Saturday, 10 August 2019

Genaral insurance questions


1.Which of the following are eligible for Gobar Gas   nsurance Scheme?                                                               
   a) Khadi & Village Industries Workers b) IRDP Beneficiaries Industries Workers
   c) Scheduled Castes/Tribes      d)  All the above
 
2. Which of the following statement is true?
    Statement A:  Insurance is a method of sharing of losses of a ‘few’ by the many.                                   
    Statement B:  Insurance is a method of transferring the risk of an individual to a group of an individuals.   
    a)  Only Statement A        b) Only Statement B c)   Both Statements       d)  Neither of the Statements

3.Which of the following statements is true in relation to Sheep and Goat insurance.
   Statement A:  Indemnity is provided on the basis of sum insured or market value whichever is less.
   Statement B: Salvage value is deducted from claim amount payable.
   a)  Only Statement A    b)  Only Statement B    c)  Both Statements          d)   Neither of the Statements

4. Under Inland Transit (Rail/Road) Clause ‘C’ the insurance ceases.                                                                                                                               
    a)   after 3 days of arrival  b)  after 7 days of arrival of rail wagon at of rail wagon at destination destination
    c)  after 15 days of arrival d)  on unloading each bale of rail wagon at  / package destination     
   
5. Who of the following have to satisfy the qualifications,training and examination requirements for grant of corporate agent’s licence for a firm?
     a)  All the partners of the firm  b)  Any two partners of the firm
     c)  Nominated ‘corporate insurance executive d)  Nominated ‘specified persons’ 

6.  Which of the following exclusions does not appear in Cargo Clauses (A)?         
     a) malicious damage       b)  ordinary loss in weigh          c) insolvency of owners of the vessel d)   inadequate packing   
       
7. Which of the following policies can be assigned without the consent of insurers?   
   a)  Compulsory public liability policy       b)   Marine hull policy          c)   Marine cargo policy    d)   Fire policy
 
8. Under Add-on cover for Architects’ fees under the Fire Tariff the limit of cover is upto   _____ % of the adjusted loss.
a)  2.5%                              b)   5%                 c)  7.5%                              d)   10%

9. Which of the following statements is true under Code of Conduct prescribed for Agent under IRDA Regulations?
    Statement A: The Agent must disclose his licence to the prospect on demand.
    Statement B: The Agent must disclose scales of commission for the product offered for sale, if asked by the applicant.
    a)  Only Statement A          b)   Only Statement B     c)  Both Statements        d)    Neither of the Statements

10.Which of the following statements is true?
     Statement A: The onus of proof that the loss is caused by an insured peril is on the insured.
     Statement B: The onus of proof that the loss is Caused by an excepted peril is on the Insurer.
a)   Only Statement A         b)   Only Statement B                 c)   Both the Statements      d)   Neither of the Statements

11. As per Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989, a Cover Note shall be valid for a period  of_______ days from the date of its issue.
a)  15days                         b)  30days                        c)  45days                         d)  60days

12.Which of the following statements is correct.
     Statement A: Under motor package policy earthquake risk can be covered only at extra premium.
     Statement B: Under motor package policy terrorism risk can be covered only at extra premium.
a)Only Statement A     b)  Only Statement B          c)   Both the Statements  d)   Neither of the Statements

13. Which of the following statements is true in relation to personal accident insurance.
      Statement A: The sum insured fixed is compared with the average monthly income of the insured.
      Statement B: The statement A does not apply if the policy is for Capital Sums only.
a)   Only Statement A     b)   Only Statement B           c)   Both Statements       d)    Neither of the Statements

14. The Mediclaim policy excludes any disease (other than first year exclusions) during the first____days of the commencement of the policy.
a)   15 days                     b)    30 days c)   45 days                     d)    60 days

15.Which of the following statements is true in respect of Group Mediclaim policy.
Statement A.  Cumulative bonus is not available.
Statement B.   Health Check-up expenses are payable.
a)   Only Statement A     b)   Only Statement B c)   Both Statements       d)    Neither of the Statements

16. No claim is payable if the insured contracts cancer within a period of_ days from the date of becoming a member of Cancer patients Aid Association.
a)   30 days                      b)   45days c)   60days                       d)   90days       
 
17.Which of the following statements is true.                       
     Statement A:  Any scheduled commercial bank can become a corporate agent.
     Statement B:  Any scheduled commercial bank can float a joint venture insurance company.
a)   Only Statement A                 b)   Only Statement B                  c)   Both the Statements             d)    Neither of the Statements

18. Under which of the following phases of the process of Salesmanship, objections
      of the client are usually dealt with
a)   Prospecting                         b)    Pre-approach c)   Sales Interview                d)    Close of Sale       






19.Under IRDA Regulations,which of these statements is true in respect of existing agents at the commencement of the Regulations.
                  Statement A: Qualifications, training and examination Requirements do not apply.
Statement B.   Code of Conduct does not apply.

               a)  Only Statement A               b)   Only Statement B c)  Both Statements.                  d)    Neither of the Statements

20. An application for agency licence is to be submitted to __________
a)   IRDA                     b)  Controller of Insurance               c)   Designated Person,as specified by an insurer       d)   Any one of the above
                                                     

21. Which of the following statements is true.
Statement A.  The principle of contribution does not apply to personal accident insurance.
Statement B.  The principle of contribution applies to medical expences extension under personal accident insurance.
a)   Only Statement A            b)  Only Statement B                 c)   Both the Statements        d)  Neither of the Statements 
 
22. Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:  The principle of subrogation supports the  principle of contribution.
Statement B:  The principle of subrogation supports the principle of indemnity.
a)   Only Statement A            b)   Only Statement B              c)   Both the Statements    d)    Neither of the statements

23. Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A.   Terrorism is an exclusion under standard fire and special perils policy.
Statement B.   Terrorism cover can be granted an extra premium only in conjunction with Riot, Strike and malicious Damage cover
a)   Only Statement A       b)   Only Statement B                  c)   Neither of the Statements             d)   Both the Statements
                                                         

24. Which of the following is an additional exclusion under ‘Own Damage’ section of motor cycles and commercial vehicles package policy?
a)   consequential loss        b)   depreciation                   c)   mechanical failures or breakages
d)   loss of or damage to accessories by theft unless the vehicle is stolen at the same time

25. In personal accident insurance long-term discount is Available under___________
a)   individual policies       b)   individual policies on family package basis
b)group policies on Government employees      d)   Group Janata Person Accident policies
                   
26. Transfer of rights and liabilities of an insured to another person who       becomes the insured is known as__________
a)   endorsement                b)   subrogation c)   consideration               d)   assignment

27. Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A.  Good faith applies in commercial contracts and insurance contracts.
Statement B.   Utmost good faith applies in insurance contracts.
a)   Statement A only        b)   Statement B only c)   Both the statements    d)   Neither of the statements
 
28. Which of the following projects does not fall under Contractors All Risks insurance?

        a) Building        b) Installation of machinery c) Bridges         d) Tunnels

39. Out of the following exclusions which one does not Appear in personal accident policies?

a)Service in armed Forces    b) Aviation risk as a passenger in a licensed Aircraft flying out of India
           c)  In flounce of intoxicating liquor            d)  Attempted suicide
           
40.Which of the following covers is suitable for regular Export  / import shipments?
a) Annual policy           b) Special declaration policy c) Open cover               d) Duty insurance

41.If an insurance policy is not stamped as per the Indian Stamp Act the contracrt becomes _________

a) void                        b) voidable c) illegal                           d) unenforceable in a court of law.

42.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement   A.  Marine cargo policies are valued Policies.
Statement   B.  Marine hull policies are valued Policies.
  a) Only statement A               b) Only statement B    c) Neither of the statement     d) Both the statement
 
43.Which of the following statements is true.
        Statement  A.  Redressal of Public Grievances Rules, 1998 apply to life and general Insurance.
      Statement B.  These Rules apply in respect of Personal lines insurances only.

         a) Only Statements A           b) Only Statement B c) Both Statements           d) Neither of the Statements

46.  Which of the following is an evidence of the insurance Contract?

          a) Payment of premium        b) Acceptance of proposal           c) Policy of insurance        d) insurers Prospecyus

47.   Under Add-on cover for Debris Removal expenses Under the Fire Tariff the sum insured cannot exceed _______ % of the total sum insured.

         a) 5%                                       b) 7.5%          c) 10%                                    d) 15%



48.Which of the following risks covered under institute Cargo Clauses (B) Is not covered under Institute Cargo Clausea (C).

a) Stranding of vessel          b) Sea- water damage c) Collision of vessel             d) Explosion

49. Which of the following costs are payable under  mediclaim policy?

a) Spectacles b) Lenses c) Artificial limbs        d) Hearing aids

50. Under the Motor Vehicles Act, the fixed compensation payable for death in ‘hit and run’ motor accident is Rs._______________

a) Rs. 12,500 b) Rs. 25,000 c) Rs. 50,000 d) Rs. 1, 00,000

51. As per Motor Tariff, limits of cover for third party property damage under commercial vehicles policy are –
a) Rs. 1 lac b) Rs. 5 lacs                        c) Rs. 7.50 lacs d) Rs. 10.00 lacs

52. Architects Fees are covered upto_________% of the claim amount under standard fire and special perils policy.
a) 4% b) 3% c) 2% d) 1%

53. Under IRDA Regulations, every insurer has to underwrite business in the rural sector to the extent of ____% of the total gross premium in the third and further financial years.
  a) 2% b) 3% c) 4% d) 5%

54. Under Universal Health Insurance Scheme the maximum sum insured per person or family shall not exceed Rs.______________.
a) Rs. 10,000/-            b) Rs. 15,000/- c) Rs. 20,000/- d) Rs. 30,000/-

55. Which of the following materials is considered to be an ‘ advertisement’ under relevant IRDA Regulations?

a) Communications with policyholders b) representations by intermediaries
c) Materials used internally by an insurance company d) Materials used by an insurance company for education of its personnel

56. Under NAIS Crop insurance scheme, what percentage of subsidy in premium is allowed for Small & Marginal farmers by the Government?

        a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) nil

57. Which of the following does not attract additional         premium under motor policies?
 a) Electrical/ Electronic items not included in the manufacturer’s selling price b) CNG/LPG fuel kit
 c) Fibre glass fuel tanks d) Anti- theft devices

58. Which of the following exclusions does not appear in Bhavishya Arogya policy.
a) Pre-hospitalisation expense                 b) Post hospitalization expenses                   c) Hearing aids d) 30 day waiting period

59. Under corporate Frequent Travellers policy the duration of any one trip cannot exceed _______ days
           a) 30 days                      b) 45 days       c) 60 days d) 90 days

60. The amount of relief payable under public liability insurance Act, 1991 for permanent total disability Rs._____________________
        a) Rs. 12,500/- b) Rs. 25,000/-         c) Rs. 50,000/-                d) Rs. 1, 00,000/-

61. Which of the following requirements does not apply for granting cash-in safe insurance
            a) The safe is burglary proof            b) The safe is brand new      c) The safe is of approved make      d) The safe is of approved design

62. Which of the following losses are not payable under Burglary (Business Premises) policy.
      a) Theft of cash from the safe after breaking it open         b) Damage to the safe
      c) Damage to furniture nearby                     d) Damage to window panes by breakage through forcible entry by burglars.

