Showing posts with label CAIIB electives. Show all posts
Showing posts with label CAIIB electives. Show all posts

Saturday, 6 May 2023

Basics of Management ABM CAIIB

 01. Management is necessary for making our life or any task or venture we

undertake, including any industrial, business or service activity, successful.

02. The term ‘Management’ could be referring to the persons running an

organisation collectively, who are responsible for decision making.

03. The three components of management refer to their organising skills, their

skills as an entrepreneur and getting the best out of their team members.

04. The skills for organising would obviously include the traditional skills,

principles and the techniques of management which have evolved over a period

of time and are continuously evolving.

05. Henri Fayol, widely acknowledged as the founder of modem management

methods, was an early management writer who was instrumental in contributing

immensely to ‘formal organisation theory’.

06. The theory propounded by Henri Fayol included the six types of organisational

activities, which also included management. It also explained the various functions

and principles of management.

07. Frederick Winslow Taylor, introduced methods to improve the industrial

efficiency.

08. Taylor’s book ‘The Principles of Scientific Management’, published in the year

1911, is the most influential management book of the twentieth century.

09. Scientific management, also known as ‘Taylorism’, is a management theory

which was used for analysing and synthesizing workflows with the main objective

of improvement of economic efficiency and labour productivity.

10. Peter Drucker, the famous Management Guru, in his book Management: tasks,

responsibilities, practices.

11. Management is not common sense alone but a discipline, a culture and an art

and science at the same time.

12. Management represents people, and their achievements or failures denote

the effectiveness of management or mismanagement of the organisation’s affairs.


13. Productivity is very important in any business organisation, and there is a 

continuous demand on the people at the helm of affairs to increase productivity 

for increasing profits to meet the expectations of the stakeholders and the society. 

14. The process of management involves multiple actions performed in a series to 

achieve the objectives of the business enterprise. 

15. The process of management can be classified as a social process as it involves 

relationships and co-operation between people and their team effort.

16. The complexity of management has laid down the foundation of breaking

down each activity into various parts or sub-activities so that we can understand 

the complete significance of each activity. This is the reason for division of

management tasks into different elements: planning, organising, staffing,

directing and controlling. 

16. A manager is responsible for planning, for directing and leading the workers 

and other staff, and for monitoring and controlling performances at work, through 

proper governance and risk management.

17. The System School of Management thought was propounded by Daniel Katz, 

an American Psychologist, and Ludwig Von Bertalanffy, an Australian Biologist. 

They advocated the concept of management being an open system, which is 

required to interact with the environment constantly for getting resources, which

are both valuable and limited.

18. The main objective of the research undertaken by the systems school was to 

understand the external environment and conditions faced by an organisation 

and finding ways of handling such conditions. 

19. The open system approach is important because of the interaction between an 

organisation and the outside forces and the outside influence impacting the 

actions taken by the organisation. 

20. The Contingency School of Management thought was an offshoot of the 

scientific, behavioural and systems approaches to management, and stated that 

there cannot be a unique way of managing an organisation and which can be 

labelled as the best way to manage or lead a business.


21. The best or the optimal way shall always depend or be contingent on the

internal and external environment. In other words, there cannot be a standard

solution to various business situations faced by the management. Each leader

might deal with the same situation in different ways, depending on his/her

leadership style.

22. The contingency school of management thought is criticised for being reactive

and for failure to be proactive and for not providing some standard principles and

procedures to be applied in specific situations.

This approach can turn out to be expensive in terms of money and time and

development of a proper theory of management principles becomes almost

impossible.

23. The Contemporary School of Management theory continues to advance

because of constant evolution of business practices and management techniques,

especially in the wake of technological advancements.

24. Total Quality Management focuses on the management of an organisation for

delivering high quality goods and services to its customers. The approach

originated in Japan after the Second World War.

25. The four main elements of Total Quality Management approach are:

a) Employee involvement:

b) Customer focus:

c) Standardisation:

d) Continuous Monitoring:

26. Deming, Juran and Crosby were three main contributors to the Total Quality

Management approach.

27. William Edwards Deming considered the quality of people more important

than the quality of products and accorded greater importance to how efficiently

the management planned, implemented and improved the projects.

28. William Edwards Deming laid down the fourteen principles of Total Quality

Management:


29. Learning Organisation may be defined as an organisation where all the 

employees take part in identifying and solving the problems which it faces, and 

which permits the organisation to continuously enhance its capacity to grow and 

learn, so as to achieve the organisational goals. 

30. A Learning Organisation shall be organised from the angle of problem-

solving and not from the perspective of efficiency and shall have a structure which 

is based on teamwork, employees who are empowered and shall have an open 

information system.

31. The major contributor to Learning Organisation school of thought is Peter 

Senge, has defined Learning Organisations in his book, The Fifth Discipline: The 

Art & Practice of Learning Organization.

32. The five disciplines of a Learning Organisation are:

1. Personal Master

2. Shared vision

3. Mental Models

4. Team learning

5. Systems Thinking

33. A Learning Organisation is important because:

a) It always tries to find improved and innovative ways of doing things and 

staying ahead of the competition.

b) The effectiveness and efficiency of a learning organisation is very high.

c) A learning organisation has higher productivity and output.

d) A learning organisation helps in enhancing the image of the company.


34. Several issues which are faced by the management include:

a) Which business model to adopt?

b) How to manage the information explosion?

c) How to manage the changes taking place every now and then?

d) How to face the threat of globalisation?

e) How to manage the impact of environmental sustainability?

35. Business models are based on the type of clients to be served, the product

offerings, the revenue earning model, ways of differentiating and sustaining

competitive advantages, and the manner in which products or services are

provided.

36. The management of a business entity shall be able to perform better if it

understands the business model followed by the organisation.

37. A business model covers the important operational characteristics and key

structural features of the business.

38. Some of the Business Models are

a) Solution Providing or Consulting Services Model

b) Profit Pyramid Model

c) Multi-component Systems Model

d) Advertisement Model

e) Switchboard Model

f) Time Model

g) Efficiency model


39. Under Solution Providing or Consulting Services Model, the business may

provide consulting services which help improve the client’s operations. IBM has

used this model.

40. Under Profit Pyramid Model, the customers are provided low-priced products

initially and gradually they are moved to expensive products, where the business

earns higher profits. General Motors followed this model.

41. Multi-component Systems Models have been used by companies like Gillette

and HP.

42. Advertisement Models offer the basic product free and make money through

advertising. YouTube, Google etc. are live examples.

43. Switchboard Model allows a firm to acts as an intermediary for connecting

multiple sellers with multiple buyers. eBay, Amazon, Flipkart are businesses which

have used this model successfully.

44. Time Model depends on how fast research and development happens. A

business which pioneers some new idea shall be successful initially, till other

competitors join the bandwagon.

45. A business following Efficiency model just waits for the market to mature with

standardisation of the product and enters with low-cost and low-margin products

with mass appeal. Southwest Airlines, Wal-Mart and Dell have been using this

model.

46. Blockbuster model is used by industries which are having the protection under

patent laws, like pharma and film industry, where profits depend on a few items

and are driven by star appeal.

47. Profit multiplier model involves developing concepts which may or may not be

profitable but are used for driving other products through synergy. The

management looks at the whole picture in such cases. For example, Walt Disney

used cartoon characters for developing theme parks, merchandise, and licensing

opportunities, which gave them huge profits.

48. Entrepreneurial model deals with offering specialized products or services to

clients which are not attractive to large competitors but have potential of fast

growth. There are so many cases today where big companies like Tata’s have

acquired smaller players with potential, e.g., IMG was acquired by Tata’s.


49. Under De Facto industry standard model free products may be offered at a

very low cost to increase the market share and for saturating the market to make

everybody talk about the product as a great brand and industry standard.

Subsequently, the users are offered high-end and high-margin products.

Microsoft indulged into this strategy.

50. Business models invariably involve the optimisation of profits by using

optimum product mix.

51. Economic growth must be inclusive to provide sustainable jobs and promote

equality.

52. Strategic management is defined as the process by which a firm manages the

formulation and implementation of its strategy.

53. The word strategy comes from the Greek word, strategos, meaning the

“General’s views”.

54. A Strategy combines explicit statements and implicit beliefs and

understandings in and around an organization about

Mission; • Vision; Clientele; Resources; • Present and Future

55. A strategy encompasses the pattern of organizational actions that have been

taken and those that are to be taken by an organization, in pursuing its objectives.

56. Strategy outlines the means by which a firm intends to create unique value for

customers and other important stakeholders.

57. Strategic Management involves those decisions and actions of the

management that determine the long-term performance of a business entity.

58. The various elements of strategic management include scanning of the

external and internal environment, formulation of long term strategic plans,

implementation of strategy and the evaluation and control process.

59. A plan is an arrangement, a pattern, a programme, or a scheme for a definite

purpose.

60. A plan is very concrete in nature and does not allow for deviation.

61. A plan provides a coherent framework from which to build and a sure

direction to follow, with intermittent milestones to pass, to reach an end goal.



62. A strategy is a blueprint, layout, design, or idea used to accomplish a specific

goal.

63. A strategy is very flexible and open for adaptation and change when needed.

64. Strategy is most useful when creativity, collaboration, and innovation are of

the utmost importance.

65. A strategy encourages openness and debate from every side of the equation.

66. A strategy embraces questions and out-of-the-box, effective answers.

67. A strategy allows for a natural flow of thought and continual momentum that

builds, till success is reached.

