Sunday, 24 October 2021

CASE STUDIES ON DOCUMENTARY CREDITS AND UCP600

  CASE STUDIES ON DOCUMENTARY CREDITS AND UCP600


CASE STUDY 1

Banks have a practice of calling for the original LC at the time of presentation of documents and

endorse any drawings on its reverse.

LC's may be made available by Acceptance / Defferred Payment / Negotiation and to be freely

available with any bank.

Is it mandatory to endorse the original LC on its reverse?

Analysis

Most LCs contain a clause indicating such a requirement.

The practice is required by SWIFT standards cat.7, for freely negotiable credits, available with any

bank.

Conclusion

What is the problem?

CASE STUDY 2

If a nominated bank does not incur a deffered payment undertaking on presentation of complying

documents and forwards them to the Issuing Bank.

Subsequently can it a purchases a deferred payment undertaking from the issuing bank and seek

protection under UCP600?

Articles 7c. UCP600

CASE STUDY 3

If a LC is confirmed and is available with the Confirming Bank and the beneficiary chooses to

present the document directly to the Issuing Bank and the Issuing Bank wrongfully dishonors.

Should the confirming bank honor the presentation given that the LC has meanwhile expired?

Article 8a. UCP600

CASE STUDY 4

A documentary credit requires all documents must to be issued in English language.

The presentation includes a Certificate of Origin bearing a Stamp / Legalisation done in another

language

Is this a discrepancy?

Issued in?

CASE STUDY 5

As per Article 38 of UCP 600, A LC can be transferred to more than one second beneficiary. This

can be done preferably when the Partial Shipments are allowed under the LC.

If the first Beneficiary is certain that he would be able to comply with article 31(b) of UCP600 (re

partial shipments – submission of multiple BLs on the same voyage), can a LC be transferred to

more than one second beneficiary even if the LC states Partial Shipment is prohibited provided

Article 38.d. UCP600

CASE STUDY 6

If the nominated bank does not accept a bill of exchange drawn on them by the beneficiary, can the

same bill of exchange be presented to the issuing bank or should they present a fresh bill of

exchange drawn on the Issuing Bank

UCP Article 7a (iv)

CASE STUDY 7


Under the documents required a LC calls for a Bill of Lading.

Bill of Lading submitted with the documents is signed by a forwarder as carrier.

Is it a discrepancy?

Article 20 UCP600

CASE STUDY 8

L/C requirement: invoices in 3 fold and Legalized by Chamber of Commerce.

Beneficiary submits invoices with only one legalized and others without being legalized.

Is it a discrepancy?

Article 17e. UCP600

CASE STUDY 9

LC calls for a Beneficiary's certificate stating the expiry date (of the product).

The certificate presented states only the month and the year of expiry.

Is it a discrepancy?

Bankers are expected to have a certain amount of general knowledge and common sense

CASE STUDY 10

The documents required in a transferable LC calls for an Inspection Certificate issued by the First

Beneficiary.

At the request of the First Beneficiary LC is transferred to a Second Beneficiary without calling for

the Inspection Certificate, which the first beneficiary undertakes to submit along with drafts and

invoices to be presented for substitution.

Has the Transferring Bank acted in aprudent manner.

Sub-article 38g of UCP600

CASE STUDY 11

A LC states the last date for shipment as 09 November 2014 and the expiry as 30 November 2014,

is silent on the period of presentation and also states ‘Stale Bills of Lading Acceptable”.

Documents presented on 01 October 2014 with the Bill of Lading dated 01 June 2014 refused by

the Issuing Bank stating Late Presentation (not presented within 21 days after the BL date as per

article 14.c UCP600)..

The negotiating Bank does not agree with the reason for refusal.

Should the Issuing Bank honour?

Rule A19.b ISBP745

Case Study 12

The documentary credit in question issued subject to UCP600 called for shipment from “ANY

NORTH EUROPEAN PORT” and the transport document required in field 46a was: “FULL SET OF

CLEAN ON BOARD BILL OF LADING”.

The Nominated Bank received a bill of lading evidencing shipment from Antwerp, which we found to

be within the scope of North Europe, since the geographical area of North Europe was not defined

in the Credit.

The Issuing Bank refused the documents arguing that Antwerp is not within the geographical area

or range stated in the Credit.

The Issuing Bank further argued that Belgium is in Western Europe and not in Northern Europe and

quoted an internet website (www.mapsofworld.com) where we could easily recheck.

Is the discrepancy cited by the issuing bank valid?

Analysis

UCP 600 sub-article 14 (a) states that a bank must examine a presentation on the basis of the

documents alone.

It is not a matter for the ICC Banking Commission to define or determine geographical areas or

ranges. The requirement in the credit is vague and clearly ambiguous.

In accordance with ISBP 745 Preliminary Considerations paragraph (v), the applicant bears the risk

of any ambiguity in its instructions to issue or amend a credit.

Furthermore, an issuing bank should ensure that any credit or amendment it issues is not

ambiguous or conflicting in its terms and conditions.

It should not be necessary to refer to external resources in order to determine relevant facts.

Conclusion

The applicant and issuing bank must bear the risk of ambiguity for failing to express specifically how

“Any North European Port‟ is to be defined.

In this case, the document is not discrepant.

Case Study 13

Under a credit issued subject to UCP600 by Bank V in country W available by negotiation and

expiring with Bank A in country N, Bank A added its confirmation. Upon presentation of complying

documents Bank A negotiated and discounted. Documents were refused by Bank V for the following

reason: “Health Certificate to be presented in 1 original and 2 copies but only presented in 1 original

plus 1 copy.”

Bank A stated that all required originals and copies were presented to them within the time limits

foreseen by the credit, but admitted to having made an operational mistake by leaving one copy of

the Health Certificate in their file and by only sending 1 original and 1 copy to Bank V.

Bank A requested Bank V to create a second copy on Bank A‟s account, or to instruct Bank A to

courier the missing copy, but Bank V did not provide agreement. In the absence of any instructions,

and after the expiry date of the credit, Bank A couriered the missing copy document to Bank V,

certifying on their letter that it was presented within the time limits of the credit. Bank V still refused

to honour the presentation.

Has the Issuing Bank the right to refuse the documents on the basis of the missing copy of the

Health Certificate, in spite of the fact that the missing copy was sent to them after the expiry date,

but with the declaration of the negotiating bank that the copy was presented within the time limits

foreseen under the LC?

Analysis

The credit was available for negotiation with the Nominated Bank and expired at their counters.

UCP 600 sub-article 6 (d) (ii) states: “The place of the bank with which the credit is available is the

place for presentation. The place for presentation under a credit available with any bank is that of

any bank. A place for presentation other than that of the issuing bank is in addition to the place of

the issuing bank.”

UCP 600 article 6 (e) states: “Except as provided in sub-article 29 (a), a presentation by or on

behalf of the beneficiary must be made on or before the expiry date.”

In accordance with UCP 600 sub-article 7 (c) an Issuing Bank undertakes to reimburse a nominated

Bank that has honoured or negotiated a complying presentation and forwarded the documents to

the Issuing Bank.

The Issuing Bank did not receive all the required documents and subsequently issued a refusal

notice. The Nominated Bank, after an exchange of correspondence with the Issuing Bank,

forwarded the missing copy document to the issuing bank certifying that it had been presented

within the time limits required by the credit.

Conclusion

The initial cited discrepancy is valid. However, upon receipt by the issuing bank of the missing copy

document, and on the basis that it also received a certification from the negotiating bank that the

document was presented within the time limits required by the credit, the issuing bank must

reimburse the confirming bank.

Cade Study 14

Under a credit issued by Bank V in country V available by negotiation and expiring with Bank A in

country N, Bank A added its confirmation. Upon presentation of complying documents Bank A

negotiated and discounted. Documents were refused by Bank V for the following reason: “Health

Certificate to be presented in 1 original and 2 copies but only presented in 1 original plus 1 copy.”

Bank A stated that all required originals and copies were presented to them within the time limits

foreseen by the credit, but admitted to having made an operational mistake by leaving one copy of

the Health Certificate in their file and by only sending 1 original and 1 copy to Bank V.

Bank A requested Bank V to create a second copy on Bank A‟s account, or to instruct Bank A to

courier the missing copy, but bank V did not provide agreement. In the absence of any instructions,

and after the expiry date of the credit, Bank A couriered the missing copy document to Bank V,

certifying on their letter that it was presented within the time limits of the credit. Bank V still refused

to honour the presentation.

Has the Issuing Bank the right to refuse the documents on the basis of the missing copy of the

Health Certificate, in spite of the fact that the missing copy was sent to them after the expiry date,

but with the declaration of the negotiating bank that the copy was presented within the time limits

foreseen under the LC?

Analysis

Although not indicated in the query, it is assumed that the credit was issued subject to UCP 600.

The credit was available for negotiation with the nominated bank and expired at their counters.

UCP 600 sub-article 6 (d) (ii) states: “The place of the bank with which the credit is available is the

place for presentation. The place for presentation under a credit available with any bank is that of

any bank. A place for presentation other than that of the issuing bank is in addition to the place of

the Issuing Bank.”

UCP 600 article 6 (e) states: “Except as provided in sub-article 29 (a), a presentation by or on

behalf of the beneficiary must be made on or before the expiry date.”

In accordance with UCP 600 sub-article 7 (c) an issuing bank undertakes to reimburse a nominated

bank that has honoured or negotiated a complying presentation and forwarded the documents to

the issuing bank.