63. Which of the following Bonds does not fall under Court Bonds.
      a) Administration Bonds     b) Excise Bonds      c) Liquidator’s Bonds    d) Receivership Bonds

64. Which of the following cause of breakage is covered under Plate Glass policy.
          a) fire b) explosion c) accident                d) riot

65. Under IRDA Regulations every insurer has to underwrite business in the rural sector to the extent of at least __________ % of the total gross
     premium in the first financial year.
          a)  1% b) 2% c) 3% d) 5 %

66. Which of the following is not an exclusion under  cattle policy.
     a) Theft of the animal                        b) Transport by air or sea               c)  sale of the animal d) surgical operations

67. Under Dog insurance policy ___________ % of the claim amount is paid, the insured to bear the balance.
             a) 60% b) 70%             c) 80% d) 90% 

68. Which of the following crops does not fall under the purview of the Horticulture crop insurance scheme.
        a) Chikoo b) Bananas         c) Mangoes  d) Grapes

69. As per IRDA Regulations which of the following statement is true. Statement A.The Social Sector includes unorganized sector in urban areas only.
Statement B. The Social Sector includes informal sector in both urban and rural areas.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both Statements                d) Neither of the Statement


70. When simple familiar words and short sentences are used a written communication becomes _________________
        a) Complete                b)  clear         c) correct d) concrete

71. Which of the following is not a good persuasive skill of an agent
    a) Asking open ended question s                                                         b) Welcoming the prospect’s objections
     c) Pointing out quickly the prospect’s obvious errors in thinking         d) Allowing the prospect to talk as much as  he wants

72.As per Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989, a cover Note shall be valid for a period of ______ days from the date of its issue.
a) 15 days b) 30 days c) 45 days d) 60 days

73.Which of the following statements is correct?
Statement A:Under motor package policy earthquake risk can be covered only at extra premium.
Statement B:Under motor package policy terrorism risk can be covered only at extra premium
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

74.Which of the following statements is true in relation to personal accident insurance.
Statement A:The sum insured fixed is compared with the average monthly income of the insured.
Statement B:The statement A does not apply if the policy is for Capital Sums only.
a) Only Statement A  b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements  d) Neither of the Statements

75.The Mediclaim policy excludes any disease (other than first year exclusions) during the first _______days of the commencement of the policy.
a) 15 days b) 30 days c) 45 days d) 60 days

76.Which of the following statements is true in respect of Group Mediclaim policy.
Statement A: Cumulative bonus is not available
Statement B: Health Check-up expenses are payble.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements             d) Neither of the Statements

77.No claim is payable if the insured contracts cancer within a period of _____ days from the date of becoming a member of Cancer Patients Aid Association.
a) 30 days b) 45 days c) 60 days d) 90 days

78.Which of the following statements is true.
Statement A: Any scheduled commercial bank can become a corporate agent.
Statement B:Any scheduled commercial bank can float a joint venture insurance company.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

79.Under which of the following phases of the process of Salesmanship, objections of the clients are usually dealt with
a) Prospecting     b) Pre-approach c) Sales Interview d) Close of Sale

80.Under IRDA Regulation, which of these statements is true in respect of existing agents at the commencement of the Regulations
Statement A: Qualifications, training and examination requirements do not apply.
Statement B: Code of Conduct does not apply
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statement d) Neither of the Statements

81.An application for agency licence is to be submitted to ________.
a) IRDA b) Controller of insurance c) Designated Person , as specified by an insurer            d) any one of the above.

82.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: The principle of contribution does not apply to personal accident insurance.
Statement B:The principle of contribution applies to medical expenses extension under personal accident insurance
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

83.Which of the following documents have to be stamped as per the Indian Stamp Act?
Document A: Endorsement on a fire policy to increase the sum insured.
Document B: Marine Open Cover for export shipments
      a) Document A Only b) Document B Only c) Both the documents d) Neither of the documents

84.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: The principle of subrogation supports the principle of contribution.
Statement B: The principle of  subrogation supports the principle of indemnity.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

85. Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: Terrorism is an exclusion under standard fire and special perils policy
Statement B: Terrorism cover can be granted at extra premium only in conjunction with Riot, Strike and Malicious Damage cover.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

86. Which of the following is an additional exclusion under “Own Damage’ section of motor cycles and commercial vehicles package policy?
a) consequential loss b) depreciation c) Mechanical failures or breakages
d)Loss of or damage to accessories by theft unless the vehicle is stolen at the same time.

87. In personal accident insurance long-term discount is available under _____________
a) individual policies b) individual policies on family package basis c) group polices on Government employees
d) Group Janta Personal Accident policies.

88.Transfer of rights and liabilities of an insured to another person who become the insured is known as _________
a) endorsement b) subrogation             c) consideration d) assignment


89.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: Good faith applies in commercial contracts and insurance contracts
Statement B: Utmost good faith applies in insurance contracts
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

90.Which of the following projects does not fall under Contractors All Risk Insurance?
a) Building b) Installation of machinery c) Bridges d) Tunnels

91.Out of the following exclusions which one does not appear in personal accident policies?
a) Service in armed forces b) Aviation risk as a passenger in a licensed aircraft flying out of India
c) Influence of intoxicating liquor d) Attempted suicide

92.Which of the following covers is suitable for regular export/import shipments?
a) Annual policy b) Special declaration policy c) Open over d) Duty insurance

93. If an insurance policy is not stamped as per the Indian Stamp Act, the contract becomes
a) void b) void able c) illegal d) unenforceable in a court of law

94.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: Marine cargo policies are valued policies.
Statement B: Marine hull policies are valued policies
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

95.Which of the following is taken into account to fix rates of premium for the policy under Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991.
a) Limit of Indemnity- Any One Accident and Any One Year
b) Limit of Indemnity Any One Accident Any One Year and Turnover.
c) Limit of Indemnity. Any One Accident and turnover
d) Limit if Indemnity. Any One Year and Turnover.

96. Cumulative bonus under personal accident policy means the capital sum insured is increased by ____ % at each renewal of he policy.
a) 5% b) 10% c) 15% d) 20%

97.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Redressal of Public Grievances rules, 1998 apply to life and general insurance.
Statement B:These Rules apply in respect of personal lines insurances only.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

98. Which of the following is an evidence of the insurance contract?
a) Payment of premium b) Acceptance of proposal c) Policy of insurance d) Insurers’ Prospectus.

99.Under Add-on cover for Debris Removal expenses under the Fire Tariff the sum insured cannot exceed _____ % of the total sum insured.
a) 3% b) 7.5% c) 10% d) 15%

100. As per policy condition, insurance under standard fire and special perils ceases when insured premises are unoccupied for more than ___ days.
a) 15 b) 30 c) 60 d) 90

101.Which of the following risks covered under Institute cargo Clauses (B) is not covered under Institute cargo Clauses (C).
a) Stranding of vessel b) Sea-water damage c) Collision of vessel d) Explosion

102.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: Fire policy contains an arbitration condition
Statement B: Marine cargo policy does not contain an arbitration condition
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

103.All Mediclaim documents must be filled with the Third Party Administrator within ______ days from the date of discharge from the hospital.
a) 3 days b) 7 days c) 10 days d) 15 days

104. Under Motor Vehicles Act, the amount of compensation for death, on the basis of ‘no-fault’ liability is Rs._______
a) Rs.25,000 b) Rs.50,000 c) Rs.1,00,000 d) Rs.2,00,000

105. Which of the following costs are payable under Mediclaim policy?
a) Spectacles b) Lenses c) Artificial limbs d) Hearing aids

106.Under the Motor Vehicles Act, the fixed compensation payable for death in ‘hit and run’ motor accident is Rs._____
a) Rs.12,500 b) Rs.25,000 c) Rs.50,000 d) 1,00,000

107.As per Motor Tariff, limits of cover for third party property damage under commercial vehicles policy are -
a) Rs.1 lac b) Rs.5 lacs c) Rs.7.50 lacs d) Rs.10.00 lacs

108.Architects’ Fees are covered unto ______% of the claim amount under standard fire and special perils policy.
a) 4% b) 3% c) 2% d) 1%

109.Under IRDA Regulations, every insurer has to underwrite business in the rural sector to the extent of _____ % of the total gross premium in the third and further financial years.
a) 2% b) 3% c) 4% d) 5%

110.Under Universal Health Insurance Scheme the maximum sum insured per person or family shall not exceed Rs.________
a) Rs.10,000/- b) Rs.15,000/- c) Rs.20,000/- d) Rs.30,000/-

111.Which of the following materials is considered to be an ‘advertisement’ under relevant IRDA Regulations?
a) communications with policyholders                  b) representations by intermediaries
c) materials used internally by an insurance company         d) material used by an insurance company for education of its personnel.

