Thursday, 14 April 2022

JAIIB-ACCOUNTING & FINANCE FOR BANKERS

  

JAIIB-ACCOUNTING  &  FINANCE  FOR BANKERS-MOD-C
MODEL   QUESTIONS

1) Which of the following may not be part of the reconciliation process.
a) Interest on overdraft
b) Dishonour of cheque
c) Cash drawn from bank
d) Cheque deposited but not collected

2) Which of the following is part of reconciliation.
a) Cash paid by customer to the trader
b) Cheque issued,  presented, and on the debit side in the passbook and cashbook.
c) Bank charges debited.
d) b) & c)

3) Reconciliation of overcasting on receipts side of cash book
a) Increases the  balance in the cash book.
b) Increases the balance in the passbook.
c) Decreases the balance in the cash book.
d) Decreases the balance in the passbook.

4) Which of the following is true
a)  Bank Reconciliation Statement(BRC) is an account.
b)  BRC is prepared by the bank.
c)  BRC shows causes of disagreement between cash book & passbook.
d)  BRC shows only excess of cash book over passbook.

5) If x is a credit balance in cash book carried forward on the debit side, then reconciliation is
a) Casting x on the debit side of cash book.
b) Casting 2x on the credit side of  cash book.
c) Casting 2x on debit side of cash book.
d) Casting x on credit side of cash book.

6) If a trader enjoys an overdraft facility,then
a) His passbook will show debit balance.
b) His  cash book will show credit balance .
c) Both a) & b).
d) Neither a) nor b).

7) Credit balance in a passbook indicates
a) excess of deposits over withdrawals.
b) excess of withdrawals over deposits.
c) debit balance in cash book.
d)  b) & c).
e)  a) & c).




8) At any point in time, cash book & passbook balances  will not be same.
a) True.
b) False.
c) Maybe.

9) A trader has a strict overdraft limit of 10,000/-, overdraft balance of 9,500/-; issues 2 cheques  of 500/- each, which are presented, then
a) His cash book will show higher overdraft balance than passbook.
b) His cash book will show lesser overdraft balance than  passbook.
c) His cash book will show same balance as passbook.
d) Neither a) nor b) nor c).

10)  Direct deposit by a customer in the bank with no overdraft facility
a) Shows a higher passbook balance than cash book.
b) Shows a lesser passbook balance than cash book.
c) Shows no difference.
d) None of the above.

11)   Credit sale of X to Suresh is posted to his credit , then rectification is
a) Credit Suresh to the extent of 2X.
b) Credit Suresh to the extent of X.
c) Debit Suresh to the extent of 2X.
d) Debit Suresh to the extent of X.  

12) Freight expenses for carrying Machinery is carried to Travel a/c, then
rectification in trial balance is
a) Debit machinery a/c and credit travel a/c.
b) Credit machinery a/c and debit travel a/c
c) Credit profit and loss account and debit travel a/c.
d) Debit profit and loss a/c( P&L a/c) and credit travel a/c.

13)  Goods worth X sold to Vijay was entered in purchase account;
       The rectification is
a) Credit purchases and credit sales to the extent of X each & debit Vijay.
b) Debit purchases and debit sales to the extent of X each & credit Vijay.
c) Debit sales to the extent of 2X.
d) Credit purchases to the extent of 2X.

14) Machinery worth (WDV) 1000/- sold for 1200/- is entered in sales register. The rectification is
a) Credit sales 1200/-, debit machinery 1000/- and debit P&L a/c 200/-.
b) Debit sales 1200/- , credit machinery 1000/- and credit P&L a/c 200/-.
c) Credit machinery 1200/-, debit sales 1000/- and debit P&L a/c 200/-.
d) Debit machinery 1200/-, credit sales 1000/- and credit P&L a/c 200/-.





       15)  Sales return of amount X from Vijay was wrongly entered in purchase book.
              The rectification is
a) Debit sales to the extent of 2X.
b) Credit purchases to the extent of 2X.
c) Credit Vijay 2X debit sales and purchases to the extent X each.
d) Debit sales return and credit purchases.

16) Which of the following will not affect Trial Balance
a) Goods sold on credit not recorded in books.
b) Overstating of sales register.
c) Rent account credited instead of debit.
d) Salary debited to the extent ½ the amount. 

17) Suspense a/c is not used in which of the following cases.
a) before trial balance.
b) after trial balance.
c) before final accounts.
d) none of the above.

18)Which of the following is true
a) Trial balance ensures arithmetical accuracy.
b) Trial balance errors are not located then the difference is sent to suspense a/c.
c) Trial balance is base for final accounts.
d) All of the above.

19) Statement showing debit and credit balances of ledger accounts is
a) Gross trial balance
b) Net trial balance
c) Trial balance
d) None of the above

20) Which of the following are true
a)  Nominal accounts always have credit balances.
b)  Real accounts always have debit balances.
c)  Debit balance in ledger account is credit balance in trial balance.
d)  P&L a/c appears in trial balance.