The issuing bank did not receive all the required documents and subsequently issued a refusal

notice. The nominated bank, after an exchange of correspondence with the issuing bank, forwarded

the missing copy document to the issuing bank certifying that it had been presented within the time

limits required by the credit.

Conclusion

The initial cited discrepancy is valid. However, upon receipt by the issuing bank of the missing copy

document, and on the basis that it also received a certification from the negotiating bank that the

document was presented within the time limits required by the credit, the issuing bank must

reimburse the confirming bank.

Cade Study 15

Bank A (Issuing Bank) in country A issued a standby credit subject to UCP 600 which was advised

to the beneficiary in country B by Bank B (Advising Bank).

The beneficiary presented a demand under the credit which arrived at the counters of the Bank A

before the expiry date of the credit.

Bank A issued a notice of refusal on the third day following presentation stating one discrepancy:

“Original Standby LC Not Presented”.

There was no wording in the credit requiring presentation of the original Standby LC.

1) Is the discrepancy stated by the Bank A correct?

2) Can Bank A raise further discrepancies at a later date in respect of the one presentation made by

the beneficiary under the credit?

Analysis

1) The wording of the credit did not require the presentation of the original credit as part of the

claim. Unless the credit was issued by mail or in paper format, it is doubtful how the originality of the

document could be determined. Accordingly, unless otherwise specifically required within the terms

and conditions of a credit, there is no requirement for the original credit to be included in the

presentation.

2) UCP 600 sub-article 16 (c) states that when a bank decides to refuse or negotiate, it must give a

single notice to that effect to the presenter. UCP 600 clearly does not allow for further discrepancies

to be raised that were apparent at the time of the initial presentation, as is referred to within former

ICC Opinions R196, R328, R271 and TA764rev.

Conclusion

1) The discrepancy is not valid.

2) Additional discrepancies are not to be considered, as banks only have one opportunity to raise

discrepancies for each presentation.

Cade Study 16

Under a documentary credit subject to UCP 600 the beneficiary of the L/C presented, amongst

other documents, a charter party bill of lading (CPBL), made out in accordance with the terms and

conditions of the respective L/C, signed and stamped as shown hereafter:

According to UCP 600 sub-article 22 (a) (i), a CPBL must appear to be signed by any of the

following parties:

· the master,

· the owner,

· the charterer, or

· a named agent for any of the above.

The stamp shows, however, that the master is signing “On behalf of Owners”.

As this is a case not contemplated by UCP 600 sub-article 22 (a) (i) like the signing by a carrier or a

named agent for the carrier as indicated in Official Opinion 470/TA.775rev., we would like to know

the opinion of the ICC Banking Commission to this case, i.e. whether this is an acceptable way of

signing or not: If the answer is that it is not acceptable, whether it would be acceptable, if the name

of the owner(s) would be stated.

Analysis

UCP 600 sub-article 22 (a) (i) states that a CPBL must appear to be signed by:

· the master or a named agent for or on behalf of the master, or

· the owner or a named agent for or on behalf of the owner, or

· the charterer or a named agent for or on behalf of the charterer.

Furthermore, it states: “Any signature by the master, owner, charterer or agent must be identified as

that of the master, owner, charterer or agent.”

ISBP 745 paragraph G4 (b) states: “When the master (captain), owner or charterer signs a charter

party bill of lading, the signature of the master (captain), owner or charterer is to be identified as

“master” (“captain”), “owner” or “charterer”.

ICC Opinion 470/TA.775rev does not apply as it relates to a CPBL issued and signed by a carrier or

its agent.

The signature on the CPBL is identified as that of the master (captain). The master is signing for

and on behalf of the owner.

Conclusion

The document is acceptable.

Cade Study 17

The Documentary Credit issued subject to UCP 600 by an Issuing Bank located in country X on

behalf of an applicant also located in country X and confirmed by a Bank located in country Y

required in field 46a “documents required” amongst other the following document:

Quote Bank guarantee from international first class bank payable in country X equivalent to EUR

xxxxx [the guarantee indicates an amount] valid till xx.xx.xxxx [the guarantee indicates a fix date].

Unquote

The bank guarantee presented to the Confirming Bank is issued by a bank located in country Y and

states that it is subject to the laws of country Y. The wording of the presented guarantee shows the

applicant of the Letter of Credit as beneficiary of the guarantee. The amount and expiry date of the

guarantee are in compliance with the requirements stipulated in the Letter of Credit. The payment

undertaking of the guarantee is worded as follows:

QUOTE

We, xxx [the guarantee indicates the guaranteeing bank], hereby irrevocably undertake to

pay you [the guarantee is addressed and directed to the applicant of the Letter of Credit]

without delay on your first written demand for payment an amount up to xxx [the guarantee

indicates an amount] provided your demand for payment is simultaneously supported by (…)

UNQUOTE

The wording of the guarantee does neither contain an express indication that it is “payable in

country X” nor any express reference to country X being the place of payment.

The Confirming Bank accepted the presented guarantee but the Issuing Bank raised the following

discrepancy: “Bank Guarantee from international bank is not payable in country X.”. Please let us

have your official opinion whether and if so why the issuing bank was entitled to raise the

discrepancy by answering the following questions:

1. Is the guarantee only compliant if it either indicates expressly that it is “payable in country X” or

contains an express reference to country X being the place of payment? Or can it be argued that

the guarantee meets the requirement “payable in country X” because it is issued in favour of a

beneficiary located in country X and as it provides that payment thereunder has to be made to this

beneficiary?

2. Would the requirement “payable in country X” be met if the guarantee is made out as described

above but is not issued by a bank located in country Y but in country X?

3. Does the stipulated requirement “payable in country X” require the document checker to

determine whether the presented guarantee‟s place of payment is country X?

4. Could the confirming bank argue validly that the Letter of Credit does not stipulate that the

requirement “payable in country X” must be met by an express reference or wording in the

guarantee document (e.g. 46a: Bank guarantee from international first class bank indicating that it is

“payable in country X” equivalent to (…)”) and that this requirement may therefore be deemed as

non-documentary and not stated and thus be disregarded according to UCP 600 sub-article 14 (h)

5. Could the confirming bank argue validly that the checking of the document falls with respect to

the requirement “payable in country X” under the auspices of UCP 600 sub-article 14 (f) because

this requirement is worded in way that does not amount to a stipulation of the document‟s data

content ?

Analysis

The credit included, in field 46a of the MT700, a requirement for a guarantee to be issued by an

international first class bank payable in country X (the country of the credit issuing bank). Apart from

amount and expiry date, no other requirements were provided. The credit was confirmed by a bank

in country Y (the country of the credit beneficiary).

The actual guarantee that was presented to the confirming bank was issued by a bank in country Y,

stating that it was subject to the laws of country Y.

The guarantee contained a statement from the guarantee issuing bank that they irrevocably

undertook to pay the guarantee beneficiary (the applicant of the credit) without delay on first written

demand for payment. It did not include an explicit statement or reference that the guarantee was

payable in country X.

Whilst the Confirming Bank accepted the guarantee as a compliant document under the credit, the

Issuing Bank refused on the basis that the guarantee was not payable in country X.

In view of the fact that the beneficiary of the credit was located in country Y, it is not unusual that

they would use a bank in their own country to issue the guarantee, as was the case in this query.

The guarantee had been issued directly in favour of the beneficiary (the credit applicant) in country

X, and not via another bank in country X. It included a condition that payment would be made

against first written demand. It does not state a place for presentation. Because the guarantee did

not state a place for presentation, demands must be presented at the issuing bank. The issuing

bank is located in country Y.

Conclusion

1. The guarantee needed to clearly state that it was payable in country X. In order to achieve this, it

would have needed to be payable at the counters of a bank in country X, and not at the counters of

the guarantee issuing bank in country Y. The fact that the guarantee was issued directly in favour of

the beneficiary (credit applicant) in country X and was payable against first written demand, did not

fulfil this requirement.

2. If the guarantee had been issued by a bank in country X, this would have met the requirements of

the credit.

3. The place of payment of the guarantee was to be stated as “in country X‟ or determinable as

being within country X.

4. The requirement for the guarantee clearly related to a requirement for an actual document.

Consequently, UCP 600 sub-article 14 (h) is not applicable.

5. The condition in the credit “payable in country X‟ is a specific requirement that must be clearly

reflected in the guarantee document if it is to fulfil its function. The discrepancy raised by the issuing

bank is valid.

CASE STUDY 18

The relevant LC conditions:

1) (Under documents required): Full set of clean on-board marine bills of lading consigned to order,

blank endorsed, notify applicant and marked “freight payable as per charter party”

2) (Under other conditions): Charter Party BL acceptable

The presented BL shows:

a) “freight payable as per charter party”

b) signed by XXX Logistics Co Ltd as agent for carrier YYY Shipping Lines Ltd

c) the reverse page shows the shipper’s blank endorsement

d) reverse page also shows typical shipping contract terms & conditions (i.e. not the usual Charter

Party BL terms & conditions)

In short, the BL (front and back), other than the freight statement, does not display anything to

suggest that it is subject to a charter party contract.

Issuing Bank paid but deducted a discrepancy fee for the waived discrepancy of “Charter Party BL

signatory’s capacity not as master, owner, charterer or agent for any of the aforesaid”. Issuing

Bank’s position appears to be that, by virtue of the LC‟s BL freight requirement, the LC is actually

calling for a Charter Party BL. And because the BL does show such freight statement, the BL is to

be treated as being subject to a charter party contract, and therefore the BL must be signed in

accordance with Article 22 (a) (i).