112.Under NAIS Crop insurance scheme what percentage of subsidy in premium is allowed for Small & Marginal farmers by the Government.
a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) nil

113.Which of the following does not fall under Traiffs?
a) Fire insurance b) Consequential loss (fire) insurance c) Boiler insurance d) Cattle insurance

114. Which of the following does not attract additional premium under motor policies?
a) Electrical/Electronic items not included in the manufacturer’s selling price b) CNG/LPG fuel kit
c) Fibre glass fuel tanks d) Ant theft devices

115. Listening to the customer is a part of _____ of an agent.
a) high morale b) analytical skills c) communication skills d) good behaviour

116. Which of the following exclusions does not appear in Sprinkler Leakage cover under standard Fire and special perils policy
a) Repairs to the building b) Repairs to sprinkler installation
c) Defects in construction known to the insured d) Defects in construction not known to the insured

117.Which of the following exclusions does not appear in a Bhavishya Arogya policy.
a) Pre-hospitalization expenses              b) Post-hospitalization expenses          c) Hearing aids    d) 30 day waiting period

118. Under Corporate Frequent Travellers policy the duration of any one trip cannot exceed _____ days
a) 30 days b) 45 days c) 60 days d) 90 days


119. The amount of relief payable under Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991, for permanent total disability is Rs._______.
a) Rs.12,500/- b) Rs.25,000/- c) Rs.50,000/- d) Rs.1,00,00/-

120.Under Electronic Equipment insurance, compulsory excess is applied in respect of    ___________
a) Section 1 (Damage to equipment)   b) Section 2 (Damage to external data media)
c) Section 3 (increased Cost of Working) d) All of the above sections

121.Which of the following requirements does not apply for granting cash-in safe insurance.
a) The safe is burglary proof b) The safe is brand new
c) The safe is of approved make d) The safe is of approved design

122.Which one of the following losses are not payable under Burglary (Business Premises) policy.
a) Theft of cash from the safe after breaking it open
b) Damage to the safe
c) Damage to furniture nearby
d) Damage to window panes by breakage through forcible entry by burglars

123.Which of the following Bonds does not fall under Court Bonds.
a) Administration Bonds b) Excise Bonds c) Liquidator’s Bonds d) Receivership Bonds

124.Which of the following cause of breakage is covered under Plate Class policy
a) fire b) explosion c) accident d) riot

125. Under Bankers Blanket policy ‘excess’ clause applies for the loss arising from ___________
a) fire b) riot c) burglary d) dishonesty of employee

126.Under IRDA Regulations every insurer has to underwrite business in the rural sector to the extent of at least % of the total gross premium in the first financial year.
a) 1% b) 2% c) 3% d) 5%

127.Which of the following in not an exclusion under Cattle policy.
a) Theft of the animal b) Transport by air or sea
c) Clandestine sale of the animal d) Surgical operations

128.Breach of which of the following conditions in the policy will prevent the insured from recovering only a particular loss, the policy remaining unaffected.
a) Condition precedent to the contract b) Condition subsequent to the contract
c) Condition precedent to liability d) Condition subsequent to liability

129.Which of the following documents is common to claims processing under marine import policies and inland transit (Rail/Road) policies.
a) Bill of Lading b) Invoice c) Copy of Protest d) Lost Overboard Certificate

130. Under ADD-on cover for Architects’ fees under the Fire Tariff the limit of  cover is upto _____% of the adjusted loss.
a) 2.5% b) 5% c) 7.5% d) 10%

131.Which of the following risks are automatically covered without extra premium under Institute cargo Clauses (A)
a) Country damage b) Inherent Vice c) War and Kindred perils       d) Strikes, riot and civil commotions




132.Which of the following statements is true under code of Conduct prescribed for Agents under IRDA Regulations?
Statement A:The Agent must disclose his licence to the prospect on demand
Statement B:The Agent must disclose scales of commission for the product offered for sale, if asked by the applicant.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

133.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:The onus of proof that the loss is caused by an insured peril is on the insured
Statement B:The onus of proof that the loss is caused by an excepted perils is on the insurer.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

134. Which of the following exclusions does not appear in Cargo Clauses (A)?
a) malicious damage b) ordinary loss in weight c) insolvency of owners of the vessel d) inadequate packing

135.Which of the following policies can be assigned without the consent of insurers?
a) Compulsory public liability policy b) Marine hull policy c) Marine cargo policy d) Fire policy

136.Which of the following is the correct meaning of Sum insured under the policy?
a) Replacement value b) Agreed value c) Amount paid for total loss d) The maximum limit of liability under the policy

137.To which of the following, the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 applies?
a) Employees of State Government b) Employees of Central Government
c) Employees of Public Sector Manufacturing Companies d) Industrial Employees as defined in the Act.

138.Cover under Corporate Frequent Travellers’ policy is not available for persons over the age of _______
a) 50 years b) 60 years  c) 65 year d) 70 years

139.Under the Standard Fire & Special Perils policy there is an ‘excess’ limit for each claim arising from perils other than ‘Act of God’ perils. Which of the following limits is correct.
a) Rs.2,500/-  b) Rs.5,000/- c) Rs.10,000/- d) Rs.15,000/-

140.Which of the following risks does not require additional premium under Money (Transit) policy?
a) Riot b) Strike c) Robbery    d) Terrorism

141.Which of the following are eligible for Gobar Gas Insurance Scheme?
a) Khadi & Village Industries Workers b) IRDP Beneficiaries c) Scheduled Castes/Tribes d) All of the above

142.No Claim Bonus under Motor policy can be allowed only if the policy is renewed within ______days of its expiry.
a) 15 days   b) 30 days c) 60 days d) 90 days

143.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: Insurance is a method of sharing of losses of a ‘few’ by the many.
Statement B:Insurance is a method of transferring the risk of an individual to a group of individuals.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

144.Which of the following statements is true in relation to Sheep and Goat insurance.
Statement A: Indemnity is provided on the basis of sum insured or market value whichever is less.
Statement B:Salvage value is deducted from claim amount payable
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements



145.Under Inland Transit (Rail/Road Clause ‘C’ the insurance ceases.
a) after 3 days of arrival of rail wagon at destination
b) after 7 days of arrival of rail wagon at destination
c) after 15 days of arrival of rail wagon at destination
d) on unloading each bale/package

146.Who of the following have to satisfy the qualifications, training and examination requirements for grant of corporate agent’s licence for a firm?
a) All the partners of the firm b) Any two partners of the firm
c) Nominated ‘corporate insurance executive’ d) Nominated ‘specified persons’

147. Which of the following crops does not fall under the purview of the Horticulture Crop insurance scheme.
a) Chikoo b) Bananas c) Mangoes d) Grapes

148.Which of the following is not a good persuasive skill of an agent.
a) Asking open ended questions
b) Welcoming the prospect’s objections
c) Pointing out quickly the prospect’s obvious errors in thinking
d) Allowing the prospect to talk as much as he wants

149.As per IRDA Regulations which of the following statement is true/
Statement A:The Social Sector includes unorganized sector in urban areas only
Statement B: The Social Sector includes informal sector in both urban and rural areas.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

150.Under Dog insurance policy ______ % of the claim amount is paid, the insured to bear the balance.
a) 60% b) 70% c) 80% d) 90%

151.When simple familiar words and short sentences are used a written communication becomes ________
a) complete b) clear c) correct d) concrete

152.Which of the following statements is true?
 Statement A: Insurer pays Rs.9,000 for total loss of a case of textiles during transit insured for Rs.10,000 but having a C.I.F. value of Rs.9,000 only
 Statement B: Insurer pays Rs.2,000 in respect of a cargo insurance claim of Rs.2,000 under a marine cargo policy subject to a franchise of Rs.1,000.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

153. Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: Adverse claims experience in Motor insurance will attract a loading of 100 percent over the Tariff rates.
Statement B: With a total loss claim on a motor vehicle, the policy is returned to the insurers.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

154. Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Insurance reduces uncertainty of loss happening for the individual.
Statement B:There is a legal obligation on the part of insurers to advise the insured that his policy is due to expire on a particular date.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

155.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: Primary function of the arbitrator is to decide on the question of liability under the insurance policy and then to decide on the quantum of claim to be paid.
Statement B:There is a. condition in Fire and most Miscellaneous Insurance policies which provides that the insurer shall not be liable for any claim after expiration of 12 months from the happening of loss or damage, unless the .claim is subject of pending legal action or arbitration.
a) Only Statement A                b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

156.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:A Letter of Subrogation must be duly stamped.
Statement B:“Protest" is filed by the master of a vessel before a Notary Public
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

157.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:In Marine Cargo insurance, instead of a proposal form, Insurers use a Declaration Form to know all material facts.
Statement B:If there is under insurance in a Fire policy, a partial loss is paid subject to condition of average.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B
c)Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements
ci)

158.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: Majority of trade risks are uninsurable.
Statement b: A risk of trade can be insured.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

159.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:In India no company is allowed to transact both insurance and banking business.
Statement B:Banks can be associated with insurance business by becoming a corporate agent for a remuneration.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

160.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:In Motor Insurance short period covers/Renewals are not permissible for Liability Only policies.
Statement B:In Mediclaim Insurance, Domiciliary Hospitalization benefits include expenses for treatment of psychiatric disorders.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

161.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:As per Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989, a Cover Note shall be valid for a period of 60 (sixty) days from the date of its issue.
Statement B:In case of motor claims, "structured formula" basis applies to both fatal and non-fatal claims.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

162.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Maximum No Claim Bonus allowed for all types of vehicles is 50 percent.
Statement B:On receipt of the Survey Report, an insurer shall within a period of 30 days offer a settlement of the claim to the insured.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

163.Which of the following statement is true?
Statement A:No cover is available under Commercial Vehicle Package Policy for damage to the towed vehicle or property conveyed thereby.
Statement B:Under General Regulations (Tariff), TPPD cover for Private Cars limited to Rs. 7.50 lakhs.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements


164.Which of the following statements is true in connection with Motor Insurance?
Statement A:Consent of MACT is not required in case of compromise settlement of T.P. claims.
Statement B:Pending cases with MACT, when liability under policy is not in doubt are placed before the Lok Adalat
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements




165.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: In Marine Insurance what is provided is commercial indemnity and not pure indemnity.
Statement B:Insurances of person are not contracts of strict indemnity.
a) Only Statement A                b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

166.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Principle of Contribution applies to Personal Accident policies as these are not contracts of indemnity.
Statement B:Contribution applies where the insurable interest covered under all the policies is the same.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

167.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Warranty is a condition precedent to the contract and must be complied with strictly whether it is material to the risk or not.
Statement B:If breach of warranty does not contribute to or aggravate the loss, losses are treated as non-standard claims.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

168.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Damage by water used to extinguish fire is not covered under Fire policy.
Statement B:Wherever the Employees' State Insurance Act, 1948 applies, the Workmen's Compensation Act ceases to operate.
a) Only Statement A b) Only Statement B c) Both the statements d) Neither of the Statements

169.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Sum Insured under Fire policy stands reduced to the extent of the amount of claim paid and is reinstated on payment of pro-rata premium.
Statement B:Payment of a claim under Fidelity Guarantee policy automatically terminates the policy.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

170.Which of the following statements is true? Ombudsman is appointed by the Central Government under the provisions of:
a. Consumer Protection ACT, 1986 b.Redressal of Public Grievances Rules, 1998
      c. Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 d.None of the above.