68. The strategy followed by a business entity can be equated with a master plan,

which contains details as to how the mission and business goals of the entity shall

be achieved.

69. The purpose of the strategy of the organization is maximizing the competitive

advantages and, at the same time, minimizing the competitive disadvantages.

70. A typical business entity normally considers three different types of strategies,

as under:

a) Corporate strategy

b) Business strategy

c) Functional strategy

71. Corporate strategy of a company covers the overall direction followed by the

company.

72. Corporate strategy would spell out the general attitude of the company

towards growing and managing its different business lines, products and services.

73. A corporate strategy may be classified under the three different categories of

stability, growth, and retrenchment.

74. Business strategy would normally be prepared at the level of the business unit

or at the level of product or service and it normally highlights the improvement in


the specific industry or market ranking of the business entity’s products or

services produced or delivered by that business unit.

75. A business strategy could be competitive or cooperatives.

76. Under a competitive strategy, a company might try to differentiate its services.

77. A cooperative strategy may form an alliance with other companies to extend

its reach to global markets and get a competitive advantage.

78. Functional strategy refers to the approach adopted by functional areas for

achieving the objectives of the business unit and the company by maximizing the

productivity of available resources.

79. Functional strategy involves the development and fostering a distinctive

capability to create a competitive advantage.

80. In practice, a business entity may use all the three types of strategies (

Corporate strategy; Business strategy and Functional strategy ) at the same time.

81. Strategic Management has the following four basic elements:

The context (Environmental Scanning)

Strategy Implementation

Strategy Formulation

Strategy Evaluation & Control

82. The Context (Environmental Scanning) refers to monitoring, evaluation and

dissemination of information received from the internal and external

environments. The information is provided to the key people in the organisation

with the overall objective of identifying both internal as well as external strategic

factors, which can impact the future of the organisation.

83. SWOT Analysis is one of the easiest ways of conducting environment scanning.

84. The acronym SWOT refers the Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and

Threats, applicable to a specific organisation.

85. Strengths and Weaknesses form part of the internal environment of an

organisation and could cover the organisation structure, the resources available to

an organisation and the overall organisational culture.



86. The core competencies of an organisation depend on its strengths.

87. The internal environment can usually be controlled by the top management in

the short run.

88. The Opportunities and Threats form part of external factors and are generally

outside the ambit of the top management’s short-term control. These factors

could be general, as well as specific factors. The general factors generally impact

the entire economy or an industry whereas the specific factors might impact a

specific industry or an organisation.

89. The internal and external environmental factors form the context within which

an organisation exists.

90. Strategy Formulation requires, on the basis of information gathered from

situation analysis, to set strategic direction through business mission and vision

statements, and establish strategic objectives to reach there, and generate,

evaluate and select corporate, business and functional strategies to pursue.

91. Creating vision is the essential act of leadership.

92. The vision must relate to the expectations of its customers, while being grand

enough and imaginative enough to fuel the employees’ spirit.

93. The vision gives the organization its energy.

94. The vision usually requires a “leap of faith” and an “act of courage”.

95. A vision is an optimistic, inspiring picture that brings with it the responsibility

to make it happen.

96. A vision is a dream of greatness!

97. Vision is a simple statement or understanding of what the firm will be in the

future.

98. A vision is forward looking and identifies the desired long-term status.

99. A vision statement should answer the basic question, “What do we want to

become?”

100. A clear vision provides the foundation for developing a comprehensive

mission statement.



101. Ideally, vision statement should be short, preferably one sentence.

102. The mission statement is usually depicted as the starting point in the

strategic planning process.

103. The mission statement spells out the underlying motivation for being in

business in the first place - the contribution to society that the firm aspires to

make.

104. A mission statement is called a statement of purpose, a statement of

philosophy, a statement of beliefs, a statement of business principles, or a

statement “defining our business,”.

105. A mission statement reveals what an organization wants to be and whom it

wants to serve.

106. Organizational mission statements should include ten components:

customers, products or services, markets, technology, concern for survival, growth

and profitability, philosophy, self-concept, concern for public image, and concern

for employees.

107. Successful strategies are dependent on effective implementation.

108. Strategy implementation is the fine art of detailing: what all is to be done,

when various tasks are to be performed, where are they to be performed, how

they are to be performed and who will perform.

109. Strategy implementation is the process of executing the strategy – of taking

the actions that put the strategy into effect and ensure that organizational

decisions are consistent with it.

110. While strategy formulation is the process of deciding what to do, strategy

implementation is the process of performing all the activities necessary to do

what has been formulated.

111. Strategy evaluation is a logical step to obtain feedback from strategy’s

performance and taking corrective actions, if needed, in the light of constant

external and internal changes. Strategy evaluation is needed because success

today does not guarantee success tomorrow.


112. Phases of Strategic Management – A business entity normally develops its

strategy in the following four phases –

Basic Budgetary Planning

Forecast-based Planning

Externally Oriented (Strategic) Planning

Strategic Management

113. The three most important benefits of strategic management are as under:

a) The management gets a clearer sense of strategic vision of the business

entity.

b) Management is able to clearly focus on strategically important issues,

faced by the entity.

c) The dynamic environment can be better understood by management.

114. strategic management is crucial for the success of an organisation in the

long-term and may mark the difference between a successful and an unsuccessful

organisation.

115. Management is the process of creating an environment which helps

individuals, who work in groups, to achieve business goals established by the

various stakeholders. T

116. The process of Management involves planning, organising, staffing, directing

and controlling.

117. The various management approaches and thoughts include the Classical

Basics of Management or Traditional School, the Neoclassical or Behavioural

School, the Quantitative School or Management Science, the System School, the

Contingency School and the Contemporary School.

Tuesday, 19 January 2021

Rural banking operations recollected questions Dec 2021

 Rural banking operations recollected questions

RRB amendment act 2018- 3Q

No of directors selected by shareholder in RRB

Min stake of center and state government

General lien

Warehouse planning by whom- 2Q

Meeting for scale of finance organise by whom

Loan % to SC/ST under DRI

farmers double income upto 2022 plan by whom

Adv of SHG credit linkage program

Lok Adalat-2Q

Ultra small branch-1

Non judicial stamps -2

Increase profitability

RRB perform the business of banking under which Act

Net operating profit- very complicated formulas in option

Loan to commission agent against ______

Return on assets

Farmers Club- 5/7Q

Photo voltic pump- 5Q

Sunday, 22 March 2020

New All IIBF Certifications PDFs in single link 2020-2021

All IIBF Certification PDFs in single link 2020-2021

Read corresponding  IIBF books .. Macmillan / Taxmann.

These all materials are extra information to get knowledge.

All the best


Face book:

https://www.facebook.com/groups/543054539662893/

Certified credit officer/Professionals 2020

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lUW00Y-qnVzH9R9QB4ZjGqeShYDATS-e/view?usp=sharing

CAIIB ABM 2020

https://drive.google.com/file/d/10AkzgCtLyYexdKulaYY3B1ljHRJPGuLu/view?usp=sharing


MSME 2020

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1m1qF2hh9D0hpVvFTlNCR2rvpYAiEQTD8/view?usp=sharing


KYC AML:2020

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1T__7x42LV1HaG9YBQuMkAIPvS9GAHeL8/view?usp=sharing


BCSBI:2020

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lSOKtV5OrThXmCwiB4TGVyOjZVVtjThd/view?usp=sharing


CAIIB IT:2020

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1t7Ein_FE5YMruvDQPOG4Z3Z-TE-Xmp_1/view?usp=sharing


Certified Treasury Professionals:2020
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lVvYYtYC797vn1DKuSAsCxJhkv3E1JxK/view?usp=sharing


Digital banking 2020
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lckjesn0gs0kiOZID1aBubb4tiHvbzPE/view?usp=sharing


Forex Individual 2020

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lf3o8SRqy2_aRJulq9qf2q0krHmFlKok/view?usp=sharing


Forex Operations 2020
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lnPrVdXPVsc3sve8OwsjE87OEgsxsAVb/view?usp=sharing



Cyber Crime and fraud management 2020

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1m2y5bwuUa1vKkBjx5DjwH17dNf8BP-xu/view?usp=sharing


Information System for Bankers 2020
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lt0r7cRzJHTmBXsmF9xvEYFzaaxHCxTI/view?usp=sharing


International Trade Finance  2020
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lxS3FGgdzI5Q-rJFPufnVUSA69TpVjT3/view?usp=sharing


IT SECURITY 2020
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1ly9nfxTpucTPKB6kuV-mIod4pTc97ceg/view?usp=sharing


Micro finance 2020

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lzMSuWctOJUrKnNP_FfRlQL9ngs1U6aS/view?usp=sharing

Risk In financial services 2020
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1m7eITlMDdKTnc1FU1sSIKJtP8IcrZrG1/view?usp=sharing


Certified Audit  Professionals:
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1m8aQcdD4qr7R4QzUEgiN1Paw_rWhKWsm/view?usp=sharing

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1zoloZKNR2-UsBGIf0gw1ErhD0F2Y9mHW/view?usp=sharing



Telegram:

https://t.me/joinchat/KP68xFdZGztM7iDAuS4ueg














Tuesday, 18 December 2018

Recollected questions Caiib HR elective


Recollected questions of HR elective (16/12/18. Motivation theories, QC, TQM, Benchmarking, Six sigma, HRP, Career planning, Job analysis, job evaluation, performance appraisal, f w Taylor scientific theory, Elton mayo HR theory, leadership styles, change management, knowledge management, training & development, trade union, labour welfare measures act. It's not only easy to crack & can score very good marks which helps for aggregate purpose too. All the best.