21) Freight expenses for moving machinery to factory is
a) Revenue expenses
b) Deferred revenue expenditure
c) Capital expenditure
d) None of the above

22) Which of the following is false
a) Replacement of defective part of machinery is revenue expenditure
b) Daily wages paid for erection /installing of machinery is capital expenditure
c) Underwriting  commission for issue of shares is revenue expenditure
d) Excess of sale price of Machinery over its W D Value but less than cost price is treated as revenue receipt

23) Which of the following is not a deferred revenue expenditure
a) Preliminary expenses for setting up a company.
b) Rights issue amount.
c) Huge sales promotion expenditure in launch of new product
d) Cost of preparing project report

24) Match the columns:
  a) Purchase of land for premises              1) Deferred Revenue Expenditure (c)
  b) Purchase of machinery for sale            2) Capital Expenditure (a)
  c) Legal expenses for issue of shares       3) Revenue Expenses (b)
  d) Excess of sale price of asset over
       W D Value                                          4) Capital Receipt (e)
   e) Excess of sale price of asset over
       cost price                                            5) Revenue Receipt (d )

25) For an expense to be classified as revenue or capital depends on
  a) Kind of expense
  b) Duration of the benefit of the expenditure
  c)  Effect on revenue earning capacity
  d) All of the above

26) Inflation of current profits could be on account of
  a) Inflation of closing stock in current year
  b) Deflation of closing stock in current year
  c) Inflation of closing stock in previous year
  d) None of the above

27) Cost of goods sold is
  a) Opening stock + purchases + closing stock
  b) Opening stock + purchases – closing stock
  c) Opening stock – purchases + closing stock
  d) None of above

28) In LIFO method of inventory valuation
  a) Issue of stocks to production is at latest price
  b) Closing stock is at latest price
  c) Both a) & b)
  d) Neither a) nor b)

29) In FIFO method of inventory valuation
  a) Closing stock is at latest price
  b) Issue of stocks to production is at earliest price
  c) Both a) & b)
  d) Neither a) nor b)






30)Which of the following is most desirable
  a) Pricing issue of goods to match current material costs
  b) Overstating profits
  c) Understating profits
  d) none of the above

31) In a market of falling prices which is the best option
  a) LIFO
  b) FIFO
  c) Weighted average cost method (WACM)
  d) a) or b)
  e) b) or c)

32) In a rising market which is the best option
  a) LIFO
  b) FIFO
  c) WACM
  d) a) or c)
  e) b) or c)

33) As per accounting standards which of the following is not a preferred method
        a) LIFO
        b) FIFO
        c) WACM
        d) All of them

34) Consider the following:
01/04 Opening stock of 1000 units at Rs. 10/- each
10/04 Purchases of 500 units at Rs. 9/- each
16/04 Purchases of 300 units at Rs. 11/- each
18/04 Goods of 300 units released to production
31/04 Books closed
 Answer the following:                     under LIFO    under FIFO  under WACM  
 Goods released to production              @ Rs 11/-    @ Rs. 10/-     @ Rs. 9.89/-
 Closing stock                                        @ Rs.10/-   @ Rs.  11/-     @ Rs. 9.89/

35)Cost of goods sold reflects the usual physical flow of goods. This
statement is true of
        a) LIFO
        B) FIFO
        c) WACM
        d) Adjusted selling price method








36) The ending inventory may be taken at prevailing prices years ago. This
statement is true of
         a) LIFO
         b) FIFO
         c) WACM
         d) Adjusted selling price method
         Read the following and answer :
         Drawer is  ‘A’
         Drawee is ‘B’
         Endorsee is ‘C’

            In the books of ‘A’

      37) Bills receivable    a/c            dr.
              to  B
        a) Bill accepted by ‘A’
        b) Bill accepted by ‘ B’
        c) Bill retired by ‘B’
        d) None of the above

      38)    ‘C’                 a/c           dr.
                to Noting Charges   
                to Bills Receivable
a) Bill dishonoured and received back from ‘C’.
b) Bill accepted by ‘B’ but dishonoured
c) ‘A’ cancels endorsement
d) None of the above
                         .
      39)  Bill sent for collection    a/c           dr.
                 To Bank
a) Bill is paid by ‘B’
b) Bill is dishonoured by ‘B’
c) Amount paid to bank by ‘A’ after dishonour
d) None of the above

              In the books of ‘B’
      40)  Bills payable       a/c            dr.
                to  bank  
a) Bill accepted by ‘B’
b) Bill retired by ‘B’
c) Bill dishonoured by ‘B’
d) Bill sent by ‘A’ for payment

      41)   Bank               a/c           dr.
                  To bills payable
a) Bill accepted by ‘B’
b) Bill dishonoured by ‘B’
c) Bill paid by ‘B’
d) None of the above

42) Which of the following is not true
a) there is no difference in appearance between trade  
and accommodation bill.
b) A bill of exchange must be accepted
c) Drawee is maker of a bill
d) Accommodation bill is for an imaginary transaction



43) Which of the following is true
a) An insolvent is a person from whom some portion of the debt is recoverable
b) Drawer drags the drawee to court in case of dishonour of accommodation
Bill.
c) A bill drawn for mutual help is an accommodation bill
d) Drawee is a person to whom bill is endorsed

44) Noting charges are
a) Paid to bank for dishonour
b) Paid to drawer for dishonour
c) Paid to notary public for recording dishonour
d) None of the above.

45) Which of the is true
a) Del Credere commission is calculated on credit sales
b) Value of goods sent on consignment is debited to consignee a/c.
c) The relationship between consignor and consignee is that of principal and agent.
d) The statement of sales sent by consignee is called account sale.

46) Goods lost in transit is
a) Nominal loss
b) Abnormal loss
c) Casual loss
d) Conditional loss

47) Due to tsunami a ship of consignment goods sinks. This loss is called
a) contingent loss
b) Nominal loss
c) Abnormal loss
d) Casual loss

48) Which of the following is true for leasing and hire purchase
a) Lessor and vendor can claim depreciation.
b) Lessor and hirer can claim depreciation.
c) Lessee and hirer can claim depreciation.
d) Lessee and vendor can claim depreciation.