171.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Fire policy includes loss, damage and expense caused by acts of terrorism.
Statement B:Terrorism cover can be granted under the Fire policy by paying additional premium and at the discretion of the underwriter.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only
c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

172.Under a Fire policy, value of the property insured is Rs.10,00,000, sum insured is Rs. 8,00,000 and loss by fire is Rs. 2,00,000. What is the amount of claim payable?
a) Rs.1,50,000 b) Rs.1,60,000 c) Rs.1,80,000 d) Rs.2,00,000

173.Goods invoiced at Rs.1,00,000 CIF are insured for Rs.1,10 000 under Institute Cargo Clauses (A). They have arrived damaged by contact with sea water, and the surveyor has agreed an allowance of 20% for damage sustained. What is the amount of claim payable under. the insurance. Survey fees amount to Rs.500.
a) Rs.20,500 b) RS.22,500 c) Rs.25,000 d) Rs.20,000

174.State whether the following statements are true?
Statement A:Larceny may be covered under a Burglary (Business Premises) Policy on payment of additional premium.
Statement B:An "All Risks" Insurance policy covers all losses.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neitheof the statements

175.The amount of compensation payable under Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 on "no-faults" basis for death claim is Rs. --- and for permanent disablement claims it is Rs. —.
a) Rs. 25,000 and Rs. 12,500 respectively b) Rs. 60,000 and Rs. 20,000 respectively
c) Rs. 50,000 and Rs. 25,000 respectively d) Unlimited in both cases.

176.Claims under Own Damage section of Motor policies covering private cars exceeding 1500 C.C. are subject to a compulsory deductible of Rs.-----
a) Rs. 1,50C b) Rs.500 c) Rs. 1,000 d) No compulsory deductible.

177. Which of the following statements; is true?
Statement A:Section 165 of Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 empowers State Governments to set up Motor Accident Claims Tribunals for adjudicating upon Third Party claims.
Statement B:Where claims are negotiated with the third party to accept a compromise settlement, consent of M.A.C.T. is not required.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

178.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: Small losses which occur frequently may be absorbed by the firm as actual operating expenses of the business.
Statement B:Small losses which occur frequently need to be insured.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

179.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Sharing of Agent's commission is a punishable offence under the Insurance Act.
Statement B : Unprofessional behaviours are subject to penalties under the regulations,
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

180.I.R.D.A. regulations for Insurance Brokers require direct broker to have minimum amount of capital of Rs.-------
a) Rupees one crore    b) Rs.50 lakhs  c) Rs. 25Lakhs d) Rs.30 lakhs



181. Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Marine cargo claims are paid to the claimant who produces the marine policy duly endorsed in his favour.
Statement B:Claims for Total Loss on vehicles subject to hire-purchase agreements are paid to financiers.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

182.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Workmen's Compensation policy can be extended at extra premium to include certain diseases mentioned in the Workmen's Compensation Act.
Statement B:Workmen's Compensation policy does not specify any Sum Insured.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

183.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Burglary (Business Premises) Insurance covers theft by persons lawfully on the premises.
Statement B:Fidelity Guarantee Policies stimulate time limit for discovery of loss.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

184.Which of the following statements is true in relation to Plate Glass Insurance policy?
Statement A:Breakage of glass due to fire or explosion is not covered.
Statement B:There has to be a fracture of glass through its entire thickness.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

185.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Householders' Insurance covers also loss/damage to personal baggage due to accident/misfortune whilst travelling anywhere in India.
Statement B:Neon Sign insurance covers damage by overrunning, over-heating or strain
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

186.   I.R.D.A., 1999 has stipulated minimum requirement of paid-up share capital at Rs.---- for life assurance business.
a) Unlimited b) Rs.100 crores c) Rs. 300 crores d) Rs. 500 crores.

187.I.R.D.A., 1999 has laid down maximum interest of a foreign company or non-resident in insurance enterprise at not more than ------- percent of total share capital.
a) 25 percent b) 26 percent c) 49 percent d) no limit

188.I.R.D.A., 1999 has stipulated maximum holding of shares by individual promoter to be not more than ------- percent of the share capital,
a) 10 percent b) 8 percent c) 25 percent                 d) 26 percent

189.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Statutory limit of liability for third party property damage is Rs.6,000.
Statement B:Limit for Third Party Property Damage cover is Rs.7,50,000 in respect of private cars policies.
    a) Statement A only b) Statement B only Both statements                d) Neither of the statements

190.State which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: Insurable Interest need not exist at the time of effecting Marine Cargo insurance.
Statement B:Settlement of marine cargo claims follows the principles of strict indemnity.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

191.State which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Cover Note is an unstamped insurance document providing temporary cover.
Statement B:The sum insured under a Fire Policy stands reduced to the extent of the amount of claim paid.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

192.State which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:The last cause responsible for a loss is usually the proximate cause
Statement B:If an insured peril is followed by the happening of an excepted peril, as a new and independent cause, there is a claim, excluding loss/damage caused by the excepted peril,
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

193.Slate which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Insurer has paid a claim for short landing of one case imported textiles. The cargo owner can recover his loss from the ocear carrier also.
Statement B:A building is insured against fire and earthquake risks with insurer A and for fire peril only with insurer B. Fire damages the building. Principle of contribution will apply.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

194.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:An innocent misrepresentation will make an insurance contract void able.
Statement B:A stipulation that a Motor Cycle will not be used without a side-car attached is called a "warranty".
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only Both statements d) Neither of the statements

195.Which of the following statements are true in relation to Personal Accident insurance?
Statement A:If insurers disclaim liability, insured has to file a suit in a court of law within 6 months from the date of such disclaimer.
Statement B: Sum Insured is compared with the average monthly income of the insured, but this restriction is not strictly applied if the policy is for Capital Sum only.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

196.Concerning the role of T.A. C., state which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Every decision of T.A.C. is valid only after it has been ratified by the ,IRDA.
Statement B:Unless exempted specifically for any class of business, the rates and terms determined by T.A.C. are binding on all insurers.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

197.Which of the following risks covered under Institute Cargo Clauses (B) are not covered under Institute Cargo Clauses (C)
Statement A:Discharge of cargo at port of distress.
Statement B:Earthquake, volcanic eruption, lightning.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

198.Which of the following statements is true in connection with Mediclaim Policy?
Statement A:Mediclaim Policy covers treatment arising from pregnancy and child-birth.
Statement B:Mediclaim Policy does not cover dental treatment or surgery unless requiring hospitalization
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

199.Under Institute Cargo Clauses (Air), insurance terminates on expiry of ------days after unloading of cargo from aircraft at final place of discharge.
a) 60 days         b) 30 days.  c) 7 days d) 14 days.

200.Under Sec. 64-UM of the Insurance Act, 1938 no claim equal to or exceeding Rs. ------- on any insurance may be paid by the insurer unless Survey Report is obtained from a licensed Surveyor.
a) Rs. 10,000 b) Rs. 20,000 c) Rs. 25,000 d) Rs. 30,000

201.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Doctrine of Contribution operates when two policies relate to the same subject-matter but different interests.
Statement B:Doctrine of Contribution operates when the policies have been in force at the time of the loss.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

202.In Motor Insurance, the insured vehicle shall be .treated as a constructive total loss if the total cost of retrieval and/or repair exceeds --------  percent of the IDV of the vehicle.
a) 70 % b) 75 % c) 80% d) 85%

203.Which of the following statements are true in relation to Motor Insurance?
Statement A:If no claim is made or pending during the preceding first year of insurance,the No Claim Bonus allowed will be 25% of Own Damage premium.
Statement B:The entitlement of No Claim Bonus shall follow the fortunes of the original insured and not the vehicle or the policy.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

204.Which of the following statements are true in relation to Motor Insurance'
Statement A:As per Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, compensation allowed on the principle of "no fault" is Rs. 50,000 for death of third party and Rs.25,000 for permanent disablement.
Statement B:Solatium allowed in respect of "hit and run" motor accidents is Rs.25000 for death and Rs.12500 in respect of grievous hurt to third party.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

205.Which of the following statements are true in relation to Personal Accident Insurance?
Statement A: No compensation is payable in respect of death, injury or disablement whilst under the influence of intoxicating liquor or drugs.
Statement B:War risk cover can be granted to Indian personnel or experts working in foreign countries on civilian duties at additional premium.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

206.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Cargo policy is assigned by blank endorsement, that is, mere signature of policy holder without specifying the assignee. Notice to insurer is not necessary.
Statement B:Hull policies include a clause requiring that assignment shall be by specific endorsement.
a) Statement A only  b) Statement B only c) Both statements

207.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Terrorism cover in Fire Insurance is not given in isolation without Riot, Strikes and Malicious Damage cover.
Statement B:Every claim under Terrorism cover in Fire Insurance will be subject to a deductible.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

208.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:While the subject-matter of insurance is property, life or liability, the subject-matter of insurance contract is the insurable interest therein.
Statement B:Insurance eliminates risk.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

09.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Utmost Good Faith and Insurable Interest are conditions expressed in every policy of insurance.
Statement B:The cause which is truly proximate is that which is proximate in time. It is the latest cause that must be regarded.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

210.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A:Fire insurance is concerned with capital loss whereas Loss of Profits insurance is concerned with revenue loss.
Statement A:Indemnity Period in Loss of Profits Insurance does not extend beyond the expiry date of the insurance.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

211.Section VIII of Fire Policy allows specified "ADD-ON" covers at additional premium. Which of the following perils can be an "ADD-ON" cover?
a) Forest Fire b) Aircraft damage c) Lightning d) Explosion





212.Which of the following statements is correct?
Statement A: No-fault liability claims arising out of handling hazardous substances are paid out of the Solatium Fund.
Statement B: Principle of "no-fault" means the claimant need not prove negligence on the part of the motorist.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

213.Which of the following risks are automatically covered without extra premium under ICC (B) ?
a) War risks b) Earthquake, volcanic eruption and Lightning         c) Strikes risks d) Damage by rough handling

214.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: One of the functions of IRDA is to regulate maintenance of Solvency Margin of insurance Companies.
Statement B: Every insurance company will have to appoint an actuary approved by IRDA.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

215.Which of the following facts need not be disclosed by a proposer in the absence of inquiry :
a) Matters of law b) refusal to renew policy by insurer c) past claims record  d) over-insurance.