Sunday, 16 December 2018

Caiib rural banking recollected


Rural banking elective.
Case study numerical 1.BKCC CALCULATION.
2.DSCR PROBLEM
3.NPV AND BCR NUMERICALS
4.PRIORITY SECTOR CASE STUDY
5.PMSBY APY AND PAYG CASE STUDIES
6.FARMER DOUBLE INCOME 2022 CASE STUDY
7.FARMER DEBT AND MFI CASE STUDY

Caiib Risk management recollected questions on 16.12.2018

Caiib Risk management recollected


Chief risk officer duty,reporting,appointmemt
Leverage ratio numerical
Operational risk
Pcr
Firb credit risk
Rsca operstional risk
Pilar 3 disclosure norms period
Rwas calculation

Numerical from BVP was also there,
Ques Obejective from PD ,EAD ,LGD
Market credit and operational risk theory based,


Which method we use for calculation of capital for credit operational and market risk
Case beta factor for agency services,
Icaap come under which piller,
CRO function
Reputation risk systematic risk come under

Monday, 16 July 2018

LATEST RBI POLICY GUIDE LINES ON BASEL & RISK MANAGEMENT

Eligible Credit Rating Agencies- Rating of NBFC-FD by Infomerics Valuation and Rating Private Limited (IVRPL) As perMaster Direction
dated 25.08.16, the names of six approved Credit Rating Agencies and theirminimuminvestment grade credit ratings have been listed. RBI
decided on 14.07.17, that NBFCs can also use the ratings of Infomerics Valuation and Rating Private Limited for rating the fixed deposit
portfolios of NBFCs with IVR BBB as theminimuminvestment grade credit rating.
RiskManagement and Interbank Dealings- Reports to the Reserve Bank
In terms RBI circular dated July 05, 2016, the Head/Principal Office of AD Category-I banks are required to submit a statement in form BAL
giving details of their holdings of all foreign currencies on fortnightly basis through Online Returns Filing System(ORFS) within seven
calendar days fromthe close of the reporting period towhich it relates. RBI decided (on 10.08.17) that w.e.f. August 16, 2017 (i.e. for
the statement of first fortnight of August 2017), this statement may be submitted through the web portal at https:// bop.rbi.org.in
as per prescribed format. Head/Principal Office of AD Cat-I banks earlier required to submit a monthly statement of Nostro/Vostro
account balances are to discontinue this report.
Basel III Framework on Liquidity Standards – Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR), Liquidity Risk Monitoring Tools and LCR Disclosure
Standard
In partial modification of extant guidelines, RBI decided (02.08.17) that Level 1 assets of banks would comprise of following. These
assets can be included in the stock of liquid assets without any limit as also without applying any haircut: i. Cash including cash
reserves in excess of required CRR.
(a). For banks incorporated in India,
 Reserves held with foreign Central Banks in excess of reserve requirement, where a foreign sovereign has been assigned a
0% risk weight as per rating by an international rating agency.
(Central bank’s reserves would include banks overnight deposits with central banks, and term deposits with the central banks that:
(i) are explicitly and contractually repayable on notice from the depositing bank; or (ii) that constitute a loan against which the bank
can borrow on a term or on an overnight basis but automatically renewable basis (only where the bank has existing deposit with the
relevant central bank). Other term deposits with central banks are not eligible for the stock of HQLA. However, if the term expires
within 30 days, the term deposits could be considered as an inflow).
 Reserves held with foreign Central Banks in excess of the reserve requirement, to the extent these balances cover the
bank’s stressed net cash outflows in that specific currency, in cases where a foreign sovereign has been assigned a non-0% risk
weight as per rating by an international rating agency, but a 0% risk weight has been assigned at national discretion under Basel II
Framework.
ii. Government securities in excess of the minimum SLR requirement.
iii. Within the mandatory SLR requirement, Government securities to the extent allowed by RBI, under Marginal Standing Facility
(MSF). (Government securities to the extent of 2 per cent of NDTL may be included i.e. currently allowed under marginal standing
facility (MSF).
iv. Marketable securities issued or guaranteed by foreign sovereigns satisfying all the following conditions:
(These securities will include only marketable securities which attract a 0% risk-weight in terms RBI Master Circular dated 01.07.13.
In cases where a foreign sovereign has been assigned a non-0% risk weight as per rating by an international rating agency, but a 0%
risk-weight has been assigned at national discretion under Basel II Framework, marketable securities issued or guaranteed by that
foreign sovereign within its domestic jurisdiction will be allowed to the extent those securities cover a bank’s stressed net cash
outflows in that specific foreign currency stemming from the bank’s operations in the jurisdiction where the bank’s liquidity risk is
being taken.)
(a) assigned a 0% risk weight under the Basel II standardized approach for credit risk;
(b) Traded in large, deep and active repo or cash markets characterised by a low level of concentration; and proven record as a
reliable source of liquidity in the markets (repo or sale) even during stressed conditions.
(c) not issued by a bank/FI/NBFC or any of its affiliated entities.
(d) Prudential Guidelines on Capital Adequacy andMarket Discipline- New Capital Adequacy Framework (NCAF) - Eligible Credit
Rating Agencies— INFOMERICS Valuation and Rating Pvt Ltd. (INFOMERICS)
(e) In terms exant guidelines, six domestic credit rating agencies viz. CARE, CRISIL, FITCH India,, ICRA/, Brickwork Ratings and

TREASURY PRODUCTS

TREASURY PRODUCTS
1) Which of the following currency is not fully convertible?
a) USD b) EURO c) INR d) GBP
2) What are the Spot Trades?
a) It is the process of settlement where payment and receipts of funds are settled in respective currencies.
b) The settlement takes place within 2 working days from the trade date.
c) Currency may be bought or sold with settlement on the same date i.e. To day (TOD)
d) The settlement can be on the -next day he. Tomorrow (TOM)
3) Which of the following is significant about spot trade?
a) All rates quoted on the screen are for spot trade unless otherwise mentioned
b) TOD and TOM rates are generally quoted at a discount to the spot rate.
c) TOD and TOM rates are less favourable to buyer d) All these
4) What is forward contract?
a) It is a contract for purchase and sale of currency at a future date.
b) The exchange rate for a future contract is quoted on the day of contract.
c) The contract between buyer and seller is called forward contract.
d) All the above
5) Which of the following is true regarding a forward contract?
a) Treasury may have forward contracts with customers or Banks as counterparties.
b) Customers cover currency risk through forward contract.
c) Treasury may cover its customer exposure by taking reverse position in Inter-Bank market.
d) All the above
6) The features of forward rates are:
a) They are not projected on the basis of exchange rate movement in the market
b) Forward rates are decided on the basis of interest rate differential of two currencies.
c) The interest rate differential is added to the spot rate for low interest yielding currency and deducted
from the spot rate for high interest yielding currency
d) All the above
7) Which of the following are True?
a) Forward rate reflects interest rate differential only in prefect markets.
b) Perfect markets are where currency is fully convertible and highly liquid.
c) When currency is not fully convertible the demand for forward contract influences
the forward exchange rate d) All these
8) The features of a swap are:
a) A combination of spot and forward transactions is called a swap.
b) Buying in the spot market and selling same amount in forward market or vice-versa is swap.
c) Swap is mainly used for funding requirements_ d) All these
9) A Bank may have foreign exchange surpluses from the following sources:
a) Profit from overseas Branch operations
b) Forex Borrowing in foreign domestic market
c) Foreign currency and convertible rupee deposits with branches
d) All the above

10) A Treasury may have surplus forex from the following sources:
a) Surpluses net of Bank's -lending in foreign currency
b) Floating funds on account of customer transactions
c) EEFC funds maintained in current account d) All these
11) The surplus forex can be invested by a Treasury in:
a) Inter-Bank loans b) Short term investments c) Nostro Account
d) Any or all of these
12) Which of the followings are the sources for short-term investments?
a) Treasury Bills issued by foreign governments
b) Commercial paper
c) Other debt instruments issued by multi lateral institutions
d) All the above
13) What is a Nostro Account?
a) This is a current account denominated in foreign currency maintained by a Bank with the correspondent Bank in the
home country of the currency.
b) Nostro Account does not attract any interest.
c) Many correspondent Banks provide automatic investment facility for funds held
overnight which earn nominal interest. d) All these
14)What is Money Market?
a) It is place for raising and deploying short term resources where maturity does not exceed one year.
b) Inter-Bank market is divided as call money and term money.
c) Call money market is also overnight market where borrowed funds are repaid on the next working day.
d) Notice money market is where funds are placed beyond overnight and upto 14 days.
15) The participants in call/notice money market are:
a) The major players are Banks and primary dealers.
b) Non-Banking financial companies can only lend the surplus funds upto specified limit_
c) NBFC can not participate in this market d) Both (a) and (c)
16) Which of the followings are the features to Treasury Bills?
a) The T-Bills are issued by the RBI on behalf of central govt. for pre-determined amount.
b) The interest is by way of discount.
c) The price is determined through an auction process d) All these
17) The maturity period of T-Bills is:
a) 91 days b) 364 days c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
18) Which of the followings is relevant to T-Bills?
a) Each issue of 91 days T-Bill is for Rs_ 500 crore and auction is conducted weekly onWednesday.
b) Each issue of 364 days is for Rs. 1000 crore and it is auctioned fortnightly
c) The Banks park short term funds in T-Bills d) All these
19) The Benefits of T-Bills are:
a) It is Risk free investment
b) It yields interest higher than the call money market.
c) It is possible to trade T-Bill in secondary market d) All these
20) Which of the followings is correct regarding T-Bill?
a) It is in the Electronic form and held in SGL Account maintained by Banks with RBI.
b) Depository participants can also operate through SGL Account.
c) The settlement of T-Bills is through Clearing Corporation of India d) All these
21) If a T-Bill is of 91 days is priced at 99.26, what does it signify?
a) It will yield interest at 2.99%
b) This is known as implicit yield.
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
22) The_ features of the commercial paper are:
a) It is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of promissory note.
b) The highly rated corporate Borrowers can raise short term funds through this instrument.
c) It is an additional instrument to the investing community d) All these
23) -The time limit for issuing a CP is:
a) Minimum maturity 7 days b) Maximum maturity one year
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
24) The requirements for issuing a commercial paper are:

a) The company issuing CP should have minimum credit rating of P2.
b) Banks can invest in CP only if it is issued in D-mat form
c) The minimum amount of CP is Rs. 5 lac d) All these
25) Who issues guidelines for issue of CP?
a) RBI
b) Market practices prescribed by FIMMDA (Fixed Income and Money Market and Derivatives Association of India) c) (a)
and (b) both d) None of these
26) A company issuing CP must satisfy the conditions:
a) Tangible Net worth of the company should not be less than Rs. 4 crore
b) The company should be enjoying working capital limit with Bank/financial institution
c) The Borrowal Account should be classified as standard Asset d) All these
27) How does Tangible Net Worth is arrived at?
a) Capital b) Free Reserves c) (a) + (b) — Intangible Assets if any
d) None of these
28) Which of the following is relevant about commercial paper?
a) It is issued for discounted amount i.e. less than face value
b) The price is quoted for face value
c) It is negotiable instrument d) All these
29) Which of the following statements regarding commercial paper is
not correct?
a) CP is a substitute to working capital
b) Interest rates are at par with PLR
c) It should be compulsory in D-mat form
d) Purchase and sale of CP is effected through the depository participants
30) Banks prefer to invest in CP through Treasury because :
a) Credit Risk is relatively low.
b) Yield on CP is higher than inter-bank money market.
c) There is no liquidity risk d) All these
31) Which of the following- Credit Rating Agencies have been authorized by RBI for
Rating?
a) ICRA b) CRISIL c) CARE and FITCH Ratings India Ltd. d) All these
32) The provisions for issue of commercial paper are:
a) Maximum period for subscription to an issue of CP is two weeks from the date of opening of issue.
b) CPs can be issued on a single date or in parts on different dates.
c) The same issue of CP should have the same date of maturity d) All these
33) The process of issue a CP involves:
a) The Bank is appointed as issuing and paying agent.
b) The Bank would assess the requirement and the extent to which the CP issue is linked with credit limit.
c) The potential investors are given a copy of IPA certificates d) All these
34) The features of certificate of Deposit are:
a) It is a debt instrument issued-by Bank against deposit of funds
b) It is a negotiable instrument
c) It bears interest rate higher than regular deposits of the Bank. d) All these
35) The requirements of certificate of Deposit are:
a) Minimum amount of deposit is Rs. 1 lac
b)_ The maturity period may range from 7 days to one year
c) It is an additional source for investment to Banks and corporates d) All these
36) What is a Reverse Repo?
a) It is a contract to buy securities and then to sell them back at an agreed future date and price.
b) It provides opportunity for short term investments of surplus funds
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
37) What is Repo?
a) It is an instrument of borrowing funds for a short period.
b) It involves selling a security and simultaneously agreeing to repurchase it at a future date for a slightly higher price.
c) The price difference is called interest d) All these
38) The significance of Repo is:
a) It is a tool used by RBI for open market operations.

b) It affects liquidity in the system.
c) None of these d) Both (a) and (b)
39) The commercial Banks participate in Repo transactions because of:
a) To meet short fall of CRR --
b) To meet short fall in SLR
e) The interest on Repo is lower than call market d) All these
40) Repo transactions are regulated by:
a) RBI b) Securities Contracts Regulations Act c) (a) and (b) both d) None
41) Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Repo is a short term money market instrument
b) The Repo Rate and period is announced by RBI,c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
42) What is the Repo Rate with effect from 16th Sept 2010?
a) 5% b) 5.25% C) 5.75% d) 6% e) None of these
43) What is the Reverse Repo Rate with effect from lSept 2010?
a) 4% b) 4.25% c) 4.75% d) 5% e) None of these
44) The process of Repo transaction is:
a) A Bank may sell securities to the counterparty with an agreement to repurchase the same securities after a certain
period at pre determined price.
b) The bank gets cash in exchange of securities and pays back the cash after a certain period and get back the securities.
c) The difference between sale price and repurchase price is interest d) All these
45) The advantage to the counterparty under a Repo transaction is:
a) It earns interest on secured [ending.
b) It holds securities which serves the purpose of meeting SLR requirements.
c) The value of securities is higher by a margin to cover price Risk. d) All these
46) Which of the following statements is correct? .
a) The margin maintained on Repo securities is called hair cut as principal amount exchanged against
securities is lower than the market value of securities
b) RBI uses Repo to control liquidity
c) Banks and primary dealers sell govt. securities to RBI and avail liquidity d) All these
47) Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) RBI uses Repo Transactions under liquidity adjustment facility
b) Liquidity is not affected through lending to Banks under a Repo Transaction.
c) Absorption of liquidity is done by accepting deposits from Banks.
d) Absorption of liquidity by accepting deposits from Banks is known as Reverse Repo.
48) Which of the following statements is correct?
a) RBI has commercial repo auctions on overnight basis.
b) Repo and Reverse Repo Rates have been pre-fixed.
c) RBI has full discretion to change the frequency of auction. d) All these
49) The process of Bill Re-discounting is:
a) Treasury will discount Bill of Exchange of short term nature which are already discounted with the banks.
b) Rediscounting is done at money market rates.
c) The rediscounting rates are negotiable between the lending Bank and borrowing Bank. d) All the above
50) The advantage to the lending Bank is:
a) The surplus funds are invested at term money rate
b) Credit Risk is low as lending Bank has recourse to the discounting Bank
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
51) The benefits to borrowing Bank is :
a) It is able to infuse liquidity from out of existing Assets
b) Its capital adequacy ratio is improved or rediscounted bills are added to Inter-Bank liability c) (a) and (b) both
d) All these
52) Which of the followings is significant regarding government securities?
a) They are issued by Public Debt Office of RBI.
b) State govts. Issue state development Bonds.
c) Govt. securities are sold through auction conducted by RBI d) All these
53) Which of the followings is correct?
a) Interest is paid on face value of the bond at coupon rate.
b) RBI arrives at a cut off price based on bids submitted by Banks and primary dealers.


c) The price may be higher or lower than the face value d) All these
54) Price movement of Bond depends on:
a) Demand of the Bond which depends on liquidity in the system.
b) The yield on Bond is different from coupon rate.
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
55) If 10 years G. sec. at 7.37 per cent is priced at 104.80, what would be the yield'
a) 6.67% b) 5.42% c) 6.15% d) None of these
56) The interest rates in the economy depends on:
a) Rate of inflation b) GDP growth c) Other economic indicators
d) A combination of all these
57) The variety of Bonds may include: a) Step up coupons b) Coupons linked to inflation c) Floating rate coupons
d) Any of these
58) What is STRIPS:
a) Separately registered interest and principal securities
b) Under this process principal and interest are treated as separate zero coupon securities c) (a) and (b) both
d) None of these
59) What is corporate debt paper?
a) It includes medium and long term bonds and debentures issued by corporates and financial institutions
b) Yield on Bonds is higher than the govt. securities
c) They are called non-SLR securities where banks can invest d) All these
60) Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) Tier-2 capital Bonds issued by Banks fall under the category of corporate debt paper.
b) Bonds issued by corporates are not that liquid_
c) The bonds are issued in D-mat form.
d) Bank Treasury finds an attractive investment in corporate debt paper.
61) Which of the following statements is correct regarding corporate debt paper?
a) Higher the credit risk higher is the yield.
b) Global ratings are necessary if the debt paper is issued in International market.
c) Treasury can invest FCNR deposit funds and other forex surpluses in global debt paper. d) All the above
62) Which of the followings is correct?
a) Debentures are issued by private companies.
b) Bonds mainly issued by public sector companies.
c) Government does not provide guaranter on PSU Bonds d) All these
63) The material difference between debentures and bonds is:
a) Debentures are governed by relevant provisions of company law.
b) Debentures are transferable on registration
c) Bonds are negotiable instrument governed by Law of Contract. d) All these
64) The Bond can be : a) Zero Coupon Bond b) Floating Rate Bond c) Deep Discount Bond
d) Any of these
65) Which of the followings is not correct?
a) Debenture and Bonds can be issued with redemption in instruments over a period.
b) They can be issued with a premium or redemption.
c) There are no Bonds with put and call option
d) Bonds secured by stocks or other collateral are called collaterised obligations
66) Which of the followings is relevant regarding issue of Bonds and debentures?
a) The holders have prior legal claim over the equity and preference stock holders.
b) The Trustee appointed by issuing company protects the rights of debenture holders.
c) The Trustee can initiate legal action against the company in case of any default.
d) All of the above
67) Companies i s suing unsecured debentures and bonds have to compl y wi th the
provision of :
a) Companies Acceptance of Deposit Rules 1975 b) SEBI
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
68) What is a convertible Bond?
a) It is a mix of Debt and Equity.
b) Bond holder has an option to convert debt into equity on a fixed date.