49) In sum of digits method for 5 years which of the following is  the 1st year’s allocation ratio.
a) 1/15
b) 2/15
c) 3/15
d) 4/15
e) 5/15


50) Which of the following is true
a) Total lease rent = cost of asset -  total finance income + residual value
b) Total finance income = total lease rent – cost of asset + residual value
c) Total finance income = cost of asset – total lease rent + residual value
d) Cost of the asset = total lease rent + residual value + total finance income

51) The break up of lease rentals into total finance income ,lease equalization and depreciation represents the principle of
a) Equity
b) Consistency
c) Conservatism
d) Materialism

52) Which of the following is not true for a lessee in a lease transaction?
a) reduction in capital investment
b) reduction in tax liability
c) risk of obsolescence
d) rentals can be expensive

53) Lease terminal adjustment account is a balance sheet account
Its treatment is in the following. Identify the correct one.  
a) if it is debit balance it is deducted from the W D V of the asset.
b) If it is credit balance it is added to the W D V of the asset.
c) If it is credit balance it is deducted from the W D V of the asset.
d) None of the above.

54) If statutory depreciation > annual lease charge then
a) The difference is added to the P & L a/c.
b) The difference is subtracted from the P & L a/c.
c) The difference is taken to the bank account
d) None of the above.



55)  Residual value is
a) Possible resale value after the asset is written off in the books.
b) Real value arrived at after calculation.
c) Negligible balance after the asset is written off over the useful life of the asset.
d) a) or c)

56) In operating lease the period is
a) Less than the useful life of the asset.
b) Greater than the useful life of the asset.
c) Equal to the useful life of the asset.

57) In comparing lease & hire purchase (H P) there are differences & similarities.
       Of the following which one is not true?
a) In lease the user of the asset does not retain it, while in H P he does.
b) In lease the user does not claim depreciation while he does in H P.
c) Payment of rentals is on instalment basis in both.
d) The users of assets in both lease & H P run the risk of obsolescence.

58) Receipts and payments statement shows
a) Only revenue receipts and payments during a year.
b) Only capital receipts & payments during a year.
c) Both capital and revenue receipts during a year.
d) ‘Cash Only’ transactions.  

59) Income for the year = I, Outstanding Income for  previous year = Id,
       Outstanding Income of current year = Idi, then Receipts for the year is
a) I – Idi + Id
b) I + Idi – Id
c) I + Idi + Id
d) None of the above.

60) Opening balance of asset = Oi, Closing balance of asset = Oc, Depn. = D,
       Then addition to the asset during the year is
a) Oc – D – Oi
b) Oi + D – Oc
c) Oc + D – Oi
d) Oi – D – Oc

      61)  Tick in the appropriate column for a Non-Trading Organization
          Item                                    Revenue Receipt     Capital Receipt
         a)  Donations for sports meet            √
         b)  Donations by Legacy/Will                                            √
         c)  Grant for playground                                                     √
         d)  Life membership fees                                                    √
         e)  Profit on sale of fixed assets         √


62)  For a Non- Trading Organization, a P & L statement is
       called an Income & Expenditure statement because.
They often make losses.
They are forbidden by statute to make profits
By object of their association they are non profit making bodies.
Their income & expenditure statement are a combination of capital & revenue
       receipts.

63) The useful or service life of a tangible asset  is limited by physical process of wearing out. This is called.
obsolescence
deterioration
depreciation
depletion

64) All costs be they revenue or capital will have matching revenues
        over a period of time. This accounting process is called
amortization
depreciation
depletion
all of these

65) Which of the following is not true
Depreciation is an expense charged to the P & L  a/c.
Depreciation is not a part of the operating costs.
Assets that are depreciated are tangible assets.
Depreciation is like an insurance expense.

66) Under written down value method of Depn., the W D V of the asset is always
a) equal to zero
b) < zero
c) > zero

67)Depreciation shrinks the
scrap value of the asset
market value of the asset
residual value of the asset  
book value of the asset

68) Depreciation is an estimate because
a) rates of depreciation are not fixed
b) residual value of the asset is not known
c) useful life of the asset is difficult to ascertain
d) a) & b)
e) b) & c)




69) In sinking fund method of depreciation accounting
a) A fund is created at the beginning to which
depreciation is charged annually.
b) Since acquiring an asset results in sunk costs
depreciation of the asset is called so.
c) Depreciation charged annually is transferred to a fund
which is invested in growth and income generating
securities to take care of the replacement of the asset.
d) None of the above.

70) What is G A A P
a) General American Accounting Practices.
b) Greatly Accepted Accounting Practices.
c) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles.
d) Good American Accounting Practices.   
   