216.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: "Salvage Loss" indicates loss on sale of salvage after a cargo claim is paid.
Statement B: "Salvage Loss" refers to the amount payable representing the difference between insured value of goods and net proceeds of their sale.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

217.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: IRDA performs all functions of the Controller of Insurance under the Insurance Act, 1938.
Statement B : IRDA prescribes the rates of premium to be charged for all classes of general insurance business.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

218.Which of the following statements ;s true?
Statement A: Particular Average is the average of various losses sustained by cargo.
Statement B: Particular Average means partial loss of the subject-matter insured in marine insurance.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

219.The principle which ensures, where there is more than one insurance, the insured cannot recover more than his loss., is called ---------
a) Subrogation b) Contribution c) Insurable Interest d) Utmost good faith

220.When we say that an insurance contract is VOIDABLE, it means
a) Insurer does not pay  the claim        b) Insurer has to pay the claim     
c) Insured is required to take legal recourse d) Insurer has the option to pay or not to pay the claim

221.Which of the following statements is true? Under an F.O.B. contract of sale
Statement A: Seller is responsible till goods are placed on board the carrying vessel.
Statement B: Buyer's responsibility attaches once the goods are placed on board the vessel.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

222.Special Declaration Policy is a floating policy issued to clients whose annual estimated dispatches exceed Rs.-------
a) Rs.50 lakhs b) Rs.1 crore c) Rs. 2crores d) Rs.10crores

223.Which of the following statements is true? Under a C.I.F. contract of sale
Statement A: Buyer is responsible for arranging the insurance
Statement B : Seller is responsible for arranging the insurance
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

24.In case of Fire and Accident Insurance Insurable interest must exist
a) at the time of loss only b) at inception of insurance only         
c) both at inception of insurance and at the time of loss d) no insurable interest is required

225.Which of the following statements is correct?
Statement A: An Agency can be terminated if the Agent's licence is cancelled or not renewed
Statement B: A person canvassing insurance business or receiving commission therefore without holding a valid licence is liable to punishment.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

26.Which of the following statements is true in marine cargo insurance?
Statement A:Loss caused by delay is excluded even if such delay is caused by an insured peril.
Statement B:Loss caused by delay is payable if such delay is caused by an insured peril.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

227.Which of the following statements is true in case of marine cargo insurance?
Statement A: An Open Cover is not stamped
Statement B: An Open Policy is a stamped document
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

228.What is the amount of claim payable if the sum insured is Rs.3,00,000 excess clause 3 percent and the loss is Rs.50,000?
a) Rs. 40,000 b) Rs. 30,000 c) Hs. 41,000 d) Rs. 52,000

229.What is the amount of claim payable if the sum insured is Rs. 50,000 franchise clause is 5% and the loss is Rs. 3,000 ?
a) Rs. 3,000 b) Rs. 1,500 c) Nothing is payable d) Rs. 500

230.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: Insurance on Duty shall not be valid if affected after arrival of carrying vessel at destination port.
Statement B:Increased value insurance, on the other hand, may be affected after arrival of the vessel at destination port.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

231.Which of the following statements is true?
Statement A: A declaration signed by the proposer on the proposal form converts the representations made by him into warranties.
Statement B:The pro-rata condition of average does not apply to Motor Insurance cover.
a) Statement A only b) Statement B only c) Both statements d) Neither of the statements

232. Which of the following risk is covered under Horticulture Plantation Insurance policy?
a) Drought condition      b) Forest free c) Delay in the onset of  d) Cold waves and heat waves monsoon

 233. If the insurer disclaims liability for any claim under fire policy the insured has to file a suit in a court of law within _________ calendar months form the date of disclaimer.
a) 12    b) 6 c) 9    d) 24

234. Under the nationalized set-up which of the following function is ‘ not ’ performed by the Branch offices?
         a) Collocation of premium    b) Appointment of inspectors  (development staff)   c) Issue of policies         d) Issue of cover notes

235. Under the Consumer Protection Act the District Forum can entertain a complain if the compensation claimed is less than Rs __________ lakh.
a) 10 b) 5 c) 1 d) 2

236. Which of the following policies does not fall under Public Liability Policies?
a) Products liability b) Employers liability c) Directors and  Officers liability

237. Which of the following risks are covered under pet Dog Policy?
a) Death by poisoning and third party liability    b) Death by discase and death by accident
c) Death by disease death by poisoning d) Death by accident and  death by poisoning

238.Which of the following principles of law prevents an insured from making a profit  out of his loss?
a) Insurable interest b) Caveat Emptor c) Utmost good faith d) indemnity

239.Which of the following perils is not covered under the Standard Fire and Special Perils Policy?
a) Subsidence b) Landslide c) Flood d) Earthquake

240.Employers liability under the ________ is not covered under Table ‘B’ cover the tariff.
a) Factories Act b) Workmens’s  Compensation Act c) Fatal Accident Act d) Common Law

241. Under mediclaim policy occurrence of the same illness after lapse of __ days is considered as fresh illness for purpose of reimbursement of covered expenses.
a) 15 b) 7 c) 3 d) 45


242.Under inland Transit (Road) Clause. ‘A’ the cover terminates after expiry of ____ Days after arrival of the vehicle at the destination town.
a) 30 b) 7 c) 3 d) 15

243. Under Horticulture/Plantation policy _______
a) Both fertilizers stores in the insured field and crops stored after harvesting are excluded b) Fertilisers stored in the insured field are covered
c) Crops stored after harvesting covered d) Both fertilized and crops 

244.Which of the following is ‘not’ a contract of indemnity in strict sense?
a) Fidelity guranantees b) Liability insurences c) Burglary insurances d) Personal accident insurances

45. To obtain agency licence both of Life and general insurance the applicant must complete ______ hours practical training.
a) 150 b) 100 c) 50 d) 200

246.Which of the following perils is ‘not’ covered under Standard Fire Special Perils Policy?
a) Landslide b) Bush Fire c) Forest Fire d) Subsidence

247.The minimum sum insured under Fire Floater Declaration policy is Rs. ______ crore.
a) 1 b) 3 c) 4 d) 2

248.Which of the following losses is ‘not’ excluded under Products Liability Policy?
        a) Product guarantee b) Pollution c) Cost of repair of defective d) Cost of replacement of defective product defective product

249. Under the nationalized set-up the agent is expected to secure a minimum premium amount of Rs. _______ a year. If he is working in places where population is less than 5 lakhs.
a) Rs. 7,500 b) Rs. 10,000 c) Rs. 15,000 d) Rs. 5,000

250. Under group personal accident policies which of the following discounts is not available?
a) Long term Policy b) Off duty c) Claims experience d) Exclusion of ‘Death’ benefit

251.Medical Reports is required in addition to proposal form under Overseas Mediclaim Policy if the proposer traveling to countries (other than North America) is aged above _____Years.
a) 45 b) 50 c) 55 d) 60

252. Which of the following risks are automatically covered without extra premium under Institute Cargo Clause (A)?
a) Strikes riot and civil commotion b) Breakage and leakage c) Breakage only d) Leakage only

253. Which of the following Acts does ‘not’ affect insurance of cargo sent by sea?
a) The Carriers Act 1865    b) The Bill of Langind Act 1855     c) The Multi-modal        d) The Indian Contract Act 1872 Transportation Act 1993

254. Renewal of personal accident policies when the insured completes 70 years is subject to ______
          a) reduction of capital sum insured b) loading of premium c) medical examination d) restriction of cover for ‘death’ only

255. The clause in open cover which limits the liability of insurers at any time or places before shipment is known as ______
a) Location clause b) Limit per bottom clause c) Basis of valuation clause d) Declaration clause

256. Which of the following covers in Householders policy is not included in shopkeepers policy?
a) Television b) Pedal cycles c) Fixed Plates Glass d) Legal liability towards employees

257. Under electronic Equipment Policy Cover is granted only for equipment which have completed at least _______ months trouble free operations.
a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 12

258. The liability of the owner of the motor vehicle to pay compensation for death claims on no-fault basis under the Motor vehicles Act 1988 is _____
a) Rs 50,00 b) Rs 10,000 c) Rs 25,000 d) Unlimited

259. The compensation for death under Solatium scheme is _____
a) Rs 1,00,000 b) RS 25,000 c) Rs 50,000 d) RS 12,500

260. Which of the following commodities is most susceptible to sea-water damage?
a) Electronic items b)Cotton c) Liquid Cargo d) Sugar

261. Which of the following is ‘not’ taken into account in loading the pure premium rate to arrive at the final rate of premium?
a) Margin for investments   b) Agency commission c) Expenses of management d) Margin for reserves

262. Breath of which of the following conditions in the policy will prevent the insured from recovering a particular loss the policy remaining unaffected?
a) Condition subsequent to the liability b) Condition subsequence to liability
c) Condition precedent to the contract d) Condition subsequent to the contract
 
263. The Mediclaim policy is available upto a maximum sum insured of Rs _______ lakhs
a) 4 b) 5 c) 2 d) 3

264. Under Floater Decalaration (Fire) Policy the minimum premium under the adjustment clause is ______% of the total premium.
a) 80 b) 25 c) 50 d) 60

265. An agent if his licence is cancalled by the designated person can apply for a fresh licence after a period of _______ years from the date of such cancellation.
a) 5 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

266. Which of the following insurances is governed by market agreement?
a) Honey bee b) Silk Worm c) Plantation d) Poultry

267. The insurance under Overseas Medical Policy does not operate beyond ______ days of continuous absence from India.
a) 180 b) 60 c) 90 d) 120

268. Which type of the following fidelity gurantee policies is suitable to an insured who fears that more than one employee may act in collusion and cause a loss?
a) Group b) Floating c) Collective d) Individual

269. The principle of indemnity is applied in practice through _______
        a) franchise clause b) deduction for depreciation c) extra premium d) excess clause deduction

270. Silkworm insurance excludes diseases contracted within ______ days from the date of commencement for risk.
a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 5

271.The motor Tariff prescribes discounts in premium for the following. Which discounts is available to private cars and motor cycles only and not to other vehicles?
a) Voluntary excess (Own damage section) b) Deletion of Riot Strike risks
    c) Deletion of Earthquake risks d) Membership of recognized Automobile Association