c) The conversion price is pre-determined d) All these
69) The advantages of convertible Bonds are:
a) If the stock price is higher than prefixed conversion price, the investor would convert debt into Equity.
b) Company will have no debt repayment
c) The Equity of the company will be strengthened d) All these
70) Which of the followings are derivative products treated on stock exchange?
a) Index features b) Index options c) Stock futures and options d) All these
71) Provisions to invest in Equities are:
a) Banks can invest in Equities upto 20% of their net owned funds
b) Stock prices are highly volatile
c) Banks prefer low risk investments d) All these
72) The provision on Fll investments are:
a) Foreign currency funds are converted into rupee for portfolio investors.
b) Rupee funds with profits are converted into foreign currency for repatriation
c) Flls are allowed to invest in debt market d) All these
73) What is External Commercial Borrowings?
a) Indian companies can borrow on global market through Bank loan or issue of debt paper.
b) The debt can be repaid by reconversion of rupee funds into foreign currency
c) (a) and. (b) both d) None of these
74) The guidelines for investment of foreign currency funds of Banks are?
a) FCNR deposits can be invested in overseas market and for domestic lending :n foreign currency.
b) Banks are permitted to borrow/invest in overseas market 50% of Tier-I Capital.
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
75) What is Export Earners Foreign Currency Account?
a) Exporters are allowed to hold 100% export proceeds in a Current Account. wtth
b) No interest is paid on such deposits
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
76) What is Gilts?
a) Securities issued by government or Treasuries.
b) They do not have any credit Risk, c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
77) SGL Account is:
a) Subsidiary General Ledger
b) It is maintained by public debt office of RBI
c) Banks maintain exclusively government Securities Accounts d) All of these
78) Which of the followings is correct?
a) Counterparty is the other party to a Transaction
b) Yield is internal rate of return where interest is also reinvested at original coupon rate.
c) Foreign currency deposits are denominated in foreign currency d) All of these
79) The features of FCNR deposit are:
a) They are denominated either in USD, GBP, JPY or EURO, Can- Dollar and Aus Dollar.
b) The deposits are maintained by non-resident Indians.
c) Interest on FCNR deposits is regulated by RBI d) All of these
80) Broad money or M3 consists of :
a) Currency in circulation b) Demand and time deposits with Banks
c) Deposits of Banks and other deposits with RBI d) All of these
81) Monetary policy of RBI aims at:
a) Controlling rate of inflation b) Ensuring stability of financial market
c) Regulating money supply d) All of these
82) The tools in the hands of RBI for direct control of money supply are:
a) CRR b) SLR c) (a)-and (b) both d) None of these
83) CRR is calculated on net Demand and Time liabilities which contain:
a) Demand deposits and Time deposits
b) Overseas Borrowings
c) Foreign outward remittances and other demand and time liabilities d) All of these
84) The Demand deposits include:
a) Current and Savings Deposits b) Margin Money for Letter of Credits
c) Overdue Fixed Deposits d) All these
85) Other Demand and Time Liabilities include:
ayAccrued Interest b) Credit Balance in Suspense Account
c) Any other liability d) All these
86) In which of the following categories only 3% minimum CRR is required to be
maintained?
a) Net Inter-Bank call borrowing/deposits where maturity does not exceed 14 days,
b) Credit Balance in ACU (Asian Currency Unit) Accounts
c) Demand and Time liabilities in respect of off shore Banking units d) None of these
87) Banks need not maintain CRR on :
a) Paid up capital, reserves, retained profits, refinance from apex institutions.
b) Excess provision for Income tax .
c) Claims received from DICGC/ECGC d) All these
88) Which of the followings is correct?
a) CRR need not be maintained on Inter-Bank term deposits of original maturity upto one year
b) RBI does not pay interest on CRR Balance
c) The Demand and Time l iabil i ties as on the report ing Friday of second previous
fortnight will be basis for CRR calculation d) All these
89) SLR can be maintained in the form of following Assets:
a) Cash Balance in excess of CRR requirements
b) ,Gold at current market price
c) Approved securities valued as per RBI norms d) All these
90) What is Liquidity Adjustment Facility?
a) It is the mechanism whereby RBI lends funds to Banking sector through repo instrument
b) This is used to monitor day to day market liquidity
c) This is exclusively applicable to repo and reverse repo transactions with RBI
d) All these
91) The features of Negotiated Dealing System are:
a) This is a system where securities clearing against assured payment is handed by Clearing Corporation of India.
b) Physical delivery of cheques are not required.
c) All Inter-Bank Money Market deals are done through Negotiated Dealing System
d) All the above
92) The feature of Real Time Gross Settlement System are:
a) All Inter-Bank payments are settled instantly.
b) Banks' Accounts with all the Branch offices of RBI are also integrated.
c) Since it is instant payment system, Banks need to maintain adequate funds
throughout the day.
d) All the above
93) Which of the following is correct?
a) Asian currency unit is a mechanism for payment to/from members of Asian clearing union.
b) Off shore Banking units render special Banking services only to overseas customers.
c) SWIFT is a secure worldwide financial messaging system exclusive to Banks.
d) All the above
94) What is DVP?
a) Delivery vesus Payment system where one account is debited and another account is credit at the same time.
b) In case of securities purchase funding account is debited and securities account is credited.
c) This facilitates prompt settlement of security transactions. d) All these


1 C 2 A 3 D 4 D 5 D 6 D 7 D 8 D 9 D 10 D
11 D 12 D 13 A 14 A 15 A 16 D 17 C 18 D 19 D 20 D
21 C 22 D 23 C 24 D 25 A 26 D 27 C 28 D 29 B 30 D
31 D 32 D 33 D 34 D 35 D 36 C 37 D 38 D 39 D 40 C
41 C 42 D 43 D 44 D 45 D 46 D 47 B 48 D 49 D 50 C
51 C 52 D 53 D 54 A 55 A 56 D 57 D 58 C 59 D 60 B
61 D 62 D 63 D 64 D 65 C 66 D 67 C 68 B 69 D 70 D
71 D 72 D 73 C 74 D 75 C 76 C 77 D 78 D 79 D 80 D
81 D 82 C 83 D 84 D 85 D 86 D 87 D 88 D 89 D 90 D
91 D 92 D 93 D 94 D

TREASURY RISK MANAGMENT

TREASURY RISK MANAGMENT

1) Leverage means ability of a business concern:
a) To with stand pressures in the times of crisis
b) To meet its liabilities in time
c) To borrow or build up assets on the basis of given capital d) none of these
2) In case of banks, lev-erage is expressed by:
a) Return on Assets b) Net NPA ratio c) Capital adequacy ratio
d) Capital to outside liabilities e) None of these
3) Treasury deals are normally done over phone or over a dealing screen_ The deal
terms are-con-firmed in writing by
a) Front office b) back office c) middle office d) any of these
4) Delivery versus payment means one account is debited and another is credited:
a) on the same day b) by next day c) at the same time d) none of these
5) lh Treasury Operations, the term 'carry' means
a) Interest cost of funds locked in a trading position
b) Carrying forward the contract to next trading period
c) Carrying forward the settlement to next day d) none of these
6) "Marked to Market" means valuation of trading positions applying
a) Purchase price b) current market value
c) current market value or purchase price whichever is lower d) None of these
7) Mismatch refers to:
a) Difference in interest rates paid and received
b) Difference in sale and purchase price
c) Difference in duration of assets and liabilities d) all of these a) None of these
8) Which of the following is a reason for importance of Treasury risk management
a) Adverse market movements may result in instant losses
b) Treasury transactions are of high value needing relatively low capital
c) Large size of transactions done at the sole discretion of the Treasurer
d) Both (a) & (b) only e) All of these
9) High leverage means:
a) Very low capital requirement
b) Very high capital requirement
c) Very high profits compared to capital
d) Very high productivity e) None of these
10) Which of the following is/are not a conventional tool of management control on a
treasury function
a) Back office which checks all transactions of dealers
b) Exposure limits for counterparties avoiding concentration risk
c) Intra day and overnight ceiling on open positions and stop loss limits
d) Value at risk and duration techniques e) None of these
11) Which of the following is not a function of Back office of a treasury
a) Generating deals i.e. purchase and sale of foreign exchange, securities etc.
b) Settling the trade after verifying internal controls
c) Obtaining independent confirmation of deal from the counterparty
d) Verifying that rates / prices mentioned in the deal slip are conforming to the market
rates at the time of the deal e) None of these
12) Which of the following is responsible for ensuring compliance with various risk limits
imposed by the Management and RBI as well as accuracy and objectivity of the transaction?
a) front office b) back office c) middle office
d) both (a) & (b) only e) All of these
13) Middle office in a treasury is responsible for:
a) Validating deal wise information from accounting point of view
b) Overall risk management and MIS
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these
14) Default risk in Treasury means:
a) Failure of the borrowing bank in the call money market to repay the amount on due date to the lending bank
b) Possible failure of the counterparty to the transaction to deliver I settle their part of transaction

c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these
15) The exposure limits for counterparties are fixed on the basis of counterparty's
a) net worth b) market reputation c) track record
d) size of treasury operations e) all of these
16) The Exposure limits for counterparties are:
a) Vary in relation to period of exposure
b) Remain same irrespective of period
c) Fixed only as per net worth irrespective of period d) none of these
17) In which of the following areas trading limits are not fixed by management?
a) limits on deal size b) limits on open position c) stop loss limits
d) all of these e) None of these
18) Open Position refers to:
a) Trading positions where the buy / sell positions are not matched
b) Trading positions where the securities are bought in the open market
c) Open market operations d) none of these
19) Limit on open positions are fixed because
a) There may be loss if there is adverse movement in rates
b) There is 'carry' cost
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these
20) Which of the following is incorrect regarding open position in forex?
a) Position limits are prescribed currency wise as also for aggregate position in Rupees
b) There are separate limits for 'day light' and 'over night' c) None of these