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TREASURY PRODUCTS

  TREASURY PRODUCTS

1) Which of the following currency is not fully convertible?
a) USD b) EURO c) INR d) GBP
2) What are the Spot Trades?
a) It is the process of settlement where payment and receipts of funds are settled in respective currencies.
b) The settlement takes place within 2 working days from the trade date.
c) Currency may be bought or sold with settlement on the same date i.e. To day (TOD)
d) The settlement can be on the -next day he. Tomorrow (TOM)
3) Which of the following is significant about spot trade?
a) All rates quoted on the screen are for spot trade unless otherwise mentioned
b) TOD and TOM rates are generally quoted at a discount to the spot rate.
c) TOD and TOM rates are less favourable to buyer d) All these
4) What is forward contract?
a) It is a contract for purchase and sale of currency at a future date.
b) The exchange rate for a future contract is quoted on the day of contract.
c) The contract between buyer and seller is called forward contract.
d) All the above
5) Which of the following is true regarding a forward contract?
a) Treasury may have forward contracts with customers or Banks as counterparties.
b) Customers cover currency risk through forward contract.
c) Treasury may cover its customer exposure by taking reverse position in Inter-Bank market.
d) All the above
6) The features of forward rates are:
a) They are not projected on the basis of exchange rate movement in the market
b) Forward rates are decided on the basis of interest rate differential of two currencies.
c) The interest rate differential is added to the spot rate for low interest yielding currency and deducted
from the spot rate for high interest yielding currency
d) All the above
7) Which of the following are True?
a) Forward rate reflects interest rate differential only in prefect markets.
b) Perfect markets are where currency is fully convertible and highly liquid.
c) When currency is not fully convertible the demand for forward contract influences
the forward exchange rate d) All these
8) The features of a swap are:
a) A combination of spot and forward transactions is called a swap.
b) Buying in the spot market and selling same amount in forward market or vice-versa is swap.
c) Swap is mainly used for funding requirements_ d) All these
9) A Bank may have foreign exchange surpluses from the following sources:
a) Profit from overseas Branch operations
b) Forex Borrowing in foreign domestic market
c) Foreign currency and convertible rupee deposits with branches
d) All the above

10) A Treasury may have surplus forex from the following sources:
a) Surpluses net of Bank's -lending in foreign currency
b) Floating funds on account of customer transactions
c) EEFC funds maintained in current account d) All these
11) The surplus forex can be invested by a Treasury in:
a) Inter-Bank loans b) Short term investments c) Nostro Account
d) Any or all of these
12) Which of the followings are the sources for short-term investments?
a) Treasury Bills issued by foreign governments
b) Commercial paper
c) Other debt instruments issued by multi lateral institutions
d) All the above
13) What is a Nostro Account?
a) This is a current account denominated in foreign currency maintained by a Bank with the correspondent Bank in the
home country of the currency.
b) Nostro Account does not attract any interest.
c) Many correspondent Banks provide automatic investment facility for funds held
overnight which earn nominal interest. d) All these
14)What is Money Market?
a) It is place for raising and deploying short term resources where maturity does not exceed one year.
b) Inter-Bank market is divided as call money and term money.
c) Call money market is also overnight market where borrowed funds are repaid on the next working day.
d) Notice money market is where funds are placed beyond overnight and upto 14 days.
15) The participants in call/notice money market are:
a) The major players are Banks and primary dealers.
b) Non-Banking financial companies can only lend the surplus funds upto specified limit_
c) NBFC can not participate in this market d) Both (a) and (c)
16) Which of the followings are the features to Treasury Bills?
a) The T-Bills are issued by the RBI on behalf of central govt. for pre-determined amount.
b) The interest is by way of discount.
c) The price is determined through an auction process d) All these
17) The maturity period of T-Bills is:
a) 91 days b) 364 days c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
18) Which of the followings is relevant to T-Bills?
a) Each issue of 91 days T-Bill is for Rs_ 500 crore and auction is conducted weekly onWednesday.
b) Each issue of 364 days is for Rs. 1000 crore and it is auctioned fortnightly
c) The Banks park short term funds in T-Bills d) All these
19) The Benefits of T-Bills are:
a) It is Risk free investment
b) It yields interest higher than the call money market.
c) It is possible to trade T-Bill in secondary market d) All these
20) Which of the followings is correct regarding T-Bill?
a) It is in the Electronic form and held in SGL Account maintained by Banks with RBI.
b) Depository participants can also operate through SGL Account.
c) The settlement of T-Bills is through Clearing Corporation of India d) All these
21) If a T-Bill is of 91 days is priced at 99.26, what does it signify?
a) It will yield interest at 2.99%
b) This is known as implicit yield.
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
22) The_ features of the commercial paper are:
a) It is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of promissory note.
b) The highly rated corporate Borrowers can raise short term funds through this instrument.
c) It is an additional instrument to the investing community d) All these
23) -The time limit for issuing a CP is:
a) Minimum maturity 7 days b) Maximum maturity one year
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
24) The requirements for issuing a commercial paper are:

a) The company issuing CP should have minimum credit rating of P2.
b) Banks can invest in CP only if it is issued in D-mat form
c) The minimum amount of CP is Rs. 5 lac d) All these
25) Who issues guidelines for issue of CP?
a) RBI
b) Market practices prescribed by FIMMDA (Fixed Income and Money Market and Derivatives Association of India) c) (a)
and (b) both d) None of these
26) A company issuing CP must satisfy the conditions:
a) Tangible Net worth of the company should not be less than Rs. 4 crore
b) The company should be enjoying working capital limit with Bank/financial institution
c) The Borrowal Account should be classified as standard Asset d) All these
27) How does Tangible Net Worth is arrived at?
a) Capital b) Free Reserves c) (a) + (b) — Intangible Assets if any
d) None of these
28) Which of the following is relevant about commercial paper?
a) It is issued for discounted amount i.e. less than face value
b) The price is quoted for face value
c) It is negotiable instrument d) All these
29) Which of the following statements regarding commercial paper is
not correct?
a) CP is a substitute to working capital
b) Interest rates are at par with PLR
c) It should be compulsory in D-mat form
d) Purchase and sale of CP is effected through the depository participants
30) Banks prefer to invest in CP through Treasury because :
a) Credit Risk is relatively low.
b) Yield on CP is higher than inter-bank money market.
c) There is no liquidity risk d) All these
31) Which of the following- Credit Rating Agencies have been authorized by RBI for
Rating?
a) ICRA b) CRISIL c) CARE and FITCH Ratings India Ltd. d) All these
32) The provisions for issue of commercial paper are:
a) Maximum period for subscription to an issue of CP is two weeks from the date of opening of issue.
b) CPs can be issued on a single date or in parts on different dates.
c) The same issue of CP should have the same date of maturity d) All these
33) The process of issue a CP involves:
a) The Bank is appointed as issuing and paying agent.
b) The Bank would assess the requirement and the extent to which the CP issue is linked with credit limit.
c) The potential investors are given a copy of IPA certificates d) All these
34) The features of certificate of Deposit are:
a) It is a debt instrument issued-by Bank against deposit of funds
b) It is a negotiable instrument
c) It bears interest rate higher than regular deposits of the Bank. d) All these
35) The requirements of certificate of Deposit are:
a) Minimum amount of deposit is Rs. 1 lac
b)_ The maturity period may range from 7 days to one year
c) It is an additional source for investment to Banks and corporates d) All these
36) What is a Reverse Repo?
a) It is a contract to buy securities and then to sell them back at an agreed future date and price.
b) It provides opportunity for short term investments of surplus funds
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
37) What is Repo?
a) It is an instrument of borrowing funds for a short period.
b) It involves selling a security and simultaneously agreeing to repurchase it at a future date for a slightly higher price.
c) The price difference is called interest d) All these
38) The significance of Repo is:
a) It is a tool used by RBI for open market operations.

b) It affects liquidity in the system.
c) None of these d) Both (a) and (b)
39) The commercial Banks participate in Repo transactions because of:
a) To meet short fall of CRR --
b) To meet short fall in SLR
e) The interest on Repo is lower than call market d) All these
40) Repo transactions are regulated by:
a) RBI b) Securities Contracts Regulations Act c) (a) and (b) both d) None
41) Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Repo is a short term money market instrument
b) The Repo Rate and period is announced by RBI,c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
42) What is the Repo Rate with effect from 16th Sept 2010?
a) 5% b) 5.25% C) 5.75% d) 6% e) None of these
43) What is the Reverse Repo Rate with effect from lSept 2010?
a) 4% b) 4.25% c) 4.75% d) 5% e) None of these
44) The process of Repo transaction is:
a) A Bank may sell securities to the counterparty with an agreement to repurchase the same securities after a certain
period at pre determined price.
b) The bank gets cash in exchange of securities and pays back the cash after a certain period and get back the securities.
c) The difference between sale price and repurchase price is interest d) All these
45) The advantage to the counterparty under a Repo transaction is:
a) It earns interest on secured [ending.
b) It holds securities which serves the purpose of meeting SLR requirements.
c) The value of securities is higher by a margin to cover price Risk. d) All these
46) Which of the following statements is correct? .
a) The margin maintained on Repo securities is called hair cut as principal amount exchanged against
securities is lower than the market value of securities
b) RBI uses Repo to control liquidity
c) Banks and primary dealers sell govt. securities to RBI and avail liquidity d) All these
47) Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) RBI uses Repo Transactions under liquidity adjustment facility
b) Liquidity is not affected through lending to Banks under a Repo Transaction.
c) Absorption of liquidity is done by accepting deposits from Banks.
d) Absorption of liquidity by accepting deposits from Banks is known as Reverse Repo.
48) Which of the following statements is correct?
a) RBI has commercial repo auctions on overnight basis.
b) Repo and Reverse Repo Rates have been pre-fixed.
c) RBI has full discretion to change the frequency of auction. d) All these
49) The process of Bill Re-discounting is:
a) Treasury will discount Bill of Exchange of short term nature which are already discounted with the banks.
b) Rediscounting is done at money market rates.
c) The rediscounting rates are negotiable between the lending Bank and borrowing Bank. d) All the above
50) The advantage to the lending Bank is:
a) The surplus funds are invested at term money rate
b) Credit Risk is low as lending Bank has recourse to the discounting Bank
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
51) The benefits to borrowing Bank is :
a) It is able to infuse liquidity from out of existing Assets
b) Its capital adequacy ratio is improved or rediscounted bills are added to Inter-Bank liability c) (a) and (b) both
d) All these
52) Which of the followings is significant regarding government securities?
a) They are issued by Public Debt Office of RBI.
b) State govts. Issue state development Bonds.
c) Govt. securities are sold through auction conducted by RBI d) All these
53) Which of the followings is correct?
a) Interest is paid on face value of the bond at coupon rate.
b) RBI arrives at a cut off price based on bids submitted by Banks and primary dealers.