272. Which of the following losses are ‘not’ payable under the business premises burglary     policy?
a) Theft of cash from the safe b) Damage to the safe when it was broken
c) Damage to contents in the  premises open d) Breakage of window panes by burglars


273. Which of the following is ‘not’ considered as a material fact?
a) The previous insurers policy b) The insured had cancelled his policy
c) The previous insurers had cancelled the policy d) The previous insurers had rejected the proposal
   
274. Which of the following policies are freely assignable without the consent of insurers?
a) Fire b) Marine Cargo c) Marine hull d) Burglary

Problems


275.Out of 400 houses, each valued at Rs.20,000/- 4 houses get burnt, on an average, every year. What should be the contribution of each owner to pay for the losses of 4 houses.
a) Rs.200/- b) Rs.400/-
c) Rs.600/- d) Rs.800/-

276. Value of the property is Rs.3,00,000 and it is insured for Rs.2,40,000. If a loss occurs of Rs 60,000, what will be the amount of claim payable under a Fire policy?
a) Rs. 48,000/- b) Rs. 46,000/- c) Rs. 42,000/- d) Rs. 8,000/-

277. The same property is covered under two fire policies, A for Rs.10,000 and B for Rs.20,000. If there is a loss of Rs.6000 payable, the amounts of claim payable under Policy A and Policy B are Rs._______ and Rs. ________respectively
a) Rs. 3,000 Rs. 3,000 b) Rs. Nil Rs. 6,000 c) Rs. 1,000 Rs. 6,000 d) Rs. 2,000 Rs. 4,000

278. A policy with a sum insured o' Rs. 1 lakh is subject to a 'franchise' limit of Rs. 10,000/- what is the amount of claim payable if the loss is Rs.8000/-.
a) Rs.2000/- b) Rs.10000/- c) Rs.18000/- d) Nil

279.Calculate the total premium payable under a Fidelity Guarantee (Floating) policy for an amount of Rs.5 lakh to cover 10 employees if the rate of premium is 1 % and per capita charge is Rs.5/-.
a) Rs. 550 b) Rs.5,050
c) Rs.5,100 d) Rs.5,200

280.Calculate the premium under a Money (Transit) policy if:
Limit for anyone loss is Rs.1 lakh
Estimated amount of money in transit is Rs.10lakhs
Rate of premium is Re.1/ per mile
a) Rs.100 b) Rs.1,000
c) Rs,11,000 d) Rs.10,000

281.Out of 1000 pedal cycles, each valued at Rs.2000, 5 are stolen on an average every year. The rate of ‘pure premium’ for each cycle is the value of each cycle.
a) ½% b) 1% c) 2% d) 5%





282. Out of 400 houses, each valued at Rs. 20,000. 4 houses get burnt, on an average, every year. What should be the contribution of each owner to pay for the losses of 4 houses.
a) Rs. 200 b) Rs. 400
c.Rs. 600 d) Rs. 800

283. Under Fire Declaration policy
          Sum insured: Rs.1crore
          Rate of premium: Re.1.per mille and
          Average of monthly declarations Rs.70 lakhs.
          Calculate the provisional premium and refund
          Premium.

    a) Rs.10.000 and b) Rs.1,00,000 and
Rs.7,000 Rs.7,000

    c) Rs.1,00,000 and d) Rs.10,000 and
Rs.3,000 Rs.3000

284.       Turnover : Rs.20 lacs;
    Cost of Production      :             Rs.14 lacs;
              Fixed overhead : Rs.4 lacs;
              Net profit : Rs.2 lacs.

  Calculate the sum insured for a consequential loss
  (fire) policy.

  a) Rs.20 lacs b) Rs.14 lacs

  c) Rs.6 lacs d) Rs.2 lacs

Friday, 9 August 2019

Export import mcqs


EXPORT IMPORT CREDIT MCQs



1. Minimum andmaximum amount up to which the Gold Credit card can be issued to exporter is Rs

________ lac and Rs lac. : (a) 100,1000 (b) 50, 500 (c) 100, 5000

(d) 20,200 (e) None of these as it is based on anticipated turnover.**



2. Aspertheexchangecontrolregulations,thepaymentforexportsshouldingeneralberealizedwithina

periodof:(a) 12months fromdate of shipment** (b) 3months from date of shipment

(c) 6months fromthe date of shipment (d) 1month fromdate of shipment

(e) 45 days formdate of shipment

3. Units in a special economic zone are permitted to realise and repatriate to India the full export value of

goods or software within a period of......................................... from the date of shipment.

(a) 3months (b) 6months (c) 180 days (d) 360 days (e) none of these as there is no time limit*



4. In respectof shipmentsmade toIndianownedwarehouses abroad establishedwithpermissionof RBI,

export proceeds shouldbe realizedwithin:

(a) 6 months (b)3 months (c) 9 months (d)15 months* (e) 150 days



5. RBImonitorsoverdueexportbills-not realizedwithinthestipulatedtimeby calling for ahalf yearly

statement fromADs referredtoas : (a) BEF (b)XOS** (c) GTE-1 (d) ST-9 (e) ENC



6.Packing credit advances mean :

advances granted to industrial units for packing of manufactured goods for sale in Indiaadvances granted to eligible exporters for purchase/manufacture/processing/transporting/packing etc. of goods meant for export*

(c) advancesgrantedtoimporterstoenablethemtostoreandsubsequentlysellimportedgoodslocally

(d) any one or more of the above (e) none of the above.



7. To be eligible for packing credit advances the customer :

(a) should not be in the caution list of RBI or specific approval list of ECGC

(b) must be holding importer/exporter code number allotted byDGFT

(c) should be recognised export house (d) all above (e) both (a) and (b)**



8. Packing credit advances is normally allowed for :

(a) 90 days (b) 60 days (c) 360 days (d) 180 days (e) as per requirement of the exporter**



9. `Normal Transit Period ' in the context of export financemeans:

(a) the number of days the documents take to reach destination

(b) the gap between period taken by the ship and the documents to reach destination

(c) the number of days taken by a ship to complete a voyage

(d) the number of days fixed by FEDAI and is the average period normally involved from date of negotiation to credit to

NOSTRO account.**

(e) either (a)or (b)



10. For facilities grantedupto30.6.2010, rateof interestonpost shipment credit inrupeesupto180days in

respectofusancebills is :

(a) 12% (b) 15% (c) not exceeding BPLR

(d) not exceeding BPLR minus 2.5% (e) not exceeding BPLR plus 1.5%**



11. Refinance for export credit fromRBI is available for howmany days?

(a) 90 days . (b) 180 days** (c) 360 days (d) 270 days- (e) None of these



12. Refinance against eligible export finance is available from:

(a) RBI* (b) IDBI (c) ECGC (d) Exim Bank (e) None of these



13. On PCFC refinance is available to the extent of % of outstanding PCFC.

(a) 15% (b) 50% (c) 25% (d) Nil** (e) None of these



14. Forfacilitiesgrantedupto30.6.2010ConcessionalinterestrateonPostshipmentcreditinrupeesis

permittedupto:

(a) 180 days** (b) 90 days (c) 270 days (d) 360 days (e) None of these

15. Which of the following is not correct regarding Liberalised Remittance Scheme?

(a) Amount can be remitted for capital aswell as current account transactions

(b) Maximumamount that can be remitted in a financial year is restricted toUSD200,000

(c) Remittance for gift and donationwill bewithinUSD200,000 permitted under LRS

(d) Bank can allowadvance to a resident individual formaking remittance under this scheme**

(e) None of these



16_ For outward remittance formedical expenses, estimate fromthe doctor or hospital is required if the

remittance is more than USD : (a) 1 lac (b) 5 lac (c) 10 Lac (d) none of these as it is required in all cases



17. What is themaximumamount of inwardremittance that can bedone by a resident individual?

(a) USD 1 Lac (b) USD 5 lac (c) USD 10 Lac (d) None as there is no limit

*

18. How much amount can be released for remittance abroad for education on declaration basis and withou estimate

from educational institution?

(a) USD 1 Lac** (b) USD 5 lac (c) USD 10 Lac (d) None as there is no limit



19.Which of the following is true?

(a) If a bank has oversold position, Bankwill gain if the rate of foreign currency rises.

(b) If a bank has oversold position, Bankwill gain if the rate of foreign currency declines**

(c) If a bank has oversold position, Bankwill lose if the rate of foreign currency declines

(d) If a bank has overbought position, Bankwill gain if the rate of foreign currency declines

(e) None of these



20. ADsmay allowadvance remittance for import of goodswithout any ceiling.However, if the amount of

advance remittance exceedsUSD50,00,000 or its equivalent it ismandatory to obtain-

(a) unconditional irrevocable stand byUC of an international bank of repute situated outside India

(b) guarantee froman international bank of repute situated outside India(c) guarantee of anADinIndia, if such guaranteeis issuedagainst counter guarantee of aninternational

bankof reputesituatedoutside India

(d) any one of the above (e) either (a) or (b) only***



21. BEF statement containingdetailsof remittance exceedingUSD1,00,000where evidence of import is

not furnishedwithin6months fromdateof remittance is submittedby ADs toRBIon:

(a) monthlybasisby 10thof thefollowingmonth

(b) quarterlybasisby 15thof themonthfollowing closeofquarter

(c) half yearly basis forMarch/ September by 15th of succeedingmonth

(d) half yearly basis as of June/ December by 15th of succeedingmonth **(e) none of these





22. Crystallisation of import bill under UCmeans:

(a) bill is scrutinisedwhether it is as perUC terms or not

(b) it is ensured that currency of IJC and insurance is the same or not

(c) converting bill amount into Indian rupees and deciding customer's liability on due date in case of usance**

bill and on 10th day from date of receipt in case of demand bills.

(d) none of the above as the concept is gonewith the termination of PSCFC



23. ApplicationformakingpaymenttowardsimportsintoIndiahastobemadetoauthoriseddealersby

importersin:(a) ENC (b) R-3 (c) Form A-1 *(d) Form A-4 (e) none of the above





24. Advance remittance for import of goods into India is to be allowed after obtaining guarantee froman

international bank of repute situated outside India or guarantee of an AD in India against counter-guarantee of an

international bank when amount of advance remittance exceeds:

(a) US $ 10,000 (b) US $ 25,000 (c) US $5,000 (d) US $ 15,000 (e) US $ 50,00,000***



25. How much advance remittance is allowed for import of services without guarantee of a reputed

international bank?