TREASURY RISK MANAGEMENT
1 C 2 C 3 B 4 C 5 A 6 B 7 C 8 E 9 A 10 D
11 A 12 D 13 B 14 C 15 E 16 A 17 E 18 A 19 C 20 C

DERIVATIVE PRODUCTS


1) Under the Treasury operations the derivatives are used:
a) To manage Risk as including ALM Risk.
b) To meet the requirements of corporate customers.
c) For taking trading position in derivative products d) All the above
2) The kinds of Derivatives are:
a) Cross currency derivatives b) Rupee derivatives
c) (a) and (b) both d) All these
3) The features of a Derivative are:
a) It does not have independent value.
b) The value of a Derivative is derived from an underlying market_
c) Derivatives are used in both the financial and commodity markets d) All the above
4) Financial market consists of:
a) Foreign Exchange b) Debt Instruments c) Equities d) All the above
5) Which of the followings are not derivatives?
a) Forward Contract b) Corporate Bonds c) Swaps d) Options
6) Forward contracts are used by:
a) Exporters b) Importers c) Banks d) All of these
7) Derivative is an instrument where:
a) Value is derived from spot prices in an underlying market.
b) Price depends upon future market conditions
e) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
8) A derivative product can be structured based on the following criteria:
a) Risk Appetite b) Size of Transactions
c) Maturity Requirements d) All of these
9) What is an over the counter product?

TREASURY & ASSET LIABILITY.MANAGEMENT MCQs

1 The significance of Treasury operations in Asset Liability management is:
a) It operates in financial markets directly.
b) Treasury is a link between core banking functions and market operations
c) Treasury identifies and monitors the market risk d) All of these
2_ How the Treasury operations are useful in minimizing Asset Liability mismatch?
a) Through uses of derivatives
b) Use of new products
c) Through Bridging the liquidity and rate sensitivity gaps d) All of these
3 Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Trading in securities is exposed to market risk
b) At times the Risks are compensatory in nature and help to minimize the mismatches.
c) Options can be economic only in marketable size d) All of these
4. Treasury operations also help in effective monitoring and implementation of Asset
Liability management process in view of the:
a) Credit instruments can be replaced by Treasury instruments
b) Treasury products are more liquid.
c) Treasury operations monitor exchange rate and interest rate movements
d) All of these
5. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Treasury operations in
Asset Liability management process?
a) Derivatives can be widely used in Treasury operations
b) Derivatives increases liquidity risk
c) The capital requirement for derivative operations is small.
d) Derivatives replicate market Movements.
6. Asset Liability mismatches can be reduced through use of derivatives in Treasury
operations because:
a) Derivatives can be used to hedge high value transactions
b) It can also minimize aggregate risk in Asset liability mismatches
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
7 Suppose a Bank is fundingmedium term loan of 3 years with deposits having
average maturity of 3 months as short term deposits or borrowings are cheaper than
3 years deposits. what would be the consequences and what a bank should do?
a) Bank would resort to short term resources to increase the spread.
b) The (a) above will have liquidity risk
c) This will also have interest Risk since every time the deposits would be priced.
d) The Bank should swap 3 month interest rate into a fixed rate for 3 years.
8. Suppose a Bank prices the 3 month deposit at 91 day T-Bill + 1% and swap rate of
the loan yield T-Bill+3%. What is the impact?
a) Fixed interest of the loan is swapped into floating rate
b) Bank has a spread of 2%
c) The Risk is protected during the period of loan. d) All of these
9. Suppose a Bank borrows US dollars at 3% and lends in domestic market at 8.5%.
The Bank pays forward premium of 1.5% to cover exchange Risk. What is the overall impact?
a) The Bank earns a spread of 2% without any exchange Risk.
b) A bank through Treasury operations can supplement domestic liquidity.
c) The above process is known as arbitrage. d) All of these
10. A Bank under the Treasury operations can buy call options to protect foreign
currency obligations as under:
a) This will help the Bank to protect rupee value of foreign currency receipts and payments
b) The Bank will gain if the spot rate of call option on the exercise date is more favourable than the strike
price of the option.
c) (a) and (b) both d) none of the above
11. Which of the followings is relevant when interest rate is linked to the rate of

inflation?
a) Index linked Bonds b) Treasury Bonds
c) Corporate Debt Instruments d) All of these
12. The significance of index linked bonds is:
a) It provides protection against inflation rate rise.
b) It is inbuilt in the process.
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
13. Suppose a Bank- issues 7 year Bond with a put option at the end of 31-6 year. What
does it signify?
a) It is as good as 3 year investment
b) The investment becomes more liquid
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
14. The limitations of Derivatives are:
a) If interest rate on deposits and loans are not based on benchmar-k
rates interest rate swaps may not be that useful.
b) The product prices may not move in line with market rates.
c) The Treasury operations may not provide perfect hedge. d) All of these
15'. Which of the followings is correct?
a) Treasury operations are concerned with market risk
b) Treasury operations has no link with the credit risk
c) Credit risk in Treasury operations are contained by exposure limits
d) All the above
16. Why the corporate prefer to issue debt paper than to Bank credit?
a) The cost of debt paper is much lower
b) The procedure is easy
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
17. A Bank may prefer to invest in corporate Bonds because:
a) Bbnd is more liquid Asset
b) Bond has an easy exit
c) Bond can be sold at discount d) All of these
18. Which of the following is not credit substitute?
a) Commercial paper b) Mortgage loan
c) Corporate bond d) Certificate of Deposit
19. The difference between a Bond and loan is:
a) The loan has normally fixed rate of interest. Bond price is dependent on Market interest rate movements.
Bonds are more liquid
Yield to maturity value can be known easily in a bond d) All of these
What is securitization?
A process which converts conventional credit into tradable Treasury Assets.
Credi t receivabl es of the Bank can be conver ted into Bonds i .e. .pass through
certificates
These certificates can be traded in the market
The advantages of securitization for a Bank is:
It provides liquidity to the issuing Bank
The Bank capital does not get blocked
Securitization proceeds can be used for fresh lending
22. Which of the following loans cannot be securitized?
a) Long term loans b) Short term loans
c) Medium term loans d) Retail loans
23. Which of the followings is true?
a) Surplus funds with the banks can be invested in pass through certificates
b) This will be indirect expansion of credit portfolio
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
24. The features of credit derivatives are:
a) It segregates credit Risk from loan
b) The Risk is transferred from the owner of the Asset to another person for a fee.

c) The instrument is known as credit linked certificates d) All of these
25. The constituents of a credit Derivatives are:
a) Protection Buyer b) Protection Seller
c) Reference Asset d) All of these
26. The process of credit Derivative involves:
a) The protection seller guarantees payment of principal and interest or both of the Asset owned by the
protection Buyer in case of credit default.
b) The protection Buyer pays a premium to the protection Seller
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
27. The advantages of credit Derivatives are:
a) It helps the issuer to diversity the credit risk
b) The capital can be used more efficiently
c) Credit Derivative is a transferable instrument d) All of these
28. What is transfer pricing under Treasury operations?
a) It is the process of fixing the cost of resources and return on Assets of a Bank in rational manner.
b) The Treasury buys and sells deposits and loans of Bank. -
c) The price fixed by the treasury becomes the basis for assessing profitability of a Bank
d) All the above
29. The parameters for fixing price by a Treasury are:
a) Market interest rate
b) Cost of hedging market Risk
c) Cost of maintaining reserve assets of the Bank d) All of these
30. Which of the following statements is correct regarding transfer pricing under Treasury operations?
a) If Bank procures deposit at 7% but the Treasury buys at a lower cost, the difference being the cost would be borne by the
Bank.
b) If the Bank lends at higher rate and sells the loan to Treasury at lower rate, the Balance being risk premium
would be the income for the Bank.
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
31. An integrated Riskmanagement policy under Asset Liabilitymanagement should focus on: a) Riskmeasurement andmonitoring b) Risk
Neutralisation, c) Product pricing d) All of these
32. Liquidity policy survival prescribe: a) Minimum liquidity to be maintained b) Funding of Reserve Assets c) Exposure limit
to money market d) All of these
33. The derivative Policy should consist:
a) Capital Allocation b) Restrictions on Derivative Trading
c) Exposure limits d) All of these
34. The investment policy should contain:
a) Permissible investments b) SLR and non SLR investments
c) Private placement d) All of these
35. The investment policy need not contain:
a) Derivative Trading b) Trading in Securities and Repos
c) Valuation and Accounting policy d) Classification of Investments
36. The composite Risk policy under Treasury operations should include the following:
a) Norms for Merchant and Trading positions b) Securities Trading
c) Exposure limits d) All of these
37. Composite Risk policy should also contain the following:
a) Intra-day and overnight positions b) Stop loss limits
c) Valuation of Trading positions d) All of these
38. Transfer pricing policy shduld prescribe:
a) Spread to be retained by the Treasury
b) Segregation of Administrative and Hedging cost
c) Allocation of cost d) All of these
39. According to RBI, policy of Investment and Risk should be supplemented with:
a) Prevention of money laundering policy
b) Hedging policy for customer Risk_ c) (a) and (b) -d) None of these
40. Which of the following are essential requirements for formulation of policy
guidelines?