Negotiating Bank of course disagreed and countered that the freight phrase was not enough

evidence that the BL was a Charter Party one. It argued that, save for the freight phrase; its terms &

conditions (on reverse page) were those of a conventional BL. If it is a conventional BL, then issuing

bank’s discrepancy is incorrect. It should be instead: “Conventional BL presented but contains an

indication that it is subject to a charter party”..

ANALYSIS

The credit required a marine bill of lading marked “freight payable as per charter party‟. In this

respect, the credit was badly worded. The presented bill of lading was marked “freight payable as

per charter party”.

ISBP 745 paragraph G2 (b) states: “A transport document, however named, indicating expressions

such as “freight payable as per charter party dated (with or without mentioning a date)”, or “freight

payable as per charter party”, will be an indication that it is subject to a charter party.

ISBP 745 paragraph G1 states: “When there is a requirement in a credit for the presentation of a

charter party bill of lading, or when a credit allows presentation of a charter party bill of lading and a

charter party bill of lading is presented, UCP 600 article 22 is to be applied in the examination of

that document.

Where a credit simply allows for or requires the presentation of a CPBL, a CPBL issued and signed

by a carrier or its agent is discrepant under UCP 600 sub-article 22 (a) (i).

CONCLUSION

The discrepancy raised by the issuing bank, “Charter Party BL signatory‟s capacity not as master,

owner, charterer or agent for any of the aforesaid”, is correct.

CASE STUDY 19

L/C available with Advising Bank by payment, however the Advising Bank did not act under our

nomination and has sent documents presented by the beneficiary to the Issuing Bank without

examining them (in accordance with beneficiary's request). No message was received from the

issuing bank, Advising Bank received a MT910 from their correspondent bank informing us of the

credit entry on our account and containing information in field 72: /EUR100 deducted as discr.fee/.

The documentary credit included the following clause: 'discrepancy fee of EUR 100.00 will be

deducted from the proceeds any drawing if documents are presented with discrepancies'

We have contacted issuing bank arguing that since they had not acted in accordance with UCP 600

sub-article 16 (c) (ii), quoting every single discrepancy they should be precluded from deducting

discrepancy fee.

An answer was received that their action has nothing to do with UCP 600 article 16 and that if we

want to find out about discrepancies we will have to ask for it. It seems that they are acting in line

with the conclusion of a/m Opinion. Nevertheless, we cannot agree with it.

In the opinion of the Issuing Bank and according to UCP600 sub-article 16 (a) an issuing bank

determines if a presentation does not comply. By deducting their discrepancy fee they obviously

wanted to indicate that the presented documents did not comply.

As per article UCP 600 sub-article 16 (b) issuing bank may in its sole judgment approach the

applicant for waiver, but that does not extend period of time mentioned in UCP 600 sub-article 14

(b), nor does it (in our opinion) annul the provisions of UCP 600 sub-articles 16 (c), (d), (e) and (f).

Achieving applicant's acceptance of discrepancies does not justify the action of not listing all

discrepancies, even when sending message indicating acceptance (such as in MT752).

Advising Bank is of the opinion that if Issuing Bank determines that presented documents contain

discrepancies, all discrepancies should be quoted either in separate MT734 or in MT752 within 5

working days. Otherwise they are precluded claiming that documents are discrepant (and

accordingly not allowed to deduct discrepancy fee)

ANALYSIS

A presentation of documents had been paid by the issuing bank deducting their discrepancy fee.

Prior to payment no notice of refusal has been sent nor had any information on discrepancies been

provided by the issuing bank.

When an issuing bank finds discrepancies in documents, it has two options available to it under

article 16: to provide a refusal message to the presenter in terms of sub-articles 16 (c) and (d) or, to

approach the applicant for a waiver without first providing a notice of refusal (sub-article 16 (b)).

When the option of approaching the applicant for a waiver is chosen, and such waiver is given and

accepted by the issuing bank, the practice is for the issuing bank to honour, and such honour will be

less any discrepancy fee that was stated in the credit.

When this course of action is taken, the issuing bank should provide the presenter, as part of their

payment message or in a separate communication, details of the discrepancies that were observed.

The presenter can then choose to dispute the discrepancies, therefore questioning the relevance of

the deduction representing the discrepancy fee. If the issuing bank does not provide such an

indication, the presenter may seek, and the issuing bank must provide, such details. The actions of

the issuing bank, as described in situation D, do not represent preclusion under sub-article 16 (f).

Conclusion:

The Issuing Bank is entitled to a discrepancy fee as outlined in the credit, but it should inform the

presenter of the discrepancies that were found, either in the advice of payment or in a separate

communication.

The issuing bank is not required to send a notice of refusal to the presenter if it elects to contact the

applicant for a waiver and to receive a waiver that is acceptable to it. Sub-article 16 (f) does not

apply in these circumstances.

If the covering schedule listed the discrepancies that the presenter had found, the Issuing Bank

should either advise the presenter that the documents were taken up despite the discrepancies that

had been identified by the presenter, or list the discrepancies for which the issuing bank had sought

waiver from the applicant.

It is only when an issuing bank does not indicate the discrepancies that there should be a need for

the presenter to seek such details. The default position is that an issuing bank, in order to justify a

discrepancy fee, should always indicate the discrepancies by one of the methods described above.

When an issuing bank has approached the applicant for a waiver, and received such waiver and

decided to act upon it, it does not need to send a notice of refusal in accordance with UCP 600 subarticle

16 (c) in order to be entitled to deduct a discrepancy fee when it honours a presentation. In

such circumstances, UCP 600 sub-article 16 (f) does not apply.

When a bank deducts a discrepancy fee on the basis of a “discrepancy fee clause‟ in a credit, it is

good banking practice to inform the presenter of any discrepancies that were found in the

documents, either in the advice of payment or in a separate communication. In the event they fail to

do so, this does not preclude them from providing such information subsequently.

Target JAIIB and Its strategy

 Target JAIIB and Its strategy


If you have just joined the banking Industry, you must have applied for JAIIB or if not yet, you’ll be applying soon. And one thing everyone wants to know is how to pass JAIIB in first attempt. The obvious reason for clearing JAIIB i.e., Junior Associate of Indian Institute of Bankers is to get an extra increment. So sooner you pass the JAIIB exam, earlier you get an extra increment. If you have joined as Scale – I Officer (P.O.), your initial basic salary would be Rs.23700 and if you clear JAIIB, you get one increment and your basic salary increase by Rs.970. So, if you miss it first time, your increment gets delayed by 6 months. That means loss of Rs.5820+DA. So it becomes important to clear the JAIIB in first attempt itself.


JAIIB exam is held twice a year (June and December) and around 1.50 lacs candidates appear for the exam. Only 22-25% candidates are able to clear the exam each time. So, does it mean that JAIIB is difficult to crack? What should be the strategy to clear the JAIIB in first attempt itself? How one should prepare for JAIIB.


Passing marks for JAIIB are 50% aggregate and 45% in each subject. If aggregate marks are less than 50% or marks in a particular paper are less than 45% but you score 50% or more in any subject, you do not qualify the exam but you need not give that particular paper in next attempt, in which you score 50% or more. The best part of JAIIB exam is that result of each paper is shown to you immediately after you submit your online exam.


Simple steps to prepare for the JAIIB exam


Take off the burden from your mind, you are required to score only 50%, which is not very difficult. And the good thing is that there is no negative marking.


Here is a simple step by step guide which will help the bankers to be prepared for JAIIB.


If you come from finance or commerce background and have studied B.Com, MBA (Finance) etc., it is relatively easy to crack the JAIIB. Because you would have studied atleast 60% of the topics covered in JAIIB. If you are not from commerce or finance background, you need to make little extra efforts


Preparation strategy for JAIIB examination:


JAIIB exam needs some dedicated preparation to crack the exam, especially for the non commerce graduates. Many young bankers prepare for the exam only during the last week; Then they write one paper after getting low marks, they simply give up the attempt. Some take two days leave before the exam and prepare for it eventually they fail because of shortage of four or five marks. These strategies may work for few talent bankers but not for all. After our busy working hours, daily we have to spend some time for preparation of the exam. Since most of us are very new to the banking industry and its concepts, we need regular revisions to familiarise with the concepts.So all it needs a self disciplined and determined mind to prepare for the exam.


Allocation of Study time:


Daily we need to spend at least 1 1/2 to 2 hours a day for preparation of the JAIIB exam. Cramming before the exam night or before two days won’t help for understanding the information. It may help for few direct questions but it won’t be useful for complex questions. Also we wont have enough time to complete the sy1llabus and will lead to anxiety & stress. Sacrificing our sleep before the exam night will also make us counterproductive so it better to study every day.


Importance of Studying daily:


Studying daily and revising regularly helps to familiarise with concepts. It also helps us to understand the information. Having a study routine is not only helpful for exam but also improves our reading habit which every banker needs, as our industry is very dynamic. In our hectic banking hours finding time for continuously 2 hrs a day is very hard. But having small sessions of 30 to 40 minutes thrice in a day is easy to find. In the era of smart phones, we can study anything at anywhere so when you find a spare time please use it.