c) The price may be higher or lower than the face value d) All these
54) Price movement of Bond depends on:
a) Demand of the Bond which depends on liquidity in the system.
b) The yield on Bond is different from coupon rate.
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
55) If 10 years G. sec. at 7.37 per cent is priced at 104.80, what would be the yield'
a) 6.67% b) 5.42% c) 6.15% d) None of these
56) The interest rates in the economy depends on:
a) Rate of inflation b) GDP growth c) Other economic indicators
d) A combination of all these
57) The variety of Bonds may include: a) Step up coupons b) Coupons linked to inflation c) Floating rate coupons
d) Any of these
58) What is STRIPS:
a) Separately registered interest and principal securities
b) Under this process principal and interest are treated as separate zero coupon securities c) (a) and (b) both
d) None of these
59) What is corporate debt paper?
a) It includes medium and long term bonds and debentures issued by corporates and financial institutions
b) Yield on Bonds is higher than the govt. securities
c) They are called non-SLR securities where banks can invest d) All these
60) Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) Tier-2 capital Bonds issued by Banks fall under the category of corporate debt paper.
b) Bonds issued by corporates are not that liquid_
c) The bonds are issued in D-mat form.
d) Bank Treasury finds an attractive investment in corporate debt paper.
61) Which of the following statements is correct regarding corporate debt paper?
a) Higher the credit risk higher is the yield.
b) Global ratings are necessary if the debt paper is issued in International market.
c) Treasury can invest FCNR deposit funds and other forex surpluses in global debt paper. d) All the above
62) Which of the followings is correct?
a) Debentures are issued by private companies.
b) Bonds mainly issued by public sector companies.
c) Government does not provide guaranter on PSU Bonds d) All these
63) The material difference between debentures and bonds is:
a) Debentures are governed by relevant provisions of company law.
b) Debentures are transferable on registration
c) Bonds are negotiable instrument governed by Law of Contract. d) All these
64) The Bond can be : a) Zero Coupon Bond b) Floating Rate Bond c) Deep Discount Bond
d) Any of these
65) Which of the followings is not correct?
a) Debenture and Bonds can be issued with redemption in instruments over a period.
b) They can be issued with a premium or redemption.
c) There are no Bonds with put and call option
d) Bonds secured by stocks or other collateral are called collaterised obligations
66) Which of the followings is relevant regarding issue of Bonds and debentures?
a) The holders have prior legal claim over the equity and preference stock holders.
b) The Trustee appointed by issuing company protects the rights of debenture holders.
c) The Trustee can initiate legal action against the company in case of any default.
d) All of the above
67) Companies i s suing unsecured debentures and bonds have to compl y wi th the
provision of :
a) Companies Acceptance of Deposit Rules 1975 b) SEBI
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
68) What is a convertible Bond?
a) It is a mix of Debt and Equity.
b) Bond holder has an option to convert debt into equity on a fixed date.


c) The conversion price is pre-determined d) All these
69) The advantages of convertible Bonds are:
a) If the stock price is higher than prefixed conversion price, the investor would convert debt into Equity.
b) Company will have no debt repayment
c) The Equity of the company will be strengthened d) All these
70) Which of the followings are derivative products treated on stock exchange?
a) Index features b) Index options c) Stock futures and options d) All these
71) Provisions to invest in Equities are:
a) Banks can invest in Equities upto 20% of their net owned funds
b) Stock prices are highly volatile
c) Banks prefer low risk investments d) All these
72) The provision on Fll investments are:
a) Foreign currency funds are converted into rupee for portfolio investors.
b) Rupee funds with profits are converted into foreign currency for repatriation
c) Flls are allowed to invest in debt market d) All these
73) What is External Commercial Borrowings?
a) Indian companies can borrow on global market through Bank loan or issue of debt paper.
b) The debt can be repaid by reconversion of rupee funds into foreign currency
c) (a) and. (b) both d) None of these
74) The guidelines for investment of foreign currency funds of Banks are?
a) FCNR deposits can be invested in overseas market and for domestic lending :n foreign currency.
b) Banks are permitted to borrow/invest in overseas market 50% of Tier-I Capital.
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
75) What is Export Earners Foreign Currency Account?
a) Exporters are allowed to hold 100% export proceeds in a Current Account. wtth
b) No interest is paid on such deposits
c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
76) What is Gilts?
a) Securities issued by government or Treasuries.
b) They do not have any credit Risk, c) (a) and (b) both d) None of these
77) SGL Account is:
a) Subsidiary General Ledger
b) It is maintained by public debt office of RBI
c) Banks maintain exclusively government Securities Accounts d) All of these
78) Which of the followings is correct?
a) Counterparty is the other party to a Transaction
b) Yield is internal rate of return where interest is also reinvested at original coupon rate.
c) Foreign currency deposits are denominated in foreign currency d) All of these
79) The features of FCNR deposit are:
a) They are denominated either in USD, GBP, JPY or EURO, Can- Dollar and Aus Dollar.
b) The deposits are maintained by non-resident Indians.
c) Interest on FCNR deposits is regulated by RBI d) All of these
80) Broad money or M3 consists of :
a) Currency in circulation b) Demand and time deposits with Banks
c) Deposits of Banks and other deposits with RBI d) All of these
81) Monetary policy of RBI aims at:
a) Controlling rate of inflation b) Ensuring stability of financial market
c) Regulating money supply d) All of these
82) The tools in the hands of RBI for direct control of money supply are:
a) CRR b) SLR c) (a)-and (b) both d) None of these
83) CRR is calculated on net Demand and Time liabilities which contain:
a) Demand deposits and Time deposits
b) Overseas Borrowings
c) Foreign outward remittances and other demand and time liabilities d) All of these
84) The Demand deposits include:
a) Current and Savings Deposits b) Margin Money for Letter of Credits
c) Overdue Fixed Deposits d) All these
85) Other Demand and Time Liabilities include:
ayAccrued Interest b) Credit Balance in Suspense Account
c) Any other liability d) All these
86) In which of the following categories only 3% minimum CRR is required to be
maintained?
a) Net Inter-Bank call borrowing/deposits where maturity does not exceed 14 days,
b) Credit Balance in ACU (Asian Currency Unit) Accounts
c) Demand and Time liabilities in respect of off shore Banking units d) None of these
87) Banks need not maintain CRR on :
a) Paid up capital, reserves, retained profits, refinance from apex institutions.
b) Excess provision for Income tax .
c) Claims received from DICGC/ECGC d) All these
88) Which of the followings is correct?
a) CRR need not be maintained on Inter-Bank term deposits of original maturity upto one year
b) RBI does not pay interest on CRR Balance
c) The Demand and Time l iabil i ties as on the report ing Friday of second previous
fortnight will be basis for CRR calculation d) All these
89) SLR can be maintained in the form of following Assets:
a) Cash Balance in excess of CRR requirements
b) ,Gold at current market price
c) Approved securities valued as per RBI norms d) All these
90) What is Liquidity Adjustment Facility?
a) It is the mechanism whereby RBI lends funds to Banking sector through repo instrument
b) This is used to monitor day to day market liquidity
c) This is exclusively applicable to repo and reverse repo transactions with RBI
d) All these
91) The features of Negotiated Dealing System are:
a) This is a system where securities clearing against assured payment is handed by Clearing Corporation of India.
b) Physical delivery of cheques are not required.
c) All Inter-Bank Money Market deals are done through Negotiated Dealing System
d) All the above
92) The feature of Real Time Gross Settlement System are:
a) All Inter-Bank payments are settled instantly.
b) Banks' Accounts with all the Branch offices of RBI are also integrated.
c) Since it is instant payment system, Banks need to maintain adequate funds
throughout the day.
d) All the above
93) Which of the following is correct?
a) Asian currency unit is a mechanism for payment to/from members of Asian clearing union.
b) Off shore Banking units render special Banking services only to overseas customers.
c) SWIFT is a secure worldwide financial messaging system exclusive to Banks.
d) All the above
94) What is DVP?
a) Delivery vesus Payment system where one account is debited and another account is credit at the same time.
b) In case of securities purchase funding account is debited and securities account is credited.
c) This facilitates prompt settlement of security transactions. d) All these