(a) USD 1 Lac (b) USD 5 lac **(c) USD 10 Lac (d) None as there is no limit



26. Which of the following types of Bill of Lading is not acceptable by a bank under LC?

(a) On Board (b) Clean (c) Charter Party** (d) AN of these (e) None of these



27. Interest Subvention is available on rupee export credit at the rate of 2% for loan up to Rs

but

interest rate after subvention should not be less than 7%.

(a) Rs 3 lac (b) Rs 5 lakh (c) Rs 10 lakh (d) Rs 100 lakh (e) None of these**



-28. Interest rate charged by RBI on export refinance to banks is at the rate of :

(a) Bank Rate (b) Repo Rate** (c) Reverse Repo Rate (d) Base Rate (e) None of these



29. Export Refinance is provided by RBI at the rate of __________ % of eligible outstanding export credit?

(a) 15% **(b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 100% (e) None of these



30. R Return is submitted to RBI onwhich of the following dates of themonth?

(a) 7th and 2151 (b) 15th & last day **(c) 10th, 20th and last day (d) None of these



31.Overdue import demand bills and usance bills are crystalised onwhich dates?

(a)10thday&duedate **(b)15thdayand30thday (c)30thdayand60thday(d)10thdayand60thday(e)Noneofthese



132. Which of the following is incorrect regarding export declaration forms?



(a) GR formis usedfor declaration of exports other than by postwhere customoffice not linked to EDI

(b) ExportDeclaration formis not required to be submitted for exports up toUSD25000.

(c) Softex formis used for declaration of export of software in physical or electronic form.**

(d) None of these (e) All of these



33.. Presently rate of interest on pre-shipment credit in forex (PCFC) up to 180 days is not exceeding:

(a) 200 basis points above LIBOR ***(b) 100 basis points above LIBOR

(c) 150 basis points above LIBOR (d) 50 points above LIBOR (e) 350 basis points below LIBOR



34. As per current guidelines of RBI, for loans sanctioned up to 30.6.2010, rate of interest on pre-shipment credit in rupees up to

270 days should not exceed :

(a) Bank Rate plus 2.5% (b) BPLR plus 1.5% (c) BPLR minus 2.5%**

(d) Bank Rate minus 2.5% (e) lower of (a) and (b)



35. As per the exchange control regulations, the payment for exports should in general be realized within a period of:

(a) 12 months from date of shipment** (b) 360 days from date of packing of goods

(c) 180 days from the date of shipment (d) 270 days from date of shipment

(e) 180 days from the date of receipt of consignment by the buyer in foreign country



36. Which of the following is/are not true with regard to features of Gold Card Scheme for exporters:

(a) Only exporters whose accounts have been 'Standard' continuously for 3 years are eligible

(b) Gold Card holderswill be given preference is granting packing credit in foreign currency (PCFC)

(c) Time normfor disposal of fresh applications for credit under the schemewill be 25 days

(d) Gold Card for exporters will be issued for a period of 5 years (e) none of these**









EXPORTFINANCE

Case- STUDY

An exporter approaches the popular bank for pre-shipment loanwith estimated sales ofRs.100 lakh. The bank

sanctions a limit ofRs.50 lakh,with followingmargins: Pre-shipment loan on FOB value—25%; ForeignDemandBill -

10%; Foreign usance bilis—20%.

The firmgets an order forUSD50,000 (CIF) toAustralia.On 1.1.2011when theUSD/INRratewasRs.43.50 perUSD,

the firmapproached theBank for releasing pre-shipment loan (PCL),which is released.

On 31.3.2011, the firmsubmitted export documents, drawn on sight basis forUSD45,000 as full and final shipment.

The bank purchased the documents atRs.43.85, adjusted thePCL outstanding and credited the balance amount to the

firm's account, after recovering interest forNormalTransit Period (NTP). The documents were realized on

30.4.2011 after deduction of foreign bank charges of USD 450. The bank adjusted the outstanding post

shipment advance. against the bill. Bank charged interest for pre-shipment loan@7%up to 90 days and,@8%

over 90 days up to 180 days. For Post shipment credit, theBank charged interest@7%for demand bills and@7.5%

for usance (D/A) documents up to 90 days and@8.50%thereafter and on all over dues, interest@10%.

01 What is the amount that the Bank can allow as PCL to the exporter against the given export order,

considering the profit margin of 10% and insurance and freight cost of 12%?

a) Rs.2200000 b) Rs.1650000 c) R6.1485000 d) Rs.1291950

02What is the amount of post shipment advance that can be allowed by the Bank under foreign bills

purchased, for the bill submitted by the exporter?

a) Rs.19,80,000 b) Rs.17,75,925 c) Rs.19,73,250 d) Rs.21,92,500

03 What will be the period for which the Bank charges concessional interest on DP bills, from date of

purchase of the bill?

a) 90 days b) 25 days c) 31 days d) Up to date of realization

04 in the above case, when should the bill be crystallized (latest date), if the bill remains unrealized for

over two months, from the date of purchase-(ignore holidays)?

a) On 30.4.2011 b) On 24.4.2011 c) On 24.5.2011 d) On 31.5.2011

05 What rate of interest will be applicable for charging interest on the export bill at the time of realization,

for the days beyond Normal Due Date (NDD)?

a) 8% b) 7% c) 7.5% d) 10%

Ans. 1-d 2-c 3-b 4-c 5-d Explanations:

1. FOB value =

CIF Value i.e. 50000x43.5 = 2175000

Deduct Insurance & freight 12% of 2175000 = 261000

Balance = 1914000

Deduct profit margin 10% of 1914000 =191400

Balance = 1722600

Less Margin 25% = 430650

PCL = 1291950

2. 45000 x43.85=1973250

3. Concessional• rate will be charged for normal transit period of 25 days and there after overdue

interest will be charged.

4. Crystallisation will be done when the bill becomes overdue after 25 days of normal transit period. Date of

overdue will be 25.4.2011. if bill remains overdue, it will be crystalised within 30 days i.e. up to 24.5.2011.

5. Rate of interest will be 10%as the overdue interest is stated as 10%in the question.


Tuesday, 6 August 2019

Treasury management

Treasury Management – Concepts



Banks not only lend money to customers but also invest in securities such as Bonds and Debentures of Government as well as Corporates. These instruments are easily tradable in the capital and money market. The tradability of securities makes investments an attractive option for banks for deployment of their funds. Further, banks buy securities not only to trade but also to hold them till maturity to take advantage of the attractive returns with relatively lower risk. Banks are allowed to invest in shares of companies. However, the volumes are low due to associated high risk besides regulatory restrictions. The investment portfolio of the banks broadly divided into three groups viz.,

Trading Book - Securities purchased with the intention of selling them within 90 days are held in the trading book. Trading opportunities arise in the market on account of fluctuation in interest rates and arbitrage opportunities.

Available for Sale (AFS) - Securities which are bought with the intention of selling them but not necessarily within 90 days is considered to be AFS securities. They are also part of the trading portfolio of the bank but only the time frame is different. Both the trading and AFS securities have to be "Marked to Market" every quarter while finalization of quarterly results.

Held to Maturity (HTM) - These securities are meant to be held till their date of maturity and the purpose investing in them is to earn reasonable steady income. These securities are carried in the books at cost or purchase price till maturity. Hence, HTM securities need not be "Marked to Market" as the bank is certain of receiving the maturity value on the specified date. Banks are not allowed to shift securities freely from trading and AFS to the HTM book as this may lead to overstating of profit figures. However, banks can opt for shifting only once in a year to adjust their overall portfolio. Banks are permitted to exceed the limit of 25% of total investments under HTM category provided (a) the excess comprises of only of SLR securities and (b) the total SLR securities held in the HTM category is not more than 23% by March 2014.

Call Money Markets:

Call and notice money market refers to the market for short term funds ranging from overnight funds to funds for a maximum tenor of 14 days. Under Call money market, funds are transacted on overnight basis where as in case of notice money market; funds are transacted for the period of 2 days to 14 days.

Coupon Rate:

It is a rate at which interest is paid, and is usually represented as a percentage of the par value of a bond. It refers to the periodic interest payments that are made by the borrower (who is also the issuer of the bond) to the lender (the subscriber of the bond) and the coupons are

stated upfront either directly specifying the number (e.g.8%) or indirectly tying with a benchmark rate (e.g. MIBOR+0.5%).

Zero Coupon Bond / Deep Discount Bond:

The bond is issued at a discount to its face value, at which it will be redeemed. When such a bond is issued for a very long tenor, the issue price is at a steep discount to the redemption value. The effective interest earned by the buyer is the difference between the face value and the discounted price at which the bond is bought. The essential feature of this type of bonds is the absence of intermittent cash flows.

Commercial Paper (CP):

It is a short-term instrument to enable non-banking companies to borrow short-term funds through liquid money market instruments. CPs is therefore part of the working capital limits as set by the maximum permissible bank finance (MPBF). CP issues are regulated by RBI Guidelines issued from time to time stipulating term, eligibility, limits and amount and method of issuance. CP can be issued for maturities between a minimum of 7 days and a maximum up to one year from the date of issue. The maturity date of the CP should not go beyond the date up to which the credit rating of the issuer is valid. CP can be issued in denominations of Rs. 5 lakh and multiples thereof. It is mandatory that CPs should be rated by credit rating agencies. In a bid to make CPs attractive, the RBI has allowed issuers to buyback these instruments through the secondary market before maturity. It attracts stamp duty.

Certificates of Deposits (CDs):

It is a negotiable money market instrument and issued in dematerialized form or as a Usance Promissory Note, for funds, deposited at a bank or other eligible financial institutions to raise short-term resources within the umbrella limit fixed by RBI. CDs may be issued at a discount on face value. CDs differ from term deposit as they involve the creation of paper, and hence have the facility for transfer and multiple ownerships before maturity. Banks use the CDs for borrowing during a credit pickup, to the extent of shortage in incremental deposits.

Minimum amount of a CD should be one lakh and in multiples thereof. The maturity period of CDs should be not less than 7 days and not more than one year. However FIs are allowed to issue CDs not exceeding 3 years from the date of issue. Banks have to maintain the appropriate reserve requirements (CRR/SLR) on the issue price of the CDs. It attracts stamp duty. Banks/FIs cannot grant loans against CDs.