Study Material:


For preparation, I strictly recommend the three comprehensive courseware developed by IIBF, published by MacMillan for each paper. These books are not only helpful for the exam but also for our Banking career. If you really want to pursue your career as banker then these books are must and fundamental. They act like a reference manual for us. So my humble request to all, please don’t prepare only for clearing the exam; Kindly prepare with the motive of improving knowledge in the banking field. Because the knowledge gathered during our JAIIB exam will also aid us during our day-to-day banking life.


Apart from the MacMillan books, the books and work books prepared by JAIIB coaching centres such as N S Noor, Deewan Banking Academy etc,. are also available in the market. Mostly they are good but not comprehensive and may not have clear explanation for some topics. All the books are about same cost, so I recommend the Macmillan books


They are many free study material is available in the facebook groups and in websites also. If possible get that too for your reference but my best suggestion is to buy Macmillan books. The amount spent is more than worthy, the book will be useful for our banking career.


For Latest developments & Current affairs related to Banking Industry:


Apart from the above syllabus we need to refer the following for full preparation of the JAIIB exam.


1. Current developments in Master Circulars/ Master revisions issued by RBI


2. Websites of RBI, SEBI, BIS, IRDAI, FEDAI for reference and development in concerned subjects


3. IIBF Vision and Bank Quest published by IIBF for the members it is free and sent to email id.


4. Financial newspapers/publication can also be referred for current affairs.


5. New Government Schemes related to banking sector.


Nature of Questions:


Depending upon the complexity of the question, the marks of the question varies.


0.50 mark – Direct question which requires one word answers. Answer this questions with 100% accuracy. Most of these questions are from definitions, types or classification, abbreviation, simple explanations etc,. So at least read and go through all the topics in Macmillan Book twice.


Planning a study schedule:


Now we have allocated our time and purchased & collected the necessary materials for preparation of JAIIB exam. Now, “What is next??;” Having a strategy/plan/routine schedule for preparation of JAIIB Exam. Strategic planning is important for any activity because it provides a sense of direction and evaluation of progress in our efforts towards goal. A goal without a plan is just a wish, so please make a plan and try to stick to it.


We have already seen the JAIIB syllabus here. In order to pass the JAIIB exam all we need to do is to get 50% of marks in each paper within four consecutive attempts. So we don’t need to study all modules deeper and do research on each topic. If we cover 75% of the syllabus for each paper is enough to get more than 50%.


The strategy and study plan I discuss below are just an example for understanding, viewers and readers are instructed to prepare their own schedule based on their level of knowledge and skills in each subjects.


Overlapped Topics:


Some topics of a paper is also a covered in other papers and questions can be asked in any of the paper. For example AML/KYC is also common for Accounting & Finance and Legal & Regulatory aspects of Banking. Since questions can be asked in any of three exams from this topics, prepare for the paper which has most topics & sub-topics in that particular subject. Also revise the same when you need to prepare for the overlapped topic.


Study Plan: Principles & Practices of Banking:


In my view this is the easiest subject to pass when compared to other papers. Because in this paper, all the topic are conceptual and mostly related to our day-to-day banking activities. Hence most of the topics (not all) are already familiar to us.


Module A: Indian Financial System


Read and understand all the topics and sub topics without any omission.


If possible take notes in the form of snippets this will help for revision of the topic. Since we all new to banking terms repeated revisions are required for this module.


We can expect 20 to 25 marks in this unit.


Question from current development is asked from this unit.


Prepare to score all the marks from this module.


Module B: Functions of Banks


This unit is also important and all the topics should be thoroughly studied.


We can expect 20 to 25 marks from this unit.


This unit is also needed repeated revision so taking notes while studying is recommended.


Question from current development is asked from this unit.


This is also the our scoring section, prepare in a way to get all the marks from this module.


Module C: Banking Technology


If your are techie, take full 6 hrs and study thoroughly.


For techies, this unit helps to surpass the minimum marks comfortably.


Others prepare in a way to answer the direct question from this module.


From this unit we can expect 15 to 20 marks.


We can expect question from latest development in Banking related to IT.


Module D: Support Services & Marketing of Banking Services/Products


If you are BBA or MBA and studied marketing related concepts in your graduation then take full 6 hrs and thoroughly study the unit.


Others prepare to answer for direct questions.


We can expect 10 to 15 marks from this unit.


Study Plan: Accounting & Finance for Bankers:


Many bankers treat the Accounting & Finance paper as tough. The main reason is cramming of information won’t work here like other papers. Since here we have to study, understand and apply the concepts, we need to study regularly and practice. So a good study routine is must and here all the modules are important for exam purpose as well as for our knowledge. So there is no skipping of modules in this paper and give importance to all topics.


Module A: Business Mathematics and Finance


This is a must read and must know module for all bankers. So don’t even skip a small topic.


Since these module is mathematical in nature, write down all the formulas and go thorough it daily.


Practice yourself with formulas by assuming different values from the exercise and solved examples.


Don’t ever fail to take notes and snippets for formula’s explanation & applicability.


We can expect 25 or more marks in this unit.


Understanding of calculation and concepts is must so that we can answer confidently if the questions are twisted.


Module B: Principles of Book Keeping and Accountancy


This unit is also important and all the topics should be thoroughly studied because if we are in bank we should know the accountancy.


We can expect 20 to 25 marks from this unit.


Understand the concept is key for this paper. Don’t mug-up; if you cannot understand a topic just ask your B.Com friend. Or ask him to simply explain the basics of accountancy.


This unit is also needed repeated revision so taking notes while studying is highly recommended.


This is also the our scoring section, prepare in a way to get all the marks from this module.


Module C: Final Accounts


This unit is the most important and very useful for our day-to-day activities.


This unit is conceptual as well mathematical.


So take notes for formulas and revise it.


B.Com friend is the best mentor for this module.


From this unit we can expect 20 to 25 marks.


Module D: Banking Operations and Accounting Functions


This unit is comparatively less important but good preparation of this unit will help to score the pass mark.


This unit will have many overlapped topics


Prepare to answer for direct questions.


We can expect 15 to 20 marks from this unit.


Question from latest development can be asked in this module.


Study Plan: Legal & Regulatory Aspects of Banking:


Many people underestimate the legal paper and say this exam is very easy to clear. This is purely a law oriented paper, so many of the legal terms used in the topics are new to us. In order to familiarise and to understand those topics, we have to spend more time for this paper. Also good memorization skill is required to remember the numbers & data. All the modules are about equally important, hence don’t skip a topic.


Module A: Regulation and Compliance


This is a less important but easier module compared to other modules of the paper.


This module is full of theory related to Banking Regulation and its compliance.


Don’t ever fail to take notes and snippets for explanation & applicability.


We can expect 15 to 20 marks in this unit.


Question from latest development can be asked in this unit.


Module B: Legal aspects of Banking Operations


This module is a foundation and must study.


Understand the concepts and definitions for legal terms


Take notes, Take notes, Take notes and revise it until having a clear picture about the topic.


This is a scoring module so prepare well.


20-30 marks can be expected from this unit.


Module C: Banking related laws


A toughest module and it is a must study for all


Repeated revision is required to remember the numbers & data.


This unit will consume more time and make us feel bore. So study the topics in different sessions of 30 mins.


We can expect 25 to 30 marks from this unit, so it is a mark scoring unit.


Question can be asked from current developments or amendments so update accordingly.


Module D: Commercial Laws with reference to banking operations


This module is conceptual and also requires memorization too.


Some of the topics are common with Module D of Paper 2: Accounting & Finance.


This also a scoring module we can expect 20 – 25 marks from this unit.


On the actual test day


Choose the easy questions first as they will give you an estimate of the score. Then come back to the questions which were missed. Also, there is no negative marking, so attempt all questions. If you stuck in a question, leave that by marking and go ahead.


We hope this will help you out to pass the JAIIB in first attempt. If you have any queries/ suggestions, please write in comment box below.


Conclusion:


The time period mentioned above are for studying those topics at least one time and indicative for understanding. It will vary depending upon personal capacity, skill and knowledge in the subjects. So prepare your own study schedule and stick with it. Remember a determined and self disciplined mind is key to the success. So whatever the strategy you follow for JAIIB examination make sure you are sticking with your plan and be true to yourself.



Sunday, 17 October 2021

All IIBF Certifications ,JAIIB ,CAIIB PDFs in single link

All IIBF Certifications PDFs in single link

Be safe ,stay safe during this covid pandemic

Read corresponding  IIBF book 1st Macmillan / Tax mann.

These all materials are extra information to get knowledge.