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Treasury Management :: (Read nice article)

  Treasury Management ::

 (Read nice article)
Banks not only lend money to customers but also invest in securities such as Bonds and
Debentures of Government as well as Corporates. These instruments are easily tradable
in the capital and money market. The tradability of securities makes investments an
attractive option for banks for deployment of their funds. Further, banks buy securities
not only to trade but also to hold them till maturity to take advantage of the attractive
returns with relatively lower risk. Banks are allowed to invest in shares of companies.
However, the volumes are low due to associated high risk besides regulatory restrictions.
The investment portfolio of the banks broadly divided into three groups viz.,
Trading Book – Securities purchased with the intention of selling them within 90 days
are held in the trading book. Trading opportunities arise in the market on account of
fluctuation in interest rates and arbitrage opportunities.
Available for Sale (AFS) – Securities which are bought with the intention of selling
them but not necessarily within 90 days is considered to be AFS securities. They are also
part of the trading portfolio of the bank but only the time frame is different. Both the
trading and AFS securities have to be “Marked to Market” every quarter while finalization
of quarterly results.
Held to Maturity (HTM) – These securities are meant to be held till their date of
maturity and the purpose investing in them is to earn reasonable steady income. These
securities are carried in the books at cost or purchase price till maturity. Hence, HTM
securities need not be “Marked to Market” as the bank is certain of receiving the
maturity value on the specified date. Banks are not allowed to shift securities freely from
trading and AFS to the HTM book as this may lead to overstating of profit figures.
However, banks can opt for shifting only once in a year to adjust their overall portfolio.
Banks are permitted to exceed the limit of 25% of total investments under HTM category
provided (a) the excess comprises of only of SLR securities and (b) the total SLR
securities held in the HTM category is not more than 23% by March 2014.
Call Money Markets: Call and notice money market refers to the market for short term
funds ranging from overnight funds to funds for a maximum tenor of 14 days. Under Call
money market, funds are transacted on overnight basis where as in case of notice
money market; funds are transacted for the period of 2 days to 14 days.
Coupon Rate: It is a rate at which interest is paid, and is usually represented as a
percentage of the par value of a bond. It refers to the periodic interest payments that
are made by the borrower (who is also the issuer of the bond) to the lender (the
subscriber of the bond) and the coupons are stated upfront either directly specifying the
number (e.g.8%) or indirectly tying with a benchmark rate (e.g. MIBOR+0.5%).
Zero Coupon Bond / Deep Discount Bond: The bond is issued at a discount to its
face value, at which it will be redeemed. When such a bond is issued for a very long
tenor, the issue price is at a steep discount to the redemption value. The effective
interest earned by the buyer is the difference between the face value and the discounted
price at which the bond is bought. The essential feature of this type of bonds is the
absence of intermittent cash flows.
Commercial Paper (CP): It is a short-term instrument to enable non-banking
companies to borrow short-term funds through liquid money market instruments. CPs is
therefore part of the working capital limits as set by the maximum permissible bank
finance (MPBF). CP issues are regulated by RBI Guidelines issued from time to time
stipulating term, eligibility, limits and amount and method of issuance. CP can be issued
for maturities between a minimum of 7 days and a maximum up to one year from the
date of issue. The maturity date of the CP should not go beyond the date up to which the
credit rating of the issuer is valid. CP can be issued in denominations of `5 lakh and
multiples thereof. It is mandatory that CPs should be rated by credit rating agencies. In
a bid to make CPs attractive, the RBI has allowed issuers to buyback these instruments
through the secondary market before maturity. It attracts stamp duty.
Certificates of Deposits (CDs): It is a negotiable money market instrument and
issued in dematerialized form or as a Usance Promissory Note, for funds, deposited at a
bank or other eligible financial institutions to raise short-term resources within the
umbrella limit fixed by RBI. CDs may be issued at a discount on face value. CDs differ
from term deposit as they involve the creation of paper, and hence have the facility for
transfer and multiple ownerships before maturity. Banks use the CDs for borrowing
during a credit pickup, to the extent of shortage in incremental deposits. Minimum
amount of a CD should be one lakh and in multiples thereof. The maturity period of CDs
should be not less than 7 days and not more than one year. However FIs are allowed to
issue CDs not exceeding 3 years from the date of issue. Banks have to maintain the
appropriate reserve requirements (CRR/SLR) on the issue price of the CDs. It attracts
stamp duty. Banks/Fis cannot grant loans against CDs.
Mumbai Inter Bank Offered Rate (MIBOR) - Currently there are two calculating
agents for the benchmark viz., Reuters and the National Stock Exchange (NSE). The NSE
MIBOR benchmark is the more popular of the two and is based on rates polled by NSE
from a representative panel of 31 Banks / Institutions / Primary Dealers. It is used by
different Indian banks either for interbank lending of the surplus funds or for interbank
borrowing for meeting their short term liquidity requirements. MIBOR has been in use as
a reference/benchmark rate by the financial institutions for deciding interest rates for
the different financial instruments like Interest Rate Swaps, Forward Rate Agreements,
Floating Rate Debentures and Term Deposits, Loans of different maturities and
mortgages, etc. It is also the benchmark for the Call Money Market Rates.
Securitization is an effective tool to reduce the mismatches in the maturities of assets
and liabilities. It is a financing technique that involves pooling and re-packing of illiquid
financial assets in to marketable securities. There are six players viz., Borrowers,
Lending Banker (who becomes an originator for the Securitization transaction), Special
Purpose Vehicle (SPV), Credit Rating Agency, Investors and Service Providers. The
process of securitization involves identification of financial assets, rating of these assets
by the rating agency, creation of a SPV for handling the securitization transaction,
assignment of future receivables in favour of the SPV, issuance of marketable securities
based on these underlying financial assets and selling the same to the investors. The
service providers recover the amount periodically and remit to the SPV and who in turn
pass the benefit to the investors.
Asset and Liability Management – RBI Guidelines: Of late, it is observed that PSBs
have been accepting Bulk Deposits/Certificate of Deposits route to increase balance
sheet size at very high interest rates, adversely affecting the profitability besides
exposing the banks to ALM Risk. RBI directed banks not to accept Bulk Deposits beyond
10% of the total deposits and the total of Bulk Deposits & Certificates of Deposits should
not exceed 15% of total deposits of the bank at any given point of time. An appropriate
time-bound strategy for reduction of such existing bulk deposits should be put in place.
Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) denotes Net Bank Credit plus investments made
by banks in non-SLR bonds held in HTM category. However, investments made by banks
in the Recapitalization Bonds and Inter-bank exposures will not be taken into account for
the purpose of priority sector lending targets/sub-targets.
Subordinate Debt is a debt owed to an unsecured creditor that in the event of
liquidation can only be paid after the claims of secured creditors have been met.
Normally, subordinate debt ranks below other secured loans with regard to claims on
assets or earnings.