a) It should be approved by the Board
b) It should comply with the guidelines of RBI and SEBI
c) It should follow current market practices d) All of these
41. Which of the followings is correct?
a) All policies should be reviewed annually
b) A copy of the policy guidelines needs to be filed with RBI
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of above
42. A Run of the Bank signifies:
a) A situation where depositors lose confidence and start withdrawing their balances.
b) A Bank running in continuous loss
c) A Bank where non-performing Assets level is high. d) All of these
43. Liquefiable securities are:
a) Securities that can be readily sold in the secondary market.
b) Securities that have easy liquidity
c) Short term securities d) All of these
44. What is Sensitivity Ratio?
a) Extent of interest sensitive Assets
b).Ratio of interest rate sensitive Assets to interest rate sensitive Liabilities
c) -(a) and (b) both d) All of these
45. Risk appetite is:
a) The capacity and willingness to absorb losses on account of market Risk.
b) The extent of Risk involved in securities c) (a) & (b) d) All of these
46. Which of the followings is correct?
a) Special purpose vehicle is formed exclusively to handle securities paper on behalf of sponsoring Bank.
b) Hedging policy is a document which specifies extent of coverage of foreign currency obligations.
c) Self regulatory organizations formulate market related code of conduct
d) All of the above
47. Liquidity policy of a Bank should contain:
a) Contingent funding
b) Inter-Bank committed credit lines
c) (a) and (b) both d) All of these


Answers

1 D 2 D 3 D 4 D 5 B 6 C 7 D 8 D 9 D 10 C
11 A 12 C 13 C 14 D 15 D 16 A 17 D 18 B 19 D 20 D
21 D 22 B 23 C 24 D 25 D 26 C 27 D 28 D 29 D 30 C
31 C 32 D 33 D 34 D 35 D 36 D 37 D 38 D 39 C 40 D
41 C 42 A 43 A 44 B 45 A 46 B 47 C

Interest Rate Risk Management


There is complete deregulation of Interest rates on Fixed Deposits, Recurring Deposits, and SB
Deposits above Rs. 1.00 lac. Banks are also free to determine Interest rates on NRE Deposit
accounts. This has led to interest rate Volatility resulting into greater Interest Rate Risk.
Adverse movement of Interest rates has direct impact on NII as well as NIM. Market Interest
rate also has impact on Present Value of Bonds and Securities. 1% rise in market rate of return
will cause lesser valuation of securities. Also 1% fall in interest rate will cause higher valuation
of securities resulting into increase in Mark to Market Price.
Types of Interest Rate Risk
Following are various types of Interest Rate Risk:
1. Mismatch or Gap Risk
This is risk of gap between maturities of Assets and Liabilities. Sometimes, Long term
loans are funded by short term deposits. After maturity of deposits, these liabilities are
get repriced and Gap of Interest rates between Assets and Liabilities may become
narrowed thereby leading to reduction of profits.
2. Basis Risk
Change of Interest rates on Assets and Liabilities may change in different magnitudes
thus creating variation in Net Interest Income. It tries to explain what will be the %age
effect on Earnings due to increase or decrease in interest rates by 1bps.
3. Net Interest Position Risk
If the bank has more assets than the liabilities, 1% decrease in interest rate will result
into less earnings and more expenditure on account of interest. This will directly affect
NII and NIM.
4. Embedded Option Risk
Adverse movement of Interest Rate may result into pre-payment of CC/DL and TL. It
may also result into pre-mature withdrawal of TDs/RDs. This will also result into reduced
NII. This is called Embedded Risk.
5. Yield Curve Risk
Yield is Internal Rate of Return on Securities. Higher Interest Rate scenario will reduce
Yield and thereby reduction in the value of assets. Adverse movement of yield will
certainly affect NII (Net Interest Income).
6. Price Risk
In financial market, when assets are sold before maturity in order to meet liquidity
requirements, loss may occur due to lower selling price.
7. Re-investment Risk
It is uncertainty with regard to interest rate at which future cash flows could be reinvested.
Effects of Interest Rate Risk
Effect on Earnings.
Effect on Economic value of share
Embedded Losses

Liquidity Management


Banks are required to honour withdrawals from Deposits. Also the banks are supposed to
disburse loans in time. Liquidity is needed to meet both these requirements. In other words,
liquidity is the ability to accommodate decrease in liability as well as funding of increase in
assets.
Functions of Liquidity Management:
1. It defines market place of bank.
2. It enables banks to meet prior loan commitments.
3. It enables the banks to avoid unprofitable sale of assets.
4. It lowers size of default risk premium.
Liquidity Mismanage may lead to the following:
 It declines earnings.
 It increases NPAs.
 It results in downgrading of rating.
Factors affecting Liquidity
Liquidity is affected by the following:
1. Less profits leads to less liquidity
2. Rise in NPAs means less liquidity
3. Deposit concentration in Term Deposits may lead to less liquidity
4. More taxes means less liquidity.
Types of Liquidity Risks
1. Funding Risk: Decrease in deposits due of bad reputation or loss of confidence.
2. Time Risk:Instalments of loan are not forthcoming in time.
3. Call Risk: Non-fund based credit facilities converted into Fund based. Crystallization of
Contingent liabilities like LC/LG turning into Fund Based Loans.
4. Embedded Risk: Adverse movement of Interest Rate may result into pre-payment of
CC/DL and TL. It may also result into pre-mature withdrawal of TDs/RDs. This will also
result into reduced NII. This is called Embedded Risk.
How to manage Liquidity Risk?
1. Developing an organizational structure.
2. Setting of Tolerance level limits.
 Limit of cash flow mismatches for tomorrow, next week, next month or next year.
 Limit of Loan to Deposit Ratio
 Limit of Loan to Capital ratio.
Mismatch level in 1-14 days bucket and 15-88 days bucket should remain about 80% of cash
flow in the particular period. To manage liquidity and remain solvent by maintaining short term
gap up to 1 year should be around 15% .
Measurement of Liquidity Risks: Liquidity Risk can be measured in any of the two ways:
1. Stock Approach
2. Flow Approach

Provisioning related numericals

 Provisioning related numericals
Ex. 1
Account with Outstanding of Rs. 10.00 lac became Out of order on 22.1.11 and it became NPA
on 22.4.2011. The Value of Security at later stage is Rs. 7.00 lac. Calculate Provision as on
31.3.12.
Solution
It is a Sub-Standard Asset as on 31.3.2012.
Provision is 1000000*15/100 = 150000/-
Ex. 2
A loan account with outstanding of Rs. 10.00 lac and Value of Security Rs. 6.00 lac was Substandard
as on 30.3.2008. What will be provision as on 31.3.2012?
Solution
The account will be Doubtful (DI) on 30.3.2009, D2 on 30.9.2010, D3 on 30.3.2012. Provision
will as under:
Secured portion = 6.00*100/100 = 6.00 lac
Un-secured portion = 4.00*100/100 = 4.00 lac
Total Provision = 6+4 = 10.00 lac.
Ex. 3
A loan became Doubtful on 12.2.2009. The outstanding is 6.00 lac. What will be provision on
31.3.2012.
Solution
The Account will be categorized as Doubtful (D3) as on 12.2.2012. Provision is 100% of 6.00 lac
= 6.00 lac

lac
97
Ex. 4
D2 category account has outstanding--10.00 lac, DI/SI ----2.00 lac, Value of security ---6.00 lac
Solution
Un- Secured portion = 10-2-6 = 2.00 lac Provision = 2.00 * 100/100 = 2.00 lac
Secured portion = 6.00 * 40/100 = 2.40 lac
Total provision = 2.00 + 2.40 = 4.40 lac
Ex. 5
D2 Category loan is having outstanding 4.00 lac, Value of Security 1.50 lac and ECGC cover
50%. Calculate provision as on 31.3.2012.
Solution
Unsecured portion = 50% of (O/s – VS) = 50% (4.00 – 1.50) = 1.25 lac
Secured portion = 1.50 lac
Provision on Unsecured portion = 1.25*100/100 = 1.25 lac
Provision on Secured portion = 1.50*40/100 = 0.60 lac
Total provision = 1.25 +0.60 = 1.85 lac.
Ex. 6
A D2 category loan is having outstanding Rs. 6.00 lac. The Collateral Security is Rs. 3.00 lac
and Primary Security is Rs. 2.00 lac. There is also Guarantee of Rs. 10.00 lac. Calculate
provision.
Solution
Unsecured portion = O/s – Primary Security – Collateral = 6.00 – 2.00 -3.00 = 1.00 lac
Secured portion = 2.00 + 3.00 = 5.00 lac.
Provision on Unsecured portion = 1.00 *100/100 = 1.00 lac
Provision on Secured portion = 5.00*40/100 = 2.00 lac
Total provision = 1.00 + 2.00 = 3.00 lac.
Ex. 7
Advance portfolio of a bank is as under:
Total advances = 40000 crore, Gross NPAs = 9%, Net NPAs = 2%
Find out 1) Total Provision 2) Provisioning Coverage Ratio
Solution
NPAs = Total Advances *9/100 = 40000*9/100 = 3600 crore
Standard Assets = 40000-3600 = 36400 crore
Provision on Standard Assets = 36400*0.40% = 145.60 crore
Provision on NPAs = 9% - 2% = 7% = 40000*7/100 = 2800 crore
1) Total provision = 145.60 + 2800 = 2945.60 crore
Gross NPAs = 40000*9/100 = 3600 crore
Net NPAs = 40000*2/100 = 800 crore
2) Provision Coverage Ratio = Provision on NPAs / Gross NPAs = 2800/3600 = 77%.
Ex. 7 Account becomes doubtful on 12th Feb 2008. The Balance is Rs. 6 lac. Value of security is
3 lac. What will be the provision on 31.3.2011?
Solution
 It is D3 Type of account.
 Therefore, provision will be 100% i.e. 6 lac = 6.00 lac Ans.