All the best

IIBFADDA4U:


Certified credit officer/Professionals

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1gOQqlXN7xcob8NlCksw1QPNB4dwhx82Y/view?usp=sharing

MSME
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1NvERhcOJ-8xcv9uv1bk05ou8Bl14CTSC/view?usp=sharing

KYC AML:
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1zpqN21AXXzwzV_yTbCLBuSybfNM7j6lC/view?usp=sharing

BCSBI
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1w-RBo1YfvZYkfi24DIcTPoU9A8q_O-uT/view?usp=sharing

CAIIB ABM
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1LInaggp8952i1c4KV0yxDgiC8Rx3Fsri/view?usp=sharing

CAIIB IT
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1E3pVTlfNzic5E4SeahmEQcPxs-JW3Hse/view?usp=sharing

Certified Treasury Professionals:
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1nB3Wv1I44H9hFhEYzHeBpUHi3HBLfV_w/view?usp=sharing

Digital banking
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1Tm3SZeBECAeTK28jSCYrN-1aRbURw6R9/view?usp=sharing

Forex Individual
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1qG9i-gQqxzDG5Oa6j3zHhe2faXfQssjd/view?usp=sharing


Forex Operations
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1oaFzYCOX_Boz53hCklaa7R-ur6DdDw-_/view?usp=sharing

Cyber Crime and fraud management
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1MGVZgyxll_lucBWEPWWCu3wu24kWYUj6/view?usp=sharing

ALL JAIIB Materials:












INFLATION & RELATED TERMS

 

INFLATION & RELATED TERMS
1. Inflation: A situation of a steady and sustained rise in general prices is usually known as inflation.
Inflation is a state in which the value of money is falling i.e. prices are rising.
2. Cost-push Inflation: It arises due to an increase in production cost. Such type of inflation is caused by
three factors: (i) an increase in wages, (ii) an increase in the profit margin and (iii) imposition of heavy
taxation.
3. Demand- push Inflation: It arises as a result of strong consumer demand. When many individuals are
trying to purchase the same good, the price will inevitably increase. When this happens across the
entire economy for all goods, it is known as demand-pull inflation
4. Deflation: Deflation is the reverse case of inflation. Deflation is that state of falling prices which occurs
at that time when the output of goods and services increases more rapidly than the volume of money in
the economy. In the deflation the general price level falls and the value of money rises.
5. Disinflation: A fall in the rate of inflation. This means a slower increase in prices but not a fall in prices
6. Recession: A period of slow or negative economic growth, usually accompanied by rising
unemployment.
7. Stagnation: A prolonged recession, but not as severe as a depression.
8. Disinflation: A fall in the rate of inflation. This means a slower increase in prices but not a fall in prices.
9. Depression: A prolonged recession in economic activity. The textbook definition of a recession is two

consecutive quarters of declining outpur. A depression is an even deeper and more prolonged slump.