CASE STUDIES ON DOCUMENTARY CREDITS AND UCP600

  CASE STUDIES ON DOCUMENTARY CREDITS AND UCP600

CASE STUDY 1
Banks have a practice of calling for the original LC at the time of presentation of documents and
endorse any drawings on its reverse.
LC's may be made available by Acceptance / Defferred Payment / Negotiation and to be freely
available with any bank.
Is it mandatory to endorse the original LC on its reverse?
Analysis
Most LCs contain a clause indicating such a requirement.
The practice is required by SWIFT standards cat.7, for freely negotiable credits, available with any
bank.
Conclusion
What is the problem?
CASE STUDY 2
If a nominated bank does not incur a deffered payment undertaking on presentation of complying
documents and forwards them to the Issuing Bank.
Subsequently can it a purchases a deferred payment undertaking from the issuing bank and seek
protection under UCP600?
Articles 7c. UCP600
CASE STUDY 3
If a LC is confirmed and is available with the Confirming Bank and the beneficiary chooses to
present the document directly to the Issuing Bank and the Issuing Bank wrongfully dishonors.
Should the confirming bank honor the presentation given that the LC has meanwhile expired?
Article 8a. UCP600
CASE STUDY 4
A documentary credit requires all documents must to be issued in English language.
The presentation includes a Certificate of Origin bearing a Stamp / Legalisation done in another
language
Is this a discrepancy?
Issued in?
CASE STUDY 5
As per Article 38 of UCP 600, A LC can be transferred to more than one second beneficiary. This
can be done preferably when the Partial Shipments are allowed under the LC.
If the first Beneficiary is certain that he would be able to comply with article 31(b) of UCP600 (re
partial shipments – submission of multiple BLs on the same voyage), can a LC be transferred to
more than one second beneficiary even if the LC states Partial Shipment is prohibited provided
Article 38.d. UCP600
CASE STUDY 6
If the nominated bank does not accept a bill of exchange drawn on them by the beneficiary, can the
same bill of exchange be presented to the issuing bank or should they present a fresh bill of
exchange drawn on the Issuing Bank
UCP Article 7a (iv)
CASE STUDY 7