Securitization is an effective tool to reduce the mismatches in the maturities of assets and liabilities. It is a financing technique that involves pooling and re-packing of illiquid financial assets in to marketable securities. There are six players viz., Borrowers, Lending Banker (who becomes an originator for the Securitization transaction), Special Purpose Vehicle



(SPV), Credit Rating Agency, Investors and Service Providers. The process of securitization involves identification of financial assets, rating of these assets by the rating agency, creation of a SPV for handling the securitization transaction, assignment of future receivables in favour of the SPV, issuance of marketable securities based on these underlying financial assets and selling the same to the investors. The service providers recover the amount periodically and remit to the SPV and who in turn pass the benefit to the investors.

Asset and Liability Management:

RBI Guidelines: Of late, it is observed that PSBs have been accepting Bulk Deposits/Certificate of Deposits route to increase balance sheet size at very high interest rates, adversely affecting the profitability besides exposing the banks to ALM Risk. RBI directed banks not to accept Bulk Deposits beyond 10% of the total deposits and the total of Bulk Deposits & Certificates of Deposits should not exceed 15% of total deposits of the bank at any given point of time. An appropriate time-bound strategy for reduction of such existing bulk deposits should be put in place.

Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC):

It denotes Net Bank Credit plus investments made by banks in non-SLR bonds held in HTM category. However, investments made by banks in the Recapitalization Bonds and Inter-bank exposures will not be taken into account for the purpose of priority sector lending targets/sub-targets.

Subordinate Debt:

It is a debt owed to an unsecured creditor that in the event of liquidation can only be paid after the claims of secured creditors have been met. Normally, subordinate debt ranks below other secured loans with regard to claims on assets or earnings.

Sunday, 4 August 2019

Caiib mcqs

01 Financial markets that facilitate the flow of long-term funds with maturities of more than one year are known as ____________.

o money markets

o capital markets*

o primary markets

o secondary markets

02 Financial markets facilitating the issuance of new securities are known as

o ____________.

o money markets

o capital markets

o primary markets*

o secondary markets

03 ____________ are not considered capital market securities.

o bonds

o mortgages

o retail CDs*

o stocks

04 _________ are financial contracts whose values are obtained from the values of underlying assets.

o Bonds

o Mortgages

o Stocks

o Derivatives*

05 A bank's ______ quote is slightly higher than its _______ quote.

o ask; bid**

o bid; ask

o ask; transaction

o transaction; bid

06 In a(n) _________ market, all information about any securities for sale is continuously and freely available to investors.

o inefficient

o efficient

o perfect***

o imperfect

07 _________ are depository financial institutions.

o Savings banks***

o Finance companies

o Mutual funds

o Securities firms

08 In aggregate, ____________ are the most dominant depository institution.

o credit unions

o savings banks

o savings and loan associations

o commercial banks***

09 ________ sell shares to surplus units and use the funds received to purchase a portfolio of securities. They are the

dominant nondepository financial institution when measured in total assets.

o Securities firms

o Mutual funds**

o Finance companies

o Pension funds

10 The main source of funds for ________________ is deposits from households, businesses, and government agencies, while their main use of funds is the purchase of government and corporate securities and mortgages and other loans to households.

o savings institutions**

o commercial banks

o mutual funds

o finance companies

11 The Govt.government commonly acts as a surplus unit.

o True

o False*

12 An investor who holds bonds has partial ownership in a corporation.

o True

o False**

13 When security prices fully reflect all available information, the markets for these securities are said to be efficient.

o True**

o False

14 To prevent overreactions to rumors, so-called circuit breakers are now used to permanently halt the trading of some securities or contracts.

o True

o False

15 Securities firms can act both as brokers and as dealers.

o True

o False*

16 Which of the following is not a money market security?

o Treasury bill

o commercial paper

o bond**

o repurchase agreement

17 Treasury bills

o offer coupon payments.

o are sold at a discount from par value.***

o have a yield equal to the coupon rate.

o are not sold in the secondary market.

18 An investor purchases a six-month (182-day) T-bill with a Rs10,000 par value for Rs9,850. If the investor holds the Treasury bill to maturity, his annualized yield is ____ percent.

o 1.52

o 1.50

o 3.05**

o 3.01

19 An investor purchases a six-month (182-day) T-bill with a Rs10,000 par value for Rs9,850. If the investor holds the Treasury bill to maturity, the Treasury bill discount yield is ______ percent.

o 3.05

o 2.97**

o 3.01

o none of the above

20 An investor purchases a six-month (182-day) T-bill with a Rs10,000 par value for Rs9,850. If the investor had sold the T-bill after 100 days for Rs9,940, her annualized yield would be _______ percent.

o 3.34**

o 3.29

o 1.83

o 1.80

21 At a given point in time, the yield on commercial paper is __________ the yield on a T-bill with the same maturity.

o slightly lower than

o slightly higher than**

o about equal to

o none of the above

22 (Financial calculator required.) An investor would like to purchase a bond that has a par value of Rs1,000 and pays Rs60 at the end of each year in coupon payments. The bond has seven years remaining until it matures. If the prevailing annualized yield on other bonds with similar characteristics is 5 percent, how much should the investor be willing to pay for the bond?

o Rs1,000.00

o Rs1,057.86**

o Rs944.18

o none of the above

23 Jerry Garcia purchased a Rs1,000 par value bond with a 9 percent annual coupon rate and an original maturity of 20 years. The bond was issued four years ago, and the yield to maturity is 11 percent. What is the price Mr. Garcia should be willing to pay for this bond?

o Rs1,166.25

o Rs1,000

o Rs852.42***

o Rs840.73

24 If a bond pays interest semiannually, which of the following adjustments needs to be made to correctly compute the price of the bond?

o The number of years should be split in half.

o The annualized coupon should be doubled.

o The annual yield to maturity should be divided by 2.**

o The par value should be split in half.

25 A private investor is considering the purchase of a Rs1,000 par value bond paying interest semiannually. The bond has an annualized coupon rate of 8 percent, and bonds with similar characteristics pay interest rates of 6 percent. The bond has 15 years remaining to maturity. A fair price for the bond is Rs_________.

o 1,000.00

o 1,196.00**

o 1,194.24

o 827.08

26 If a bond sells above its par value, it is called a __________ bond.

o discount

o premium**

o callable

o convertible

27 If the coupon rate of a bond is _______ the yield to maturity, the price of the bond should be _________ the par value.

o below; above

o above; below

o above; above**

o above; the same as

28 7. A _________ than expected level of inflation will put _________ pressure on the value of bonds.

o higher; downward**

o higher; upward

o lower; downward

o none of the above

29 A zero-coupon bond sells for Rs1,000. Assume that the required rate of return changes from 6 percent to 5 percent. As a result, the price of the zero bond increases to Rs1,070. What is the bond price elasticity for this bond?

o -7.00

o -0.42****

o 0.42

o 7.00

30 A bond has a par value of Rs1,000 and pays Rs100 in interest every year. The bond has three years remaining to maturity, and the yield to maturity is 8 percent. What is the duration of this bond?

o 2.74 years**

o 1.23 years

o 2.64 years

o none of the above

31 Refer to question 9. The modified duration of this bond is _________ years.

o 2.40

o 1.14

o 2.54**

o none of the above

32 Three bonds comprise a portfolio that is valued at Rs500,000. The investment in the first bond is Rs100,000, the investment in the second bond is Rs200,000, and the investment in the third bond is Rs200,000. The first bond has a duration of 1.8 years, the second bond has a duration of 1.7 years, and the third bond has a duration of 2.0 years. What is the duration of the portfolio of bonds?

o 1.84 years**

o 1.50 years

o 1.69 years

o none of the above

33 In the ____________ strategy, funds are evenly allocated to bonds in each of several different maturity classes.

o matching

o laddered**

o barbell

o interest rate

34 Strong economic growth tends to place downward pressure on interest rates.

o True

o False**

35 As interest rates decrease, short-term bond prices increase by a greater degree than long-term bond prices.

o True

o False**

36 7. An investor purchases 270-day commercial paper with a par value of Rs2,000,000 for a price of Rs1,960,000. The yield is ______ percent.

o 2.76

o 2.67

o 2.72***

o none of the above

37 Which of the following financial institutions does not frequently participate in repurchase agreements?

o banks

o savings and loan associations

o money market funds

o All of the above frequently participate in repos.**

38 In the ____________ strategy, funds are evenly allocated to bonds in each of several different maturity classes.

o matching

o laddered**

o barbell

o interest rate

39 If short-term interest rates decline, the required rate of return on money market securities will ________, and the values of money market securities will _________.

o increase; decline

o decline; increase

o decline; decline

o increase; increase**

40 11. Which of the following securities probably has the lowest degree of default risk? a. Treasury bill

o negotiable certificate of deposit**

o banker's acceptance

o all of the above have the same degree of default risk

41 _________ have the highest degree of interest rate risk.

o Fixed-rate eurodollar CDs**

o Eurodollar floating-rate CDs (FRCDs)

o Floating-rate eurodollar loans

o All of the above are affected equally by an increase in interest rates.

42 The yield of a newly issued Treasury bill that is held to maturity will always be

Lower than the Treasury bill Discount.

o True**

o False

43 Commercial paper is a short-term debt instrument issued only by well- known, credit-worthy firms and is typically unsecured.

o True**

o False

44 When firms sell their commercial paper at a lower price than projected, their cost of raising funds will be higher than they initially anticipated.

o True**

o False

45 There is an active secondary market for repos.

o True**

o False

46 During periods of heightened uncertainty about the economy, investors tend shift from risky money market securities to Treasury securities.

o True**

o False

47 If a bond pays interest semiannually, which of the following adjustments needs to be made to correctly compute the price of the bond?

o The number of years should be split in half.

o The annualized coupon should be doubled.

o The annual yield to maturity should be divided by 2.**

o The par value should be split in half.

48 A private investor is considering the purchase of a Rs1,000 par value bond paying interest semiannually. The bond has an annualized coupon rate of 8 percent, and bonds with similar characteristics pay interest rates of 6 percent. The bond has 15 years remaining to maturity. A fair price for the bond is Rs_________.

o 1,000.00

o 1,196.00

o 1,194.24***

o 827.08

49 If a bond sells above its par value, it is called a __________ bond.

o discount

o premium**

o callable

o convertible

50 If the coupon rate of a bond is _______ the yield to maturity, the price of the bond should be _________ the par value.

o below; above

o above; below

o above; above**

o above; the same as