Certified credit Professionals 60 MCQs

  Certified credit  Professionals  60 MCQs

01. Statutory corporations are controlled by which act for credit management.
a) Indian contract act
b) Company act
c) Act that created them
d) Indian partnership act
e) Indian trust act and public act
Ans: c
02. Which one of the following is not a non fund base credit?
a) Letter of credit
b) Bill discounting
c) Co-acceptance of bills
d) Forward contract
e) Derivatives
Ans: b
03. Mr. Shyam has a house in a rural village, very near to Agra. His house is very old and
required some repairing work. So, Mr. Shyam visited Agra main branch for a loan, how much
amount of loan he can avail from bank under housing finance.
a) 1 lakh
b) 2 Lakh
c) 5 Lakh
d) 10 Lakh
e) 20 Lakh
Ans: a
04. Small enterprises advance and export credit does not financed by both public sector and
PSU (export does not comes under priority sector advance) what percentage of small
enterprises advance and export credit is supposed to be given ___ and ___ respectively.
a) 40 and 32 %
b) 18 and 10%
c) 10 and 12%
d) No target and 12%
e) 10% and no target
Ans: c
05. RBI to free the landing rates of scheduled commercial banks for credit limit over ___.
a) 01 Lakh
b) 02 Lakh
c) 05 lakh
d) 10 Lakh
e) 20 Lakh
Ans: b
06. BPLR system of lending rates replaced by base rate system it was effected from ____.
a) 01 Jun 2010
b) 01 Jul 2011
c) 01 Jan 2010
d) 01 Jul 2010
e) 01 Jul 2003
Ans: d
07. No penal interest should be charged with effect from 10 Oct 2000 to borrower�s loan
under priority sector up to Rs _____.
a) 10000
b) 20000
c) 25000
d) 50000
Ans: c
08. No collateral security is required loan under MSME both manufacturing and production and
providing or rendering of services up to Rs ___.
a) 1 lakh
b) 2 lakh
c) 5 lakh
d) 10 lakh
e) 20 lakh
Ans: C
09. Which accounting standard makes it mandatory for some enterprises to prepare cash Flow
Statement for the accounting period?
a) AS-1
b) AS-3
c) AS-9
d) AS-17
Ans: b
10. Industries & business enterprises whose turnover for the accounting period exceeds Rs.
50 crore has to submit segment-wise reporting as per _____.
a) AS-3
b) AS-7
c) AS-17
d) AS-21
e) AS-22
ANS: C
11. MR. Rohit want to invest some money in XYZ co., he want to purchase some stocks of this
co. How Mr. Rohit can assess to financial statement of the XYZ co.
a) By balance sheet
b) By EPS
c) By financial statement
d) all
Ans: d (EPS- earning per Share)
12. Basic concept used in preparing of financial statements is given below pick up the odd
one.
a) Entity concept
b) Money market concept
c) Going concern concept
d) Dual aspect concept
e) Accrual concept
ANS: b
13. As per company act the maximum period of financial period is 15 months, MR Charles is
GM of ABC co. due to some contingency he is unable to prepare his Financial statement so he
want to extend his financial to another 03 months i.e. 18 months maximum period of financial
statement so MR Charles has to approach to whom for such extension.
a) Income Tex office
b) Reserve bank of India
c) Accountant general of region
d) Registrar of company
Ans: d
14. The companies Act classifies liabilities which shown on the left side of the horizontal form
pick up the odd one.
a) Share capital
b) Reserve & surplus
c) Miscellaneous expenditure
d) Secured & unsecured loans
e) Current liability & provisions
Ans: c
15. Revenue reserve represents accumulated retained earnings from the profits of normal
business operations. These are held in various forms that are given below pick up odd one
___.
a) General reserve
b) Investment allowance reserve
c) Advance payment received
d) Capital redemption reserve
e) Dividend equalization reserve
Ans: c
16. 17. Current liabilities and provisions as per classification under the co. act consist of the
following except one given below.
a) Advance payments received
b) Accrued expenses
c) Pre-paid expenses
d) Unclaimed dividend & dividends
e) Provisions for taxes
f) Gratuity and pensions
Ans: c
17. Which committee has prescribed inventory norms for various industries?
a) Narasimham committee
b) Raghawan committee
c) Tandon committee
d) Chakraborty committee
Ans: c
18. ____ % of small enterprises advances should go to micro enterprises in case of foreign
banks.
a) 20
b) 40
c) 60
d) 80
Ans: c
19. In order to avoid the problem in delay in realization of bills, bank may take advantage of
improved computer/communication network ___.
a) GUI
b) SFMS
c) ETF
d) SWIFT
ANS: b
20. Bank guarantee should normally have a maturity of more than ___.
a) 5 years
b) 10 years
c) 15 years
d) 20 years
e) 25 years
Ans: b
21. The conduct of LC business is governed by����..
a) RBI
b) IRDA
c) UCPDC 600
d) AMFA
e) GOI
Ans: c
22. What should bank do if the owner of the collateral security is someone other than the
borrower?
a) Reject the loan
b) Transfer security to the name of borrower
c) He should become first guarantor of the loan and create charge over the security
d) Security should be hypothecated to the banker
Ans: c
23. What bank should do to avoid asset-liability maturity mismatch that may arise out
extending long tenor to infrastructure projects.
a) Return on investment
b) break- even analysis
c) Liquidity support from IDFC
d) Take-out financing arrangement
e) Sensitivity analysis
Ans: d
24. Frequency of review should vary depending on the magnitude of risk for the average risk
account.
a) 01 month
b) 03 months
c) 06 Months
d) 12 Months
Ans: c
25. In case of company, the charge should be registered with ROC within ___ days from the
date of execution of documents.
a) 15 days
b) 30 days
c) 45 days
d) 2 m
Ans: b
26. What is Priority sector target of Direct & Indirect Agriculture for Domestic banks?
a) 13.5% of ANBC or Off Balance Sheet Items whichever is higher. 4.5% for Indirect Agri.
b) 10% of anbc or 6% for indirect agri
c) 12% of anbc or 4.5% for indirect agri
d) No target
Ans: a (it is 18% in total 13.5 % is direct Ans 4.5% is indirect agric)
27. What are targets and sub-targets of DRI advances?
a) 1% of total outstanding advances of previous year
b) Out of which 40% should go to SC/St
c) 2/3rd must route though Rural and Semi Urban branches
d) All of these
ANS: d
28. What are prudential norms for individuals and Groups as per RBI guidelines? Pick up odd
one.
a) Individuals Groups General 15% of Capital Funds
b) 40% of Capital Funds of borrower group
c) Infrastructure 20% of Capital Funds single borrower
d) 50% of Capital Fund to gp infrastructure project
e) Oil Companies 25% of Capital Funds
f) All correct
ANS: f
29. Monetary and Credit policy is issued by RBI how many times in a year?
a) Monetary Policy is issued annually
b) With quarterly review
c) Credit Policy twice a year
d) All of these
Ans: d
30. RBI has restricted bank to finance against/to _______________.
a) Bank�s own shares
b) Relatives of Directors and Senior Officers
c) Sensitive commodities under selective control measures
d) FDRs of other banks, CDs, Companies for buy back of shares and Industries consuming
Ozone Depleting Substance (ODS)
e) All of these
Ans: e
31. Explain Delivery of credit for WC limits of 10 crore and above.
a) CC component -20% & WCTL component-80%
b) WCTL component-80% & CC Components-20%
c) WCTL components-50% & CC Components-50%
d) CC Components-15% & WCTL components-85%
ANS: a- The proportion is not fixed but is flexible according to requirement of borrower.
32. What are provisioning norms for Standard Assets? Pick up odd one.
a) Direct SME and Direct Agriculture 0.25%
b) Others 0.40%
c) Commercial Real Estate 1%
d) Teaser Housing Loans 2%
e) None of these
Ans: e (It is Classification Rate of provision)
33. In how many years, Foreign banks with 20 branches and above in India need to achieve
PS target of 40%?
a) 2 years
b) 3 years
c) 4 years
d) 5 years
e) 7 years
Ans: d -starting from 1.4.2013 up to 1.4.2018.
34. What is ANBC?
a) Bank Credit in India + Bills Rediscounted with RBI/other approved institutions + Investment
in Non-SLR bonds under HTM category + other investments eligible to be treated as PS
b) Bank Credit in India + Investment in Non-SLR bonds under HTM category + other
investments eligible to be treated as PS
c) Bank Credit in India + Bills Rediscounted with RBI/other approved institutions + Investment
in Non-SLR bonds under HTM category
d) Bank Credit in India + Bills Rediscounted with RBI/other approved institutions + other
investments eligible to be treated as PS.
Ans: b
(Now amended) as per http://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=7460&Mode=0
35. Base Rate is determined in each bank by ___.
a) ALCO
b) BPLR
c) ALM
d) DSCR
e) SFMS
Ans: a (Asset Liability Management Committee)
36. The target given for advances to weaker sections in percentage of ANBC is ___.
a) 10% for domestic banks
b) 12% for foreign banks
c) No target for domestic banks
d) 10% for foreign banks
Ans: a
37. Mark the incorrect statement.
a) No target is given to domestic banks for small enterprise advances
b) No target is given for agriculture advances in for foreign banks
c) Export credit does not form a part of priority sector for domestic banks
d) Export credit does not form a part of priority sector for foreign banks
Ans: d
38. Gain on revaluation of asset is a ____.
a) General reserve
b) Investment allowance reserve
c) Capital reserve
d) Revenue reserve
Ans: c
39. Banks can file a civil suit for recovery of their dues in civil courts. This option is used for
dues ____.
a) Up to 5 lacs
b) Up to 10 lacs
c) Above 10 lacs only
d) Above 20 lacs only
Ans: c
40. What are provisioning norms for NPAs? Classification of assets Provision on Secured
Provision on Unsecured
a) Sub-Standard 15% 25%
b) Doubtful (D1) 25% 100%
c) Doubtful (D2) 40% 100%
d) Doubtful (D3) 100% 100%
e) Loss Assets 100% 100%
f) All correct
Ans: f
41. You are a loan in charge of ABC one of your a/c of personal loan in the name of Mr.
subhash is not paying his dues in time lots of reminder have been send by you for recovery ,
you have approached him for rehabilitation, he has agreed for that. What will be next step?
a) Rescheduling/restructuring
b) Legal action
c) Exit from the account
d) Compromise
e) Write off
Ans: d
42. Lok adalat (peoples� court) at present resoling issue of NPAs, the enhanced limit from
Aug 2004 is ___.
a) 5 lakh
b) 10 lakh
c) 20 lakh
d) 25 lakh
e) 25 lakh above
Ans: 20
43. Banks and FIs for expediting the recovery cases to DRTs (Debt Recovery Tribunals) for
NPAs value in excess of ___.
a) 05 lakh
b) 10 lakh
c) 20 lakh
d) 25 lakh
e) 25 lakh above
Ans: b
44. SARFAESI Act 2002 has been extended to cover co-operative banks by notitification dated
___.
a) 21 June 2002
b) 21 Jul 2002
c) 21 Jul 2010
d) 28 Jan 2003
e) 01 Jan 2003
Ans: d
45. CDR is a ____ mechanism.
a) Statutory
b) Non-statutory
c) Core
d) None of these
Ans: b (Corporate Debt Restructuring)
46. Define Small Business on the basis of annual Turnover?
Ans. Whose Annual turnover is less than 50 crore.
47. How will you define Retail Customers?
Ans. Borrowers with exposure of more than 5.00 crore
48. What is Priority sector target of Direct & Indirect Agriculture for Domestic banks?
Ans. 13.5% of ANBC or Off Balance Sheet Items whichever is higher. 4.5% for Indirect Agri.
49. What are targets and sub-targets of DRI advances?
Ans. 1% of total outstanding advances of previous year. Out of which 40% should go to SC/St
and 2/3rd must route though Rural and Semi Urban branches.
50. Priority Sector Target For Housing Loan
Ans. Housing Loan ----Rs. 25 lac for Metro stations having population 10.00 lac and above. Rs.
15 Lac for other cities.
For Repair-----------up to 2.00 (Rural and SU) and Rs. 5.00 lac (Urban and Metro)
51. Define Small and Marginal farmer.
Ans. Farmers having land up to 1 hector are Marginal Farmers and others having land up to 2
Hector are Small Farmers.
52. Define Micro, Small and medium for manufacturing and service units.
Ans. Investment in Plant and Machinery for Manufacturing Units
Investment in Equipment For Service Units
Micro Up To Rs. 25 lac Up To Rs. 10 lac
Small Up To Rs. 5.00 crore Up to Rs. 2.00 crore
Medium Up To Rs. 10.00 crore Up To Rs. 5.00 crore
53. What are provisioning norms for NPAs?
Classification of assets Provision on Secured Provision on Unsecured
Sub-Standard 15% 25%
Doubtful (D1) 25% 100%
Doubtful (D2) 40% 100%
Doubtful (D3) 100% 100%
Loss Assets 100% 100%
54. What are Prudential norms for individuals and Groups as per RBI guidelines?
Ans. Individuals Groups
General 15% of Capital Funds 40% of Capital Funds
Infrastructure 20% of Capital Funds 50% of Capital Funds
Oil Companies 25% of Capital Funds
55. How much amount of loan can be sanctioned to Agriculture and SME without Collateral?
Ans. Agriculture --------------1.00 lac
SME----------------------10.00 lac
56. Monetary and Credit policy is issued by RBI how many times in a year?
Ans. Monetary Policy is issued annually with quarterly review and credit Policy twice a year.
57. RBI has restricted bank to finance against/to _______________?
Ans.
1. Bank�s own shares
2. Relatives of Directors and Senior Officers.
3. Sensitive commodities under selective contro measures.
4. FDRs of other banks, CDs, Companies for buy back of shares and Industries consuming
Ozone Depleting Substance (ODS)
58. Explain Delivery of credit for WC limits of 10 crore and above.
Ans. CC component --------20%
WCTL component-----80%
The proportion is not fixed but is flexible according to requirement of borrower.
59. What are provisioning norms for Standard Assets?
Ans. Classification Rate of provision
Direct SME and Direct Agriculture 0.25%
Others 0.40%
Commercial Real Estate 1%
Teaser Housing Loans 2%
60. What are PS targets for Micro and Small Enterprises?
Ans. All MSE loans will be treated as PS. But sub-targets within overall MSE loans are as
under:
40% 20% 40%
Manufacturing units
having Investment in Plant and Machinery
Up to Rs. 5.00 lac
Above 5.00 up Rs. 25.00 lac
Above 25.00 lac
Service Units having Investment in Equipment
Up to Rs. 2.00 lac
Above Rs. 10.00 lac
Above Rs. 10.00 lac
61. What are PS targets for Foreign Banks having less than 20 branches in India?
Ans. Total Priority Sector 32% of ANBC or Off Balance Sheet Items (Higher)
Agriculture No specific target but forms part of Total PS
MSE units No specific target but forms part of Total PS
Export No specific target but forms part of Total PS
Weaker sector No specific target but forms part of Total PS
62. In how many years, Foreign banks with 20 branches and above in India need to achieve
PS target of 40%?
Ans. 5 years starting from 1.4.2013 up to 1.4.2018.
63. What are PS targets of weaker sector for Domestic banks and Foreign banks having 20
and above branches in India?
Ans. 10% of ANBC or Off Balance Sheet Items whichever is higher.
64. What is ANBC?
Ans. Bank Credit in India + Bills Rediscounted with RBI/other approved institutions +
Investment in non-SLR bonds under HTM category + other investments eligible to be treated
as PS.
65. Base Rate is determined in each bank by ____.
Ans. Asset Liability Management Committee (ALCO)Top of Form

Theories of motivation very important for CAIIB ABM exam

 Theories of motivation very important for CAIIB ABM exam


There are various theories of motivation such as:

Scientific management or Rational EconomicView

FW Taylor contributed much to this theory. Theory states that:
-Physical work could be scientifically studied to determine the optimal method of
performing a job.
-Workers can be made efficient by giving prescription.
-Workers would be willing to accept these prescriptions, if paid on a differential piece
work basis.


Human Relations Model


As per Elton Mayo, social contracts at workplace are important in addition to money.
Workers can be motivated by acknowledging their social needs and making them feel
useful and important.

Abraham
Maslow's
Need
Hierarchy Theory
He identified five levels of needs:
1:Physiological needs: Food, rest, exercise, shelter etc.
2:Safety needs: Protection against danger, threat, deprivation.
3:Social needs: Need for belonging, for association, for acceptance, for giving
and receiving friendship and love.
4:Ego/esteem needs: Need For self confidence, for dependence, for achievement,
for knowledge and need for status, recognition, appreciation.
5:Self-fulfillment or self-actualisation needs: To realise one's own potentialities, to
experience continued self-development, to be creative.

Frederick Herzberg's
Two Factor Theory
It states that there are two sets of motivating factors i.e. hygiene or maintenance
factors relating to job environment and other the motivators relating to contents of the
job.
Motivational factors include recognition, advancement, responsibility, achievement,
possibility of growth & work itself.
Maintenance factors include company policy and administration, technical
supervision, salary, job security, personal life, working conditions, status, interpersonal
relations with peers and supervisors.
It is based on existence, relatedness and growth (ERG). People have needs in a
hierarchy and these-needs determine the human behaviour. ERG theory has three
levels of needs compared to 5 in case of Maslow. As per ERG theory, more than oneneed
may be operative at one point of time rather than only one need as per Maslow
theory.


Clayton Alderfer's
ERG Theory

It is based on existence, relatedness and growth (ERG). People have needs in a
hierarchy and these-needs determine the human behaviour. ERG theory has three
levels of needs compared to 5 in case of Maslow. As per ERG theory, more than oneneed
may be operative at one point of time rather than only one need as per Maslow
theory.

Achievement
Motivation Theory

According to DC McCelland, there are three needs i.e. for achievement, for power and
for affiliation.

Victor H Vroom's
Expectancy Model

This theory is known by other names also such as instrumentality theory, path-goal
theory, valence-instrumentality-expectancy theory. As per theory, motivation is
determined by the nature of reward people expect to get as a result of their job. Man
being rational tries to maximize his perceived value of such rewards. There are three
elements in the model i.e. expectancy, instrumentality and valence (value a person
assigns to the desired reward).

James Stacy Adams'
Equity Theory

Theory proposes that motivation to act, develops after the person compares the
inputs / outcomes with the identical ratio in comparison to the other person. Upon
feeling inequity, the person is motivated to reduce it.


Lyman W Porter and
Edward E Lawler—
Performance
satisfaction Model
It states that the motivation does not equal satisfaction and performance. These are
all separate variables. Effort does not lead to performance directly. The reward that
follows will determine the satisfaction.


Reinforcement Theory. The consequences of an individual's behaviour in one situation influences that
individual's behaviour in a similar situation.

Personality Theories

 Personality Theories



There are certain common patterns and variable that determine the personality of the people. Experts have
developed certain personality theories.

Psychoanalytical
Theory
Based on Freudian concept of unconscious nature of personality. Human behaviour
and motivation is outcome of psychoanalytic elements i.e. id, the ego and the super
ego.
Id is the foundation of unconscious.
Ego is conscious in nature and relates the conscious urges to the outside world.
Id demands immediate pleasure and Ego controls it. Super ego supports the Ego.
Trait Theory
There are many traits common to all but there are few traits that are unique to few.
On the basis of traits, people are described as aggressive, loyal, pleasant, flexible,
humorous, sentimental, impulsive etc.
Self-concept theoryPersonality and behaviour is determined by the individual himself. We have our own
image and our actions are consistent with such image (Carl Rogers). An employee
with a self concept of high intelligence, independence and confidence may not look
for such reinforcement techniques as monetary rewards.
Social learning
theory
Personality development is more a result of social variables than biological factors.
Much of human behaviour is learnt or modified by learning. Personality is the sum
total of all that a person has learned.

CAIIB ABM MODULE D 60 MCQs

 

CAIIB ABM MODULE D 60 MCQs



01. Statutory corporations are controlled by which act for credit management.

a) Indian contract act

b) Company act

c) Act that created them

d) Indian partnership act

e) Indian trust act and public act

Ans: c

02. Which one of the following is not a non fund base credit?

a) Letter of credit

b) Bill discounting

c) Co-acceptance of bills

d) Forward contract

e) Derivatives




Ans: b

03. Mr. Shyam has a house in a rural village, very near to Agra. His house is very old and

required some repairing work. So, Mr. Shyam visited Agra main branch for a loan, how much

amount of loan he can avail from bank under housing finance.

a) 1 lakh

b) 2 Lakh

c) 5 Lakh

d) 10 Lakh

e) 20 Lakh

Ans: a

04. Small enterprises advance and export credit does not financed by both public sector and

PSU (export does not comes under priority sector advance) what percentage of small

enterprises advance and export credit is supposed to be given ___ and ___ respectively.

a) 40 and 32 %

b) 18 and 10%

c) 10 and 12%

d) No target and 12%

e) 10% and no target

Ans: c

05. RBI to free the landing rates of scheduled commercial banks for credit limit over ___.

a) 01 Lakh

b) 02 Lakh

c) 05 lakh

d) 10 Lakh

e) 20 Lakh

Ans: b

06. BPLR system of lending rates replaced by base rate system it was effected from ____.

a) 01 Jun 2010

b) 01 Jul 2011

c) 01 Jan 2010

d) 01 Jul 2010

e) 01 Jul 2003

Ans: d

07. No penal interest should be charged with effect from 10 Oct 2000 to borrower�s loan

under priority sector up to Rs _____.

a) 10000

b) 20000

c) 25000

d) 50000

Ans: c

08. No collateral security is required loan under MSME both manufacturing and production and

providing or rendering of services up to Rs ___.

a) 1 lakh

b) 2 lakh

c) 5 lakh

d) 10 lakh

e) 20 lakh

Ans: C

09. Which accounting standard makes it mandatory for some enterprises to prepare cash Flow

Statement for the accounting period?

a) AS-1

b) AS-3

c) AS-9

d) AS-17

Ans: b

10. Industries & business enterprises whose turnover for the accounting period exceeds Rs.

50 crore has to submit segment-wise reporting as per _____.

a) AS-3

b) AS-7

c) AS-17

d) AS-21

e) AS-22

ANS: C

11. MR. Rohit want to invest some money in XYZ co., he want to purchase some stocks of this

co. How Mr. Rohit can assess to financial statement of the XYZ co.

a) By balance sheet

b) By EPS

c) By financial statement

d) all

Ans: d (EPS- earning per Share)

12. Basic concept used in preparing of financial statements is given below pick up the odd

one.

a) Entity concept

b) Money market concept

c) Going concern concept

d) Dual aspect concept

e) Accrual concept

ANS: b

13. As per company act the maximum period of financial period is 15 months, MR Charles is

GM of ABC co. due to some contingency he is unable to prepare his Financial statement so he

want to extend his financial to another 03 months i.e. 18 months maximum period of financial

statement so MR Charles has to approach to whom for such extension.

a) Income Tex office

b) Reserve bank of India

c) Accountant general of region

d) Registrar of company

Ans: d

14. The companies Act classifies liabilities which shown on the left side of the horizontal form

pick up the odd one.

a) Share capital

b) Reserve & surplus

c) Miscellaneous expenditure

d) Secured & unsecured loans

e) Current liability & provisions

Ans: c

15. Revenue reserve represents accumulated retained earnings from the profits of normal

business operations. These are held in various forms that are given below pick up odd one

___.

a) General reserve

b) Investment allowance reserve

c) Advance payment received

d) Capital redemption reserve

e) Dividend equalization reserve

Ans: c

16. 17. Current liabilities and provisions as per classification under the co. act consist of the

following except one given below.

a) Advance payments received

b) Accrued expenses

c) Pre-paid expenses

d) Unclaimed dividend & dividends

e) Provisions for taxes

f) Gratuity and pensions

Ans: c

17. Which committee has prescribed inventory norms for various industries?

a) Narasimham committee

b) Raghawan committee

c) Tandon committee

d) Chakraborty committee

Ans: c

18. ____ % of small enterprises advances should go to micro enterprises in case of foreign

banks.

a) 20

b) 40

c) 60

d) 80

Ans: c

19. In order to avoid the problem in delay in realization of bills, bank may take advantage of

improved computer/communication network ___.

a) GUI

b) SFMS

c) ETF

d) SWIFT

ANS: b

20. Bank guarantee should normally have a maturity of more than ___.

a) 5 years

b) 10 years

c) 15 years

d) 20 years

e) 25 years

Ans: b

21. The conduct of LC business is governed by����..

a) RBI

b) IRDA

c) UCPDC 600

d) AMFA

e) GOI

Ans: c

22. What should bank do if the owner of the collateral security is someone other than the

borrower?

a) Reject the loan

b) Transfer security to the name of borrower

c) He should become first guarantor of the loan and create charge over the security

d) Security should be hypothecated to the banker

Ans: c

23. What bank should do to avoid asset-liability maturity mismatch that may arise out

extending long tenor to infrastructure projects.

a) Return on investment

b) break- even analysis

c) Liquidity support from IDFC

d) Take-out financing arrangement

e) Sensitivity analysis

Ans: d

24. Frequency of review should vary depending on the magnitude of risk for the average risk

account.

a) 01 month

b) 03 months

c) 06 Months

d) 12 Months

Ans: c

25. In case of company, the charge should be registered with ROC within ___ days from the

date of execution of documents.

a) 15 days

b) 30 days

c) 45 days

d) 2 m

Ans: b

26. What is Priority sector target of Direct & Indirect Agriculture for Domestic banks?

a) 13.5% of ANBC or Off Balance Sheet Items whichever is higher. 4.5% for Indirect Agri.

b) 10% of anbc or 6% for indirect agri

c) 12% of anbc or 4.5% for indirect agri

d) No target

Ans: a (it is 18% in total 13.5 % is direct Ans 4.5% is indirect agric)

27. What are targets and sub-targets of DRI advances?

a) 1% of total outstanding advances of previous year

b) Out of which 40% should go to SC/St

c) 2/3rd must route though Rural and Semi Urban branches

d) All of these

ANS: d

28. What are prudential norms for individuals and Groups as per RBI guidelines? Pick up odd

one.

a) Individuals Groups General 15% of Capital Funds

b) 40% of Capital Funds of borrower group

c) Infrastructure 20% of Capital Funds single borrower

d) 50% of Capital Fund to gp infrastructure project

e) Oil Companies 25% of Capital Funds

f) All correct

ANS: f

29. Monetary and Credit policy is issued by RBI how many times in a year?

a) Monetary Policy is issued annually

b) With quarterly review

c) Credit Policy twice a year

d) All of these

Ans: d

30. RBI has restricted bank to finance against/to _______________.

a) Bank�s own shares

b) Relatives of Directors and Senior Officers

c) Sensitive commodities under selective control measures

d) FDRs of other banks, CDs, Companies for buy back of shares and Industries consuming

Ozone Depleting Substance (ODS)

e) All of these

Ans: e

31. Explain Delivery of credit for WC limits of 10 crore and above.

a) CC component -20% & WCTL component-80%

b) WCTL component-80% & CC Components-20%

c) WCTL components-50% & CC Components-50%

d) CC Components-15% & WCTL components-85%

ANS: a- The proportion is not fixed but is flexible according to requirement of borrower.

32. What are provisioning norms for Standard Assets? Pick up odd one.

a) Direct SME and Direct Agriculture 0.25%

b) Others 0.40%

c) Commercial Real Estate 1%

d) Teaser Housing Loans 2%

e) None of these

Ans: e (It is Classification Rate of provision)

33. In how many years, Foreign banks with 20 branches and above in India need to achieve

PS target of 40%?

a) 2 years

b) 3 years

c) 4 years

d) 5 years

e) 7 years

Ans: d -starting from 1.4.2013 up to 1.4.2018.

34. What is ANBC?

a) Bank Credit in India + Bills Rediscounted with RBI/other approved institutions + Investment

in Non-SLR bonds under HTM category + other investments eligible to be treated as PS

b) Bank Credit in India + Investment in Non-SLR bonds under HTM category + other

investments eligible to be treated as PS

c) Bank Credit in India + Bills Rediscounted with RBI/other approved institutions + Investment

in Non-SLR bonds under HTM category

d) Bank Credit in India + Bills Rediscounted with RBI/other approved institutions + other

investments eligible to be treated as PS.

Ans: b

(Now amended) as per http://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=7460&Mode=0

35. Base Rate is determined in each bank by ___.

a) ALCO

b) BPLR

c) ALM

d) DSCR

e) SFMS

Ans: a (Asset Liability Management Committee)

36. The target given for advances to weaker sections in percentage of ANBC is ___.

a) 10% for domestic banks

b) 12% for foreign banks

c) No target for domestic banks

d) 10% for foreign banks

Ans: a

37. Mark the incorrect statement.

a) No target is given to domestic banks for small enterprise advances

b) No target is given for agriculture advances in for foreign banks

c) Export credit does not form a part of priority sector for domestic banks

d) Export credit does not form a part of priority sector for foreign banks

Ans: d

38. Gain on revaluation of asset is a ____.

a) General reserve

b) Investment allowance reserve

c) Capital reserve

d) Revenue reserve

Ans: c

39. Banks can file a civil suit for recovery of their dues in civil courts. This option is used for

dues ____.

a) Up to 5 lacs

b) Up to 10 lacs

c) Above 10 lacs only

d) Above 20 lacs only

Ans: c

40. What are provisioning norms for NPAs? Classification of assets Provision on Secured

Provision on Unsecured

a) Sub-Standard 15% 25%

b) Doubtful (D1) 25% 100%

c) Doubtful (D2) 40% 100%

d) Doubtful (D3) 100% 100%

e) Loss Assets 100% 100%

f) All correct

Ans: f

41. You are a loan in charge of ABC one of your a/c of personal loan in the name of Mr.

subhash is not paying his dues in time lots of reminder have been send by you for recovery ,

you have approached him for rehabilitation, he has agreed for that. What will be next step?

a) Rescheduling/restructuring

b) Legal action

c) Exit from the account

d) Compromise

e) Write off

Ans: d

42. Lok adalat (peoples� court) at present resoling issue of NPAs, the enhanced limit from

Aug 2004 is ___.

a) 5 lakh

b) 10 lakh

c) 20 lakh

d) 25 lakh

e) 25 lakh above

Ans: 20

43. Banks and FIs for expediting the recovery cases to DRTs (Debt Recovery Tribunals) for

NPAs value in excess of ___.

a) 05 lakh

b) 10 lakh

c) 20 lakh

d) 25 lakh

e) 25 lakh above

Ans: b

44. SARFAESI Act 2002 has been extended to cover co-operative banks by notitification dated

___.

a) 21 June 2002

b) 21 Jul 2002

c) 21 Jul 2010

d) 28 Jan 2003

e) 01 Jan 2003

Ans: d

45. CDR is a ____ mechanism.

a) Statutory

b) Non-statutory

c) Core

d) None of these

Ans: b (Corporate Debt Restructuring)

46. Define Small Business on the basis of annual Turnover?

Ans. Whose Annual turnover is less than 50 crore.

47. How will you define Retail Customers?

Ans. Borrowers with exposure of more than 5.00 crore

48. What is Priority sector target of Direct & Indirect Agriculture for Domestic banks?

Ans. 13.5% of ANBC or Off Balance Sheet Items whichever is higher. 4.5% for Indirect Agri.

49. What are targets and sub-targets of DRI advances?

Ans. 1% of total outstanding advances of previous year. Out of which 40% should go to SC/St

and 2/3rd must route though Rural and Semi Urban branches.

50. Priority Sector Target For Housing Loan

Ans. Housing Loan ----Rs. 25 lac for Metro stations having population 10.00 lac and above. Rs.

15 Lac for other cities.

For Repair-----------up to 2.00 (Rural and SU) and Rs. 5.00 lac (Urban and Metro)

51. Define Small and Marginal farmer.

Ans. Farmers having land up to 1 hector are Marginal Farmers and others having land up to 2

Hector are Small Farmers.

52. Define Micro, Small and medium for manufacturing and service units.

Ans. Investment in Plant and Machinery for Manufacturing Units

Investment in Equipment For Service Units

Micro Up To Rs. 25 lac Up To Rs. 10 lac

Small Up To Rs. 5.00 crore Up to Rs. 2.00 crore

Medium Up To Rs. 10.00 crore Up To Rs. 5.00 crore

53. What are provisioning norms for NPAs?

Classification of assets Provision on Secured Provision on Unsecured

Sub-Standard 15% 25%

Doubtful (D1) 25% 100%

Doubtful (D2) 40% 100%

Doubtful (D3) 100% 100%

Loss Assets 100% 100%

54. What are Prudential norms for individuals and Groups as per RBI guidelines?

Ans. Individuals Groups

General 15% of Capital Funds 40% of Capital Funds

Infrastructure 20% of Capital Funds 50% of Capital Funds

Oil Companies 25% of Capital Funds

55. How much amount of loan can be sanctioned to Agriculture and SME without Collateral?

Ans. Agriculture --------------1.00 lac

SME----------------------10.00 lac

56. Monetary and Credit policy is issued by RBI how many times in a year?

Ans. Monetary Policy is issued annually with quarterly review and credit Policy twice a year.

57. RBI has restricted bank to finance against/to _______________?

Ans.

1. Bank�s own shares

2. Relatives of Directors and Senior Officers.

3. Sensitive commodities under selective contro measures.

4. FDRs of other banks, CDs, Companies for buy back of shares and Industries consuming

Ozone Depleting Substance (ODS)

58. Explain Delivery of credit for WC limits of 10 crore and above.

Ans. CC component --------20%

WCTL component-----80%

The proportion is not fixed but is flexible according to requirement of borrower.

59. What are provisioning norms for Standard Assets?

Ans. Classification Rate of provision

Direct SME and Direct Agriculture 0.25%

Others 0.40%

Commercial Real Estate 1%

Teaser Housing Loans 2%

60. What are PS targets for Micro and Small Enterprises?

Ans. All MSE loans will be treated as PS. But sub-targets within overall MSE loans are as

under:

40% 20% 40%

Manufacturing units

having Investment in Plant and Machinery

Up to Rs. 5.00 lac

Above 5.00 up Rs. 25.00 lac

Above 25.00 lac

Service Units having Investment in Equipment

Up to Rs. 2.00 lac

Above Rs. 10.00 lac

Above Rs. 10.00 lac

61. What are PS targets for Foreign Banks having less than 20 branches in India?

Ans. Total Priority Sector 32% of ANBC or Off Balance Sheet Items (Higher)

Agriculture No specific target but forms part of Total PS

MSE units No specific target but forms part of Total PS

Export No specific target but forms part of Total PS

Weaker sector No specific target but forms part of Total PS

62. In how many years, Foreign banks with 20 branches and above in India need to achieve

PS target of 40%?

Ans. 5 years starting from 1.4.2013 up to 1.4.2018.

63. What are PS targets of weaker sector for Domestic banks and Foreign banks having 20

and above branches in India?

Ans. 10% of ANBC or Off Balance Sheet Items whichever is higher.

64. What is ANBC?

Ans. Bank Credit in India + Bills Rediscounted with RBI/other approved institutions +

Investment in non-SLR bonds under HTM category + other investments eligible to be treated

as PS.

65. Base Rate is determined in each bank by ____.

Ans. Asset Liability Management Committee (ALCO)Top of Form