Ex. 8 NPA o/s : Rs. 10 lac including suspended interest/Derecognized interest Rs. 2 lac.
Security value is Rs. 6 lac. It became NPA on 25th Feb 2008. What would be the provision on
31.3.2011.
 It is D2 category account
 4.40 LAC (10-2-6= 2x100%= 2 lac + 40% on 6 lac ie 2.40 lac = 4.40 lac) D2
Ex. 9 A/c became NPA on 2nd January 2008. Balance o/s is 10 lac including Derecognized
interest Rs. 2 lac and ECGC cover of 50%. Value of security is 4 lac. What will be provision on
31.3.2009.
 It is D1 category account.
 10 lac – 2 lac, DI – 4 lac Sec. = 4 lac
 ECGC Cover: 4 lac x 50% = 2 lac
Provision on Unsecured portion
 Unsecured: 4 lac – 2 lac = 2 lac x100% = 2.00 lac
Provision on Secured portion
 Secured: 4 lac x 25% = 1.00 lac
 Total Provision: 2 + 1 = 3.00 lac

Sunday, 15 July 2018

Treasury and ALM

Treasury and ALM:
ALM refers to risk management to avoid mismanagement between Assets and Liabilities. The
risk of Liquidity and Interest rates, if not controlled may result into negative spread and can
cause loss to bank. Therefore ALM manages two risks : 1. Liquidity Risk & 2. Interest Rate Risk.
Liquidity Risk and Interest Rate Risk
We borrow from Money market and invest in 5 year G-securities. If Bond prices come down, we
are not willing to sell the bond, but loan has to be repaid. This may lead to shortage of funds
which is called Liquidity Risk.
Liquidity Risk is translated into Interest Rate Risk when funds have to be arranged at higher
rate. Mismatch between Assets and Liabilities also lead to Interest Rate Risk.
Role of ALM to mitigate Liquidity Risk
Liquidity Gap arises when there is difference between souses and uses of funds. RBI has
prescribed Time bands to measure Liquidity Gaps. These are
1-14 days.
14-29 days
1M – 3M
ALM measures the gap between Uses and Sources between above said Time bands.
RBI has also prescribed limits of maximum negative mismatch as under:
Next Day -------5%
2-7 Days------10%
8-14 Days—-15%
15-28 Days--20%
ALM takes steps to meet shortfall as a contingent measure at a reasonable rate.
Interest rate Gap leads to erosion of NII (Net Interest Income) due to difference between
earnings and payments.
ALM has the following role to play:
 Treasury establishes a link between Core banking and market operations to manage
risks.
 Treasury earns profits by managing funds out of mismatches.
 Treasury hedges residual risk in Forex market.
 Treasury monitors exchange rates and interest rate movements in the market.
Use of Derivatives in ALM
Derivatives are used to hedge high value individual transactions.
For Example: Medium Term Loan of 3 Years is funded by Deposit of 3M because 3M deposit is
cheaper and NII is increased.
 Bank may swap 3M interest rate into fixed rate into Fixed rate for 3 years.Bank may also
swap Fixed interest rate on loan into floating rate linked to T-bill rate. If 3M deposit rate
is T+1% and 3Year interest rate on loan is T+3%, there will be NII@2%.

 Bank may arbitrage Forex. It can buy USD funds at cheaper rate (say 3%) and invest in
rupee loan at 6.5%. The spread can be 3.5%
Risks of Derivatives: Derivatives are not free from risks. Tworisks involved in Derivatives are:
1. Residual risk i.e. basis risk.
2. Embedded Option Risk :There are embedded options in certain bank products. E.g. FD
is paid premature or TL is pre-paid. It affects the ALM policy if pre-mature payments are
large.
Treasury and Credit Risk
There are chances of failure on the part of counter party to meet its obligations especially when
Treasury deals in:
1. Debt Market products such as CPs, Bonds, Debentures etc.
2. Securitization of Credit Receivables – when credit receivables are converted into Units
or Bonds which are called PTCs ( Pass-through certificate).
3. SPV –Special Purpose Vehicle enables the banks to securitize the Mortgage loans
Credit Derivatives
1. Credit Default Swaps
2. Total Returns Swap
3. Credit Linked Notes
Transfer Pricing
It is important function of ALM. It relates to:
 Fixing cost of recourses and return on Assets.
 ALM notionally buys and sells deposits and loans of the bank.
 Price is paid for buying deposits and price is received for selling loans. This is called
Transfer Pricing.
 The prices vary according to the tenure or maturity of deposits and loans.
 Deposits are bought by Treasury at a rate arrived at by adjusting hedging cost from rate
of deposit. If bank accepts deposits%7% and cost of hedging is 1%, the deposits will be
bought by Treasury @6%.
 Loans are sold to Treasury at transfer cost. For example, 10% loan may be notionally
sold to Treasury @7%. The balance is denoted as Risk premium.
 Treasury Division, after implementing the Transfer Pricing takes care of Liquidity Risk
and Interest rate risk.

Derivative Products Treasury management

Derivative Products Treasury management
Derivative Products
Derivatives don’t have independent value. Their value is derived from the underlying market.
The market may be financial market dealing in forex, bonds and equities as well as commodity
market dealing with underlying commodities like Gold, Silver etc.
Derivatives refer to Future Price based on Spot Market. Two types of Products are as under:
1. OTC Products
These are Over The Counter products which include Forward Contracts and Options.
These are offered by FIs. These derivatives offer contracts with date, amount of terms
fixed as per requirement of the client. Price is quoted by banks/FIs after adding margin.
Settlement is made by physical delivery. Counterparty Risk is always present.
2. Exchange Traded products
These include Futures traded on organized exchanges. Size of the contract is
standardized. Price is transparent. The exchanges collect margin based on Mark to
Market price. Physical delivery is not must. There is no counter party risk.
Types of Derivatives
1. Forward Contracts
2. Futures
3. Options
4. Interest Rate Swaps
5. Currency Swaps
Forward Contracts
It is a deal to buy or sell Shares, Commodity or Foreign Exchange at a contracted rate with
desired maturity. Forward rate is the interest rate differentiation of two currencies. If Interest
rate is high in a country, its currency will be cheaper.
Futures
It is Exchange traded product. The seller agrees to deliver a specified security, currency or
commodity on specified date at a fixed price. Currency Futures are traded in EURO, GBP, JPY,
CHF, AUD& CAD.
Forward Contract Futures
It is OTC (Over the Counter) Product It is Exchange traded product
It can be for any odd amount It is always for Standard amount
It can be for any Odd period It is always for Standard period
Delivery is essential Delivery is not must
Margin is not essential It is based on Margin requirement and
Marked to market

Caiib materials

Thursday, 5 July 2018

Risk management

Risk Management


CAPITAL MANAGEMENT AND PROFIT PLANNING
1) One of the important parameters of financial strength is Capital or Net worth.
2) The correlation between business level & capital position is called Capital Adequacy.
3) The incentive for doing business hails from profitability.

CAPITAL ADEQUACY – THE BASEL – II OVERVIEW
1) The Central bank Governors of 10 countries formed a committee on Banking Supervisory
Authorities in 1975.
2) The Banking Supervisory Authority Committee usually meets at the Bank of International
Settlements (BIS) at Basel, in Switzerland.
3) The Basel Committee provided the framework for Capital Adequacy in 1988 is known as the
Basel – I accord.
4) The Basel norms for Risk weights were more of a straightjacket nature.
5) As per Basel – I all exposures to sovereign were given 0% risk weight and all bank exposures
were given 20% Risk weight.
6) Assigning Risk Weightage to assets without considering the strengths and weaknesses of
individual entities was the main shortcoming of Basel – I.
7) The Basel – I defined components of Capital and allotted the Risk weights to different
categories of assets.
8) Basel – I stipulated minimum ratio of Capital to Risk weighted Assets.
9) The first round of proposal for changes in the Basel – I accord came up for deliberations and
consultative process in June 1999.
10) The Report of Basel – II Committee is titled as International Convergence of Capital
Measurement and Capital Standards a Revised frame work.
11) The Committee intends that the revised framework would be implemented by the end of year
2006.
12) The fundamental of Basel – II was to revise 1988 accord and to strengthen the soundness and
stability of banking system.