banks and other deposits with RBI d) All of these
81) Monetary policy of RBI aims at:
a) Controlling rate of inflation b) Ensuring stability of financial market
c) Regulating money supply d) All of these
82) The tools in the hands of RBI for direct control of money supply are:
a) CRR b) SLR c) (a)-and (b) both d) None of these
83) CRR is calculated on net Demand and Time liabilities which contain:
a) Demand deposits and Time deposits
b) Overseas Borrowings
c) Foreign outward remittances and other demand and time liabilities d) All of these
84) The Demand deposits include:
a) Current and Savings Deposits b) Margin Money for Letter of Credits
c) Overdue Fixed Deposits d) All these
85) Other Demand and Time Liabilities include:
ayAccrued Interest b) Credit Balance in Suspense Account
c) Any other liability d) All these
86) In which of the following categories only 3% minimum CRR is required to be
maintained?
a) Net Inter-Bank call borrowing/deposits where maturity does not exceed 14 days,
b) Credit Balance in ACU (Asian Currency Unit) Accounts
c) Demand and Time liabilities in respect of off shore Banking units d) None of these
87) Banks need not maintain CRR on :
a) Paid up capital, reserves, retained profits, refinance from apex institutions.
b) Excess provision for Income tax .
c) Claims received from DICGC/ECGC d) All these
88) Which of the followings is correct?
a) CRR need not be maintained on Inter-Bank term deposits of original maturity upto one year
b) RBI does not pay interest on CRR Balance
c) The Demand and Time l iabil i ties as on the report ing Friday of second previous
fortnight will be basis for CRR calculation d) All these
89) SLR can be maintained in the form of following Assets:
a) Cash Balance in excess of CRR requirements
b) ,Gold at current market price
c) Approved securities valued as per RBI norms d) All these
90) What is Liquidity Adjustment Facility?
a) It is the mechanism whereby RBI lends funds to Banking sector through repo instrument
b) This is used to monitor day to day market liquidity
c) This is exclusively applicable to repo and reverse repo transactions with RBI
d) All these
91) The features of Negotiated Dealing System are:
a) This is a system where securities clearing against assured payment is handed by Clearing Corporation of India.
b) Physical delivery of cheques are not required.
c) All Inter-Bank Money Market deals are done through Negotiated Dealing System
d) All the above
92) The feature of Real Time Gross Settlement System are:
a) All Inter-Bank payments are settled instantly.
b) Banks' Accounts with all the Branch offices of RBI are also integrated.
c) Since it is instant payment system, Banks need to maintain adequate funds
throughout the day.
d) All the above
93) Which of the following is correct?
a) Asian currency unit is a mechanism for payment to/from members of Asian clearing union.
b) Off shore Banking units render special Banking services only to overseas customers.
c) SWIFT is a secure worldwide financial messaging system exclusive to Banks.
d) All the above
94) What is DVP?
a) Delivery vesus Payment system where one account is debited and another account is credit at the same time.
b) In case of securities purchase funding account is debited and securities account is credited.
c) This facilitates prompt settlement of security transactions. d) All